Health and Society Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health and Society examines the complex interactions between health, illness, and the social environment. The course explores how cultural, economic, and political factors influence patterns of health and disease, access to healthcare, and the structure of healthcare systems. Students analyze topics such as social determinants of health, health disparities, and the impact of race, gender, and class on health outcomes. Through interdisciplinary perspectives, the course encourages critical thinking about public health challenges and the role of society in shaping health policies and practices.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following best describes the proper sequence of steps involved in the scientific method?
a. state hypothesis
b. observe
c. experiment
d. support or disprove hypothesis
e. form a prediction
A) b, a, d, e, c
B) a, b, c, d, e
C) b, a, e, c, d
D) a, b, c, e, d
E) e, b, a, c, d
Answer: C
Q2) A carefully planned and executed manipulation of the natural world used to test a prediction in the scientific method is a(n) ________.
Answer: experiment
Q3) The chemical and physical processes that are involved in energy and molecular transformations in living organisms are collectively termed ________.
Answer: metabolism
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the structure of the atom?
A) The nucleus is composed of equal numbers of positively charged particles and negatively charged particles.
B) All electrons are located at the same distance from the nucleus.
C) In small elements, such as carbon, electrons have a positive charge; in larger elements, such as barium, electrons have a negative charge.
D) Most of the mass of an atom is due to its protons and neutrons.
E) Neutrons carry a negative charge.
Answer: D
Q2) A substance that helps to maintain a stable pH is a(n) ________. Answer: buffer
Q3) Sucrose is an oligosaccharide made up of which one of the following sugars?
A) glucose and glucose
B) deoxyribose and ribose
C) starch and glycogen
D) maltose and glucose
E) glucose and fructose
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells that have membrane-bound organelles and cytoplasm are classified as ________ cells.
Answer: eukaryotic
Q2) Where in a typical human cell does glycolysis occur?
A) mitochondrion
B) Golgi apparatus
C) cytoplasm
D) nucleus
E) rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C
Q3) In which one of the following ways do prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells?
A) Prokaryotic cells have a plasma membrane composed entirely of protein.
B) Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus and other membranous organelles.
C) Prokaryotic cells lack DNA, RNA, and ribosomes.
D) Prokaryotic cells have cytoplasm that is bounded by a cell membrane.
E) Prokaryotic cells have cytoplasm, but lack a cell membrane.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following types of tissues surrounds hollow organs that change shape or size regularly?
A) loose connective tissue
B) dense connective tissue
C) elastic connective tissue
D) reticular connective tissue
Q2) The type of epithelial cells most commonly associated with absorption in the small intestine is ________.
Q3) Positive feedback control occurs
A) during maintenance of proper body temperature
B) when insulin and glucagon regulate blood glucose levels
C) during the process of childbirth (labor)
D) to counter the effects of negative feedback
E) in other animals but not in humans
Q4) Goblet cells are critical to the movement of food in the body because they
A) secrete mucus in the digestive tract
B) produce basement membrane for epithelial tissues
C) synthesize cholesterol
D) form gap junctions
E) produce sodium-potassium pumps
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals can prevent osteoporosis by including sufficient supplies of vitamin C and calcium in their diets and maintaining a consistent exercise program.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Even before organs begin to form, rudimentary versions of the shapes of bones begin to form in a fetus due to the A) activity of growth hormone
B) formation of secondary ossification sites
C) activity of chondroblasts
D) formation of an osteoclast
E) breakdown of hyaline cartilage
Q3) The stability of a synovial joint is due largely to the presence of calcium salts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The coccyx is classified as a(n) ________ structure because it no longer has a function.
Q5) Tendons attach ________ to bone.
Q6) epiphysis
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The swinging of a tennis racket is a brief, high-intensity activity that requires the contraction of ________ fibers.
Q2) Once a muscle cell has depleted its small supply of ready-made ATP, what will it use next for energy?
A) fats
B) phospholipids
C) proteins
D) creatine phosphate
E) glycogen
Q3) The process of activating more motor units when more force must be exerted is called ________.
Q4) All of the following occur during the latent period of muscle contraction EXCEPT which one?
A) Myofibrils shorten.
B) Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C) Muscle cell membrane initiates an electrical impulse, which travels into the muscle cell.
D) Myosin heads bind to actin filaments.
E) Troponin-tropomyosin complex shifts, exposing myosin heads.
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding deoxyhemoglobin?
A) Deoxyhemoglobin delivers oxygen to tissues that have a high oxygen demand.
B) Deoxyhemoglobin has a bright red color.
C) Deoxyhemoglobin found in blood returning to the heart from the lower extremities.
D) Deoxyhemoglobin would form in organs with a high concentration of oxygen, such as the lungs.
E) Deoxyhemoglobin is located in white blood cells, unlike oxyhemoglobin.
Q2) Humans may have one of four different blood types-A, B, AB, or O. Explain why a person with type O blood is referred to as the "universal donor," yet can receive blood only from other individuals with type O blood.
Q3) Which one of the following formed element in the blood is not a cell, but actually a fragment of a cell?
A) monocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) neutrophil
D) platelet
E) plasma
Q4) Granular and agranular describe types of ________ blood cells.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of blood leaving the heart with every contraction is known as
Q2) Lymphatic vessels are structurally different from the arteries in that
A) lymphatic vessels generally possess more smooth muscle than arteries
B) blood flow through arteries is largely driven by ventricular contractions, whereas blood movement in lymphatic vessels depends on smooth muscle contractions
C) movement of lymphatic fluid depends on valves to prevent backflow
D) lymphatic vessels possess more elastic fibers than most arteries
E) endothelium lines arteries, but is absent in lymph vessels
Q3) The heart muscle itself receives oxygen and nutrients from blood transported by the ________ arteries.
Q4) Arthrosclerosis is a condition that results in a thickening of arterial walls due to buildup of fatty deposits containing A) glycerol
B) albumin
C) phospholipids
D) glucose
E) cholesterol
Q5) blood plasma leaves the capillary, carrying nutrients and oxygen to the cells
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Q1) Any substance that produces an inappropriate response of the immune system is referred to as a(an)
A) allergen
B) antibody
C) plasma cell
D) allergy
E) perforin
Q2) The unique set of proteins located on the surface of cells that distinguish one organism from another are the ________.
Q3) Which immune system cell must be presented with antigen by an antigen-presenting cell such as a macrophage, in order to become appropriately activated?
A) B lymphocyte
B) plasma cell
C) macrophage
D) T lymphocyte
E) natural killer cell
Q4) While T lymphocytes are maturing, each of them develops one of two sets of proteins on their cell surface. These proteins are known as ________ and ________.
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrapulmonary pressure must be reduced prior to the process of ________.
Q2) The respiratory system functions to ________ with the environment.
Q3) During inspiration, intercostal muscles function to
A) flatten the diaphragm
B) pull the rib cage up and out, so that lung volume increases
C) constrict the lungs so that intrapulmonary pressure increases
D) separate the layers of pleural membranes
E) increase blood flow to lung tissue
Q4) Tobacco smoke contains chemicals that ________ the production of mucus and ________ the activity of cilia in the respiratory system.
Q5) Which of the following disorders is described as follows: damage to motor nerves innervating skeletal muscle; skeletal muscles weaken; death usually results within five years of diagnosis?
A) amytrophic lateral sclerosis
B) pleurisy
C) cystic fibrosis
D) emphysema
E) botulism
Q6) The concentration of ________ is monitored by the aortic and carotid bodies.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nervous system is capable of using some neurotransmitters for more than one function. For example, some neurotransmitters may be excitatory in one pathway yet inhibitory in another. Discuss what accounts for the same neurotransmitter having different functions in alternate pathways.
Q2) There are several toxins that interfere with synaptic transmission. Botulism toxin, for example, interferes with the fusion of acetylcholine-containing vesicles with the membrane of the axon bulb. This would result in which one of the following?
A) blockage of Ca² diffusion into the axon
B) slow diffusion of the neurotransmitter across the synaptic cleft
C) inability of neurotransmitter to bind the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane
D) blocking of neurotransmitter release by the presynaptic membrane
E) hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
Q3) When an action potential arrives at the axonal bulb, ________ channels open in the presynaptic membrane.
Q4) Recordings of the brain's activities can be made using a(n) ________; this information is used to study the functioning of the brain.
Q5) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves are part of the ________ nervous system.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Foods that are potentially toxic or inedible are detected by ________ taste receptors.
Q2) Pressure in the middle ear is equalized with the external air pressure through the auditory tube.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Color blindness usually results from a decrease in the number of
A) rods
B) optic disks
C) foveae
D) cones
E) ciliary muscles
Q4) It is common for people who are traveling in cars or planes to experience an unpleasant sensation known as ________, which is due to conflicting sensory inputs from receptors located in muscles and tendons, the eyes, and the vestibular apparatus.
Q5) Pain receptors and receptors that monitor and maintain homeostasis typically do not adapt.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The endocrine cells of the pancreas are located in small groupings throughout the organ known as the ________.
Q2) The thymus produces two peptides that function to
A) regulate iodine levels in the thyroid
B) aid in the maturation of T lymphocytes
C) regulate thyroxine release
D) increase blood calcium levels
E) promote the breakdown of bone
Q3) Nitric oxide helps regulate blood flow in many tissues and is involved in the development and control of penile erection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following causes the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal medulla?
A) ACTH from the anterior pituitary
B) AMTH form the anterior pituitary
C) Releasing hormone from the hypothalamus
D) Sympathetic nerves
E) Parasympathetic nerves
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which undigested material is removed from the gastrointestinal tract is
A) secretion
B) urination
C) mechanical processing
D) elimination
E) absorption
Q2) Which one of the following vitamins can be produced by the human body?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Saturated fats differ from unsaturated fats in that saturated fats
A) store energy
B) are found only in plant products
C) are liquid at room temperature
D) are made up of glycerol and fatty acids
E) have two hydrogen atoms for every carbon atom in their fatty acid tails
Q4) Dental caries are caused by the production of ________ by bacteria in the mouth.
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The loop of Henle relies on a countercurrent exchange mechanism to promote movement of water and solutes. Explain the significance of this mechanism to the composition of urine.
Q2) The capillaries that serve as the major blood supply to the kidneys are called the A) Bowman's capsule
B) cortex
C) proximal tubules
D) hepatic portal system
E) glomerulus
Q3) filtrate in lumen contains solutes smaller than proteins
Q4) The function of the kidneys to concentrate urine is under the control of a negative feedback loop.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Renin stimulates the secretion of aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The process of reabsorbing water is regulated by ________.
Q7) passes urine to ureter
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) If fertilization does not occur following release of the egg by the ovary, then which one of the following degenerates approximately two weeks after ovulation?
A) primary oocyte
B) oviduct
C) endometrium layer
D) corpus luteum
E) choices A through D are correct
Q2) If pregnancy occurs, a layer of tissue associated with the embryo secretes the hormone ________, which maintains the activity of the corpus luteum in the ovaries of the mother.
Q3) As a primary oocyte develops within a follicle of the ovary, it is nourished by ________ cells.
Q4) Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases can be cured by the use of antibiotics?
A) genital herpes
B) AIDS
C) pubic lice
D) gonorrhea
E) hepatitis B
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The processes of initiation, elongation, and termination that occur in the production of a protein are all associated with A) DNA replication
B) processing of a fat in the endoplasmic reticulum
C) correction of a mutation
D) formation of an intact ribosome
E) translation
Q2) Embryo splitting is a type of cloning in which an egg is fertilized in vitro and A) then the genomic DNA is replaced with that from a desired donor
B) allowed to reach the fetus stage before implanted into the designated mother
C) then following mitosis, the intact nuclei are transferred to somatic cells for embryo development
D) the cells are split after the eight-cell stage to be implanted into a surrogate mother E) subjected to nuclear transfer
Q3) Differentiation is the process of sister chromatids separating from each other during meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Q1) The diagnosis of cancer may involve the use of ________, which employs short bursts of a powerful magnetic field to produce a cross-sectional image of tissues in the body.
Q2) Mutated forms of the ________ gene (a tumor suppressor gene) are associated with cancers of the cervix, colon, skin, bladder, and breast.
Q3) Dysplasia occurs when an abnormal structural change occurs in a cell. A)True B)False
Q4) Techniques used to increase the effectiveness of the immune system in fighting cancer are collectively known as ________.
Q5) The process by which cells of a tumor invade normal tissue and travel via blood or lymph vessels to other parts of the body is ________.
Q6) The human body has an incredibly efficient and powerful immune system capable of removing many potentially damaging pathogens and toxic agents that threaten the body. Knowing how efficient the human immune system is, explain why cancerous cells that threaten health can seemingly develop undetected.
Q7) The presence of the enzyme ________ in a cell is an indicator that the cell may be cancerous.
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an individual homozygous dominant for this trait has a child with an individual who cannot roll his tongue, what is the chance that the child will have a heterozygous genotype?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q2) If both alleles of a particular gene are identical, the person is said to be
A) an identical twin
B) phenotypic
C) heterozygous
D) homozygous
E) genotypic
Q3) ________ testing refers to the analysis of an individual's genetic material to determine predisposition to a particular health condition.
Q4) A phenotype is determined by ________ and ________.
Q5) Linked genes are not influenced by crossing-over during meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a useful technique in criminal investigations because humans contain many copies of repeating or junk sequences, the length of which can be unique to an individual.
Q2) During PCR, the enzyme DNA ligase is added to the mixture to promote the addition of nucleotides to the growing DNA chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The rapid development of knowledge regarding how to manipulate and analyze DNA, including techniques for modifying its structure, has led to the new field in biology known as
A) graphic display
B) DNA splicing
C) recombinant DNA technology
D) genetics
E) electrophoresis
Q4) Plasmid DNA from humans has been successfully inserted and expressed in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of producing pharmaceuticals in farm animals is ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Q1) Which one of the following organs is not fully developed in a fetus and is therefore bypassed by the ductus arteriosus?
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) heart
D) lungs
E) bladder
Q2) In the prenatal diagnostic technique amniocentesis,
A) a needle is inserted into the umbilical cord to collect fetal blood for screening
B) a thin, flexible tube connected to a needle is inserted through the vagina and into the uterus to collect a tissue sample
C) fetal blood is collected directly from the chorionic villi near the cervix
D) a needle is inserted through the abdominal wall to collect amniotic fluid containing fetal cells
E) the procedure cannot be performed after the fifteenth week of gestation
Q3) During labor, full dilation of the cervix signifies the end of the ________ stage.
Q4) Fertilization is completed when the sperm nucleus fuses with the ________.
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Q1) Which one of the following processes tends to mix gene pools?
A) gene flow
B) the bottleneck effect
C) founder effect
D) continental drift
E) adaptive radiation
Q2) The early embryos of vertebrates follow the same pathway of development; one structure that all vertebrate embryos have in common is the ________, which serves as a primitive support structure.
Q3) ________ refers to random changes in allele frequency as a result of chance events.
Q4) Humans are classified as hominoids because
A) they have larger bodies and bigger brains than other primates
B) all primates are classified in this group
C) they have hair during some part of their lives
D) at one point in their evolutionary history, they possessed a tail
E) aerobic metabolism uses hemoglobin for oxygen transport
Q5) ________ was an early human ancestor thought to be among the first tool makers.
Q6) The process of evolution ultimately depends on changes that occur in the ________ of organisms.
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Q1) Under natural conditions, the amount of nitrogen gas returned to the atmosphere by denitrification approximately balances
A) phosphorus cycling
B) evaporation
C) nitrogen fixation
D) sublimation
E) photosynthesis
Q2) All of the red squirrels living on a college campus would be a(n)
A) genus
B) family
C) population
D) ecosystem
E) community
Q3) The ________ is an organism's role in its community.
Q4) Climax communities generally exhibit the greatest species diversity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Factors in the environment that limit the ability of a species to meet its biotic potential are known as ________ factors.
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Q1) Biomass fuels are least likely to be used in which one of the following countries?
A) United States
B) Brazil
C) Iceland
D) Vietnam
E) England
Q2) According to public health officials, all of the following may be caused by water pollutants EXCEPT which one?
A) birth defects
B) nervous disorders
C) miscarriages
D) skin rashes
E) accommodation to allergies
Q3) The greenhouse effect is a natural and important phenomenon because it
A) removes smog from affected areas
B) maintains the surface temperature on Earth
C) reverses the effect that CFCs have on the ozone layer
D) decreases the amount of carbon dioxide in the stratosphere
E) reverses the effects of deforestation
Page 26
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