Health and Human Performance Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Health and Human Performance explores the scientific principles underlying physical activity, health, and wellness, focusing on how the human body responds and adapts to exercise. The course examines topics such as anatomy, physiology, nutrition, biomechanics, and psychology as they relate to optimizing physical function and performance. Students learn about the prevention and management of chronic diseases, strategies for promoting healthy lifestyles, and the role of physical activity in enhancing quality of life across diverse populations. Through both theoretical knowledge and practical applications, the course prepares students for careers in health promotion, fitness, coaching, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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26 Chapters
3071 Verified Questions
3071 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it necessary to label the axes of a graph?
Answer: A graph with no axis labels is meaningless-without knowing what trend is being illustrated, there is no communication of scientific information.
Q2) Individuals with Type I diabetes do not make enough insulin.Which of the following would be a mechanistic explanation of how insulin is used by the body?
A) Cells need insulin because glucose will not cross the cell membrane.
B) Insulin is a hormone involved in glucose transport.
C) Insulin binds to its receptor which triggers the movement of glucose transporters to the cell membrane.
D) Since all cells need glucose, insulin is required.
E) Without insulin most cells in the body would be unable to produce enough ATP.
Answer: C
Q3) What is a nocebo effect?
Answer: It is the phenomenon whereby a patient who has been informed of the side effects of a drug he is taking is more likely to experience some of the side effects than an otherwise similar patient receiving the same drug who has not been so informed.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute.
A) nucleus
B) molecule
C) solution
D) compound
E) cocktail
Answer: C
Q2) When a nitrogenous base is bonded to a pentose sugar and a phosphate, a ________ is formed.
Answer: nucleotide
Q3) A(n)________ is any molecule or ion that binds to another molecule.
A) phospholipid
B) enzyme
C) vitamin
D) ligand
E) cofactor
Answer: D
Q4) What is the pH of a 0.005 M HCl solution? Assume complete dissociation.
Answer: pH = 2.3.If pH = - log [H ] and HCl is a strong acid, we can assume complete dissociation will occur in solution.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell membranes are said to be ________ because they allow some substances to pass but not others.
A) hydrophilic
B) a physical barrier
C) structural
D) selectively permeable
E) metabolically active
Answer: D
Q2) Referring to Figure 3.1, which letter represents the basolateral membrane?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: E
Q3) Describe the progression of a fertilized egg, from totipotent cell through pluripotent and multipotent stem cells.How might stem cells be of therapeutic value? What is plasticity?
Answer: This is discussed in the "Tissue Remodeling"
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose-6-phosphate (G6P)binds to the enzyme glycogen synthase (GS), increasing the probability of enzyme-substrate binding.G6P is an example of a(n)________.Based on its name, what do you think is the role of GS?
Q2) Protein folding can take place spontaneously or with ________.
Q3) Explain how these statements differ, and identify which one(s)is/are correct.Explain what is wrong with each incorrect statement.Explain when chemical reactions continue and when they stop.
A.A chemical reaction proceeds until the enzyme molecules are all consumed.
B.A chemical reaction proceeds until the substrate molecules are all consumed.
C.A chemical reaction proceeds until equilibrium is established.
D.A chemical reaction proceeds until all the product molecules are removed.
Q4) Explain how the analogy of a ball and a hill is useful for describing the forms of energy to beginning physiology students.Use the synthesis of glucose by plants and the break down of glucose by humans as specific examples of the energy hill.
Q5) During the synthesis of proteins, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because the tRNA molecules that bring them to the ribosome have a(n)________ that is complementary to a specific codon in the mRNA.
Q6) The activity of metabolic pathways is influenced by the ratio of ________.
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) structural proteins
A)transfer signals from the extracellular environment to the cytoplasm of the cell
B)form cell-to-cell connections
C)bind to molecules to facilitate entry to or exit from the cell
D)ligands bind to these proteins and are changed by the protein
Q2) Explain how the body can be in a state of osmotic equilibrium and chemical disequilibrium.
Q3) As the charge on the membrane of a typical neuron approaches 0 from -70 mV, the cell is
A) only repolarizing.
B) only hyperpolarizing.
C) only depolarizing.
D) only becoming more difficult to stimulate.
E) hyperpolarizing and becoming more difficult to stimulate.
Q4) The walls of the ________ separate the two extracellular fluid compartments.
Q5) Distinguish between the following terms: cotransport; antiport; symport.
Q6) What is the approximate concentration of solute present in alien blood cells?
Q7) Define the term transport maximum and describe a way cells can increase their transport capacity.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a process by which an extracellular signal molecule, called the ________, activates a membrane receptor that in turn alters intracellular molecules, called the ________, to create a response.
Q2) Inositol triphosphate
A) is a water-insoluble messenger molecule.
B) binds to the calcium channel of the endoplasmic recticulum.
C) is involved in the release of calcium into the cytosol.
D) is a second messenger that is involved in the release of calcium into the cytosol.
E) uses all of the mechanisms.
Q3) What are NSAIDs, what is their function, and what are some drawbacks to their use?
Q4) An integrating center
A) is the disturbance or change that sets the pathway in motion.
B) is an electrical and/or chemical signal that travels to the effector.
C) evaluates incoming signals and compares it with the setpoint.
D) is the minimum stimulus that must be achieved to set the reflect response in motion.
Q5) In your own words restate and explain Cannon's four postulates for maintaining homeostasis.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ of a hormone is an indicator of how long a hormone is active in the body.
Q2) lipophobic molecule that interacts with receptors on cell surface
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
Q3) cannot be stored in secretory vesicles
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
Q4) The signal molecule produced by one animal that may affect the behavior of another animal of the same species is the ________.
Q5) The posterior pituitary gland is also known as the ________.
Q6) The term for two hormones that have additive effects is ________.
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a hyperpolarizing graded potential and a depolarizing graded potential of similar magnitudes arrive at the trigger zone at the same time, what is most likely to occur?
A) An action potential is fired off more quickly than usual.
B) Nothing. They will cancel each other out.
C) The cell becomes hyperpolarized.
D) The cell becomes easier to excite.
E) The cell dies.
Q2) The pattern of synaptic connectivity where a large number of presynaptic neurons provide input to a single postsynaptic neuron, is known as A) divergence.
B) convergence.
C) integration.
D) saltatory conduction.
E) potentiation.
Q3) The addition of several stimuli arriving from different locations on the same cell to produce an action potential is called ________.
Q4) Why are mitochondria necessary at axon terminals?
Q5) What is a channelopathy, and what are some examples?
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An enhancement of the postsynaptic cell's response to a constant stimulus that lasts for a period of time from hours to weeks is called
A) training.
B) consolidation.
C) long-term potentiation.
D) synchronicity.
E) synaptic plasticity.
Q2) receives sensory input from the inner ear's receptors for equilibrium and balance
A)cerebellum
B)hypothalamus
C)thalamus
D)cerebrum
Q3) Which of these has a higher concentration in cerebrospinal fluid than in the blood?
A) K
B) H
C) Ca²
D) 3
E) Na
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bones within the middle ear connect the
A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
B) tympanic membrane to the round window.
C) oval window to the round window.
D) cochlea to the tympanic membrane.
E) cochlea to the oval window.
Q2) Greater visual acuity results from convergence of ________ numbers of photoreceptors onto retinal ganglion cells.
Q3) The modality of a stimulus can be determined within the central nervous system by
A) population coding.
B) lateral inhibition.
C) frequency coding.
D) adequate stimulus from the sensory receptor cell.
Q4) A decrease in the release of neurotransmitter from the photoreceptor would indicate a(n)
A) decrease in light intensity.
B) lack of light reaching the retina.
C) increase in light intensity.
D) change in focus of the lens onto a distant object.
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released by neurons at the neuroeffector synapse.
A)True only for the sympathetic division
B)True only for the parasympathetic division
C)True for both divisions
Q2) Autonomic neurotransmitters are synthesized in the ________.
Q3) At the molecular level, what are the effects of nicotine on the nervous system? How are these effects exerted? How are these effects similar to or different from those of curare? How do these effects explain some of the physiological consequences of smoking?
Q4) Cholinergic receptors respond to the neurotransmitter ________.
Q5) Diagram the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction.Be sure to include the somatic motor neuron, axon terminal, synaptic cleft, synaptic vesicles, motor end plate, and appropriate neurotransmitter(s), ion channel(s), and membrane receptor(s).
Q6) blocks urination
A)sympathetic antagonist
B)parasympathetic antagonist
Page 13
Q7) Describe the major anatomical differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) This protein is activated by the Ca² -calmodulin complex to phosphorylate the myosin light chain protein.
A) tropomyosin
B) myosin heavy chain
C) myosin light chain kinase
D) myosin light chain phosphatase
Q2) Describe the muscle condition called tetanus.Is this a normal or a pathological event? If it is normal, what is the function? If it is pathological, what is the cause? The bacterium Clostridium tetani causes a disease called tetanus or lockjaw; you may have been vaccinated against tetanus, especially if you ever had hospital treatment for a skin wound.Speculate on whether or not the name of this disease is related to the muscle condition and why the disease can be fatal.
Q3) For antagonistic muscle groups to move a limb, flexor contraction occurs coincident with
A) contraction of the extensor.
B) relaxation of the extensor.
C) no changes in the extensor.
D) contraction of the tendon.
Q4) Describe the process of relaxation of a skeletal muscle fiber.
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) have gamma motor neurons that innervate internal fibers
A)muscle spindles
B)Golgi tendon organs
C)both
Q2) Bowel and bladder control involve spinal reflex pathways that are located in the sacral region of the spinal cord.In both instances, two sphincter muscles, an inner sphincter of smooth muscle and an outer sphincter of skeletal muscle, control the passage of waste out of the body.How would completely severing the spinal cord at the lumbar level affect an individual's bowel and bladder control?
Q3) Motor neurons are sometimes inhibited by
A) Golgi tendon organs.
B) muscle spindle organs.
C) joint receptors.
Q4) ________ allows the body to anticipate a stimulus and begin the response, whereas negative feedback results in the ________ of a response.
Q5) The ________ is essentially a group of interneurons that run from the motor cortex to the spinal cord.
Page 15
Q6) In a ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.
Q7) Most reflexes are regulated by ________.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atropine inhibits parasympathetic activity.Discuss the effects of atropine on the heart and describe common expected side effects.
Q2) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue EXCEPT one.Identify the exception.
A) increased blood volume
B) decreased vessel diameter
C) increased blood pressure
D) decreased peripheral resistance
E) relaxation of precapillary sphincters
Q3) At an intercalated disc,
A) the cell membranes of two cardiac muscle fibers are completely separated by a synapse.
B) the myofibrils are loosely attached to the membrane of the disc.
C) two cardiac muscle cells are connected by gap junctions.
D) t-tubules unite the membranes of the adjoining cells.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Diagram at least seven different factors that affect the components of the equation that relates cardiac output to heart rate and stroke volume.Explain each factor involved.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does a calcium channel blocker have on the heart, the blood pressure, and cardiac output? Why?
Q2) Blood pressure is determined by
A) measuring the size of the pulse pressure.
B) measuring the pressure in the left ventricle.
C) measuring the force exerted by blood in a vessel.
D) measuring the degree of turbulence in a closed vessel.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) ________ capillaries are very porous and allow high volumes of fluids to pass through them, whereas ________ capillaries consist of more tightly joined cells that allow a high degree of selective materials to pass.
A) Fenestrated, transcytotic
B) Continuous, fenestrated
C) Transcytotic, continuous
D) Fenestrated, continuous
E) Transcytotic, fenestrated
Q4) Which of the following is greater?
A) blood pressure when sympathetic stimulation to the heart increases
B) blood pressure when parasympathetic stimulation to the heart increases
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) a genetic condition where red blood cells have deficient cytoskeletons
A)hereditary spherocytosis
B)polycythemia vera
C)iron-deficiency anemia
D)sickle cell disease
E)anemia
Q2) What nutrients are required for red blood cell synthesis and why? What is blood doping? How is it detected? How is blood doping different from simply good nutrition?
Q3) ________ are a group of diseases characterized by the abnormal growth and development of white blood cells, and ________ are diseases where patients have too few white blood cells.
A) Neutropenias, leukemias
B) Anemias, leukemias
C) Neutropenias, anemias
D) Leukemias, neutropenias
E) Leukemias, anemias
Q4) The carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood is ________.
Q5) What is the difference between hemostasis and homeostasis, or are they the same?
Q6) What are the three major steps of hemostasis?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchioles and systemic arterioles dilate.
A)PO increases.
B)PCO increases.
C)PO decreases.
D)PCO decreases.
Q2) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,
A) expiration occurs.
B) intrapulmonary pressure increases.
C) intrapleural pressure decreases.
D) the volume of the lungs decreases.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Pressure and volume of gas in a container are related to temperature and number of gas molecules.This is known as ________ law.
A) the ideal gas
B) Boyle's
C) Dalton's
D) Henry's
E) Ohm's
Q4) A powerful bronchoconstrictor released by mast cells is ________.
Q5) Summarize the four gas laws.
19
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the partial pressure of oxygen in both air and water is 100 mm Hg, then the concentration of the oxygen is the same in the air and water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Generally, PCO in arterial blood is ________ than PCO in venous blood.
Q3) PCO tends to be ________ in tissues than in systemic capillaries.
Q4) Define hyperventilation and explain what may cause it.Is the increased ventilation that occurs while exercising an example of hyperventilation? Explain your answer.How are PO and PCO affected by hyperventilation? Can breathing into a paper bag remedy hyperventilation or is this just unfounded folk medicine? Explain.
Q5) Hypoxia resulting from fluid accumulation in the alveoli that cannot be corrected by oxygen therapy can lead to A) emphysema.
B) fibrotic lung disease. C) asthma.
D) adult respiratory distress syndrome. E) sudden infant death syndrome.
Q6) List and explain the factors that influence gas diffusion in the lungs.
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obstruction in a glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the A) renal artery.
B) efferent arteriole.
C) afferent arteriole.
D) renal vein.
Q2) Sylvia is suffering from severe edema in her arms and legs.Her physician prescribes a diuretic (a substance that will increase the volume of urine produced).Why might this help to alleviate Sylvia's problem?
Q3) Ruby is 77 years old and can no longer control her urination.What changed in the reflex pathway that used to control her urination?
Q4) Blood flow through the kidney includes a feature seen in only a few organs.What is it?
A) portal system
B) arterial shunts
C) vascular sinuses
D) veins containing highly oxygenated blood
E) anastomoses
Q5) The plasma concentration at which all of the renal carriers for a given substance are saturated is the ________.
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kidneys regulate
A) water loss only.
B) water gain only.
C) both water loss and gain.
Q2) AQP2 water pores are added to the cell membrane by ________ and withdrawn by ________ in a process known as ________.
A) exocytosis, endocytosis, membrane recycling
B) endocytosis, exocytosis, membrane recycling
C) membrane recycling, exocytosis, endocytosis
D) membrane recycling, endocytosis, exocytosis
Q3) A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion concentration of the blood is
A) cortisol.
B) parathormone.
C) thymosin.
D) somatotropin.
E) aldosterone.
Q4) What are oropharynx receptors, which hormone do they suppress, and how is it known that they exist? If a person stranded on a desert island drank seawater to try to quench his thirst, how would this affect the oropharynx receptors?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbohydrate digestion begins here.
A)mouth
B)stomach
C)rectum
D)small intestine
E)large intestine
Q2) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid that contains A) enzymes.
B) bicarbonate.
C) bile.
D) only proteases.
E) only amylase.
Q3) In some severe cases, a person suffering from stomach ulcers may have surgery to cut the branches of the vagus nerve that innervates the stomach.How would this help the problem?
Q4) Cholesterol is absorbed without being digested into smaller pieces.How does this compare to absorption of carbohydrates and proteins? Which characteristic of cholesterol suggests it would be transported by simple diffusion? What is the evidence that transport proteins are involved in cholesterol absorption? Does this discovery rule out transport by simple diffusion? Explain.
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain relies solely on ________ as its energy source.If it is deprived of this substrate, the cells soon die.
A) fatty acids
B) glucose
C) amino acids
D) insulin
Q2) ________ are molecules that prevent damage to our cells by stopping the destructive effects of free radical formation.
Q3) Damien, in training for the Boston marathon, finds his plasma cholesterol concentration is somewhat elevated.What other test results should Damien review before changing his training regime or diet?
Q4) In the study by Morewedge et al., subjects that imagined eating 30 M&M's one at a time ate fewer real M&M's than subjects who thought about eating only 3 M&M's.What possible reason can you think of to explain this observation?
Q5) Why does insulin deficiency lead to metabolic acidosis?
Q6) The combination of type 2 diabetes, atherosclerosis, and high blood pressure is called ________.
Q7) A diet of pure carbohydrate would produce an RQ of ________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following could describe the function of 11 Beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase?
A) An enzyme located in renal tubules that acts on cortisol.
B) It converts cortisol to a less active form.
C) It aids in preventing crossover effects from cortisol.
D) It converts cortisol to a form with a lower specificity for mineralocorticoid receptors there.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q2) The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal pathway begins with secretion of ________ into the ________ and transported to the ________.
Q3) Thyroid hormones
A) are lipophilic.
B) are hydrophilic.
C) must bind to plasma proteins for transport to target cells.
D) are lipophilic and must bind to plasma proteins for transport to target cells.
E) are hydrophilic and must bind to plasma proteins for transport to target cells.
Q4) Describe the endocrine regulation of bone growth.
Q5) ________ is a result of deficient thyroid hormone secretion in infancy.
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B lymphocytes and may play a role in regulation of the humoral immune response are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.
Q2) Explain the role of exposure to antigens in the development of the immune system in the fetus and in the primary and secondary immune responses in children and adults.How does this compare to the role of innate immunity?
Q3) Draw and label a typical antibody molecule.Be sure to include the light chain, heavy chain, Fab, Fc, and the hinge region.Identify the antigen-binding site and disulfide bonds.
Q4) Describe the roles of interleukins, kinins, and complement in immunity.How does interleukin-1 mediate the immune response?
Q5) Sketch the graphs of plasma antibody concentration in a primary immune response and a secondary immune response.Explain the significance of the graphs.
Q6) ________ are free phagocytes found in the lungs.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage of anaerobic metabolism is
A) high yield of ATP.
B) rapid ATP production.
C) fewer pesky by-products.
D) greater use of fat stores.
E) greater endurance.
Q2) Benefits of regular exercise include all of the following, EXCEPT A) lowered blood pressure.
B) increased plasma levels of HDL (high-density lipoproteins).
C) increased levels of LDL (low-density lipoproteins).
D) decreased risk of heart attack.
E) decreased plasma levels of triglycerides.
Q3) With endurance training, muscle mitochondria increase in A) size only.
B) number only.
C) size and number.
D) neither size nor number.
Q4) List and briefly discuss advantages or enhancements to metabolism brought about through aerobic exercise.
Q5) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of glycolytic metabolism.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) It has been reported that King Henry VIII of England divorced his wives because they were unable to produce a male heir to the throne.Some say the lack of a male heir is also used as justification for marrying additional wives in polygamous societies.From a genetics standpoint, what is wrong with these assumptions?
Q2) Which of the following occurs during days 15-28 of the menstrual cycle?
A) proliferative phase
B) ovulation
C) menstruation
D) secretory phase
Q3) In males, which cells are the primary targets for LH? What effect does the hormone have on these cells?
Q4) What are the characteristics that determine gender (consider genetic, anatomical, hormonal, and other factors)? Is it always the case that genetic, psychological, and physical gender cues indicate the same gender? Explain your answer, citing specific examples of conditions in which there is gender conflict.
Q5) Explain why observations of basal body temperature are useful for couples who want to get pregnant, but are only of limited use for couples who are trying to avoid getting pregnant.
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