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This course provides an in-depth exploration of the biological, environmental, and social factors that influence health and disease in human populations. Students will examine the principles of epidemiology, the mechanisms of disease transmission, and the body's physiological responses to various pathogens. The course also covers the role of genetics, nutrition, lifestyle, and public health initiatives in the prevention and management of disease. By integrating case studies and current global health issues, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how health and disease impact individuals and communities, as well as the strategies used to promote wellness and manage outbreaks.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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27 Chapters
1314 Verified Questions
1314 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) This plane divides the body into right and left halves.
A) sagittal
B) coronal
C) transverse
D) frontal
Answer: A
Q2) The thoracic cavity is ___________ to the abdominopelvic cavity.
A) deep
B) distal
C) anterior
D) superior
Answer: D
Q3) The leg is ___________ to the thigh.
A) distal
B) proximal
C) superior
D) deep
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can neutralize H ?
A) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
B) Na
C) OH<sup>-</sup>
D) H2O
Answer: C
Q2) Which compound is the universal solvent?
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) ATP
D) water
Answer: D
Q3) The word ferrous refers to
A) an acid solution.
B) an alkaline solution.
C) any cation.
D) iron.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which process describes the pushing of water across the capillary (blood vessel)membrane?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) osmosis
C) filtration
D) pinocytosis
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A) ribosomes
B) cilia
C) lysosomes
D) DNA
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following best describes normal saline?
A) radioactive
B) hemolytic to red blood cells
C) isotonic
D) crenating to red blood cells
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least related to lactic acid?
A) glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) anaerobic
D) cytoplasmic
Q2) Which of the following forms most ATP?
A) glycolysis
B) conversion of glucose to glycogen
C) aerobic catabolism of glucose
D) catabolism of glucose to lactic acid
Q3) With which process are both DNA and mRNA involved?
A) transcription
B) translation
C) glycolysis
D) ATP production
Q4) An NH<sub>2</sub> group and a COOH group is most characteristic of a(n)
A) fatty acid.
B) amino acid.
C) monosaccharide.
D) ketoacid.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The tick associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever is referred to as a(n)
A) arthropod vector.
B) causative organism.
C) spirochete.
D) fungus.
Q2) Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are
A) mycotic infections.
B) caused by salmonella.
C) worm infestations.
D) caused by protozoan parasites.
Q3) With regard to infectious disease,arthropods most often act as A) parasites.
B) causative organisms of disease.
C) vectors.
D) fomites.
Q4) This group includes single-cell animal-like microbes such as amebas.
A) bacilli
B) arthropods
C) viruses
D) protozoa
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of tissue is most likely to prevent a kidney from "floating"?
A) simple squamous epithelium
B) muscle tissue
C) adipose tissue
D) stratified columnar epithelium
Q2) Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured?
A) nervous
B) muscle
C) epithelial
D) connective
Q3) Which of the following is most related to bone?
A) epithelial tissue
B) plasma
C) adipose
D) hard intercellular matrix
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the blood vessels of the skin dilate,the person appears
A) jaundiced.
B) flushed.
C) cyanotic.
D) pale and washed out.
Q2) Which of the following is a consequence of a congenital absence of eccrine glands?
A) jaundice
B) vitiligo
C) acne vulgaris
D) inability to regulate body temperature
Q3) Which word is most descriptive of sudoriferous?
A) yellow
B) sweat
7-PAGE 2
Test Bank
C) hot
D) tan
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) abnormal curvatures of the spine:scoliosis,kyphosis,lordosis
B) types of ribs:true,false,floating
C) bones of the upper extremities:humerus,radius,ulna
D) bones of the lower extremities:femur,tibia,clavicle
Q2) At which joint do the scapula and upper arm bone meet?
A) humeroulnar
B) radiocarpal
C) glenohumeral
D) sternoclavicular
Q3) Which of the following is a hinge joint?
A) sternomanubrial
B) metacarpophalangeal joint
C) coronal suture
D) anterior fontanel
Q4) At which joint do the femur and coxal bone meet?
A) hip
B) knee
C) ankle
D) wrist

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Sample Questions
Q1) Joey has had his leg in a nonweight-bearing cast for 8 weeks.When the cast is removed,the leg appears smaller than the uninjured leg.Which term best describes this observation?
A) contracture
B) hypertrophy
C) muscle dystrophy
D) disuse atrophy
Q2) Which of the following is a series of contractile units that make up each myofibril;each unit extends from Z line to Z line?
A) sarcomere
B) synapse
C) fascicle
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q3) Which muscle is located in the lower extremities?
A) peroneus longus
B) latissimus dorsi
C) serratus anterior
D) pectoralis major
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endorphins are
A) natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of well-being.
B) energy sources much like ATP.
C) secreted by the choroid plexus and circulated within the subarachnoid space.
D) waste products generated by depolarizing neurons.
Q2) Which of the following structures is most associated with "wake up"?
A) Broca's area
B) cerebellum
C) reticular activating system
D) thalamus
Q3) What is the fatty insulating material that surrounds the axons?
A) glia
B) choroid plexus
C) myelin sheath
D) sarcolemma
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gag reflex is mediated by this nerve.
A) optic nerve
B) oculomotor nerve
C) cranial nerve VIII
D) glossopharyngeal nerve
Q2) Which reflex is stimulated by stroking the sole of the foot with a sharp object?
A) patellar reflex
B) baroreceptor reflex
C) Babinski reflex
D) gag reflex
Q3) Which of the following is located within the spinal cavity?
A) cauda equina
B) cervical plexus
C) brachial plexus
D) vagus nerve
Q4) Which word best describes the following: spinothalamic,pyramidal,corticospinal?
A) meninges
B) plexuses
C) tracts
D) motor tracts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes relaxation of the breathing passages (bronchodilation).Which of the following drug classifications achieves this effect?
A) beta2 adrenergic agonist
B) alpha1 adrenergic blocker
C) vagomimetic
D) parasympathomimetic
Q2) What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow? 12-PAGE 2 Test Bank
A) vagal discharge
B) parasympathetic nervous system
C) sympathetic nervous system
D) limbic system
Q3) Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
A) are somatic motor neurons.
B) supply voluntary skeletal muscles.
C) include the phrenic,sciatic,and brachial nerves.
D) innervate the viscera.
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Sample Questions
Q1) These hairlike receptors are located in the cochlea.
A) ossicles
B) rods and cones
C) organ of Corti
D) adenoids
Q2) Which of the following is least related to the vestibulocochlear nerve?
A) cranial nerve VIII
B) the cochlear branch sends information to the temporal lobe
C) concerned with both hearing and balance
D) classified as a motor nerve
Q3) What is the location of the semicircular canals and the cochlea?
A) inner ear
B) middle ear
C) outer ear
D) pharynx
Q4) The superior rectus muscle
A) causes miosis.
B) causes mydriasis.
C) moves the eyeball.
D) regulates accommodation.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin
A) is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans.
B) is secreted by the liver.
C) raises blood glucose.
D) is released by the pancreas in response to low blood glucose levels.
Q2) Obesity
A) antagonizes insulin.
B) elevates blood glucose.
C) causes Na and water reabsorption,thereby increasing blood pressure.
D) all of the above.
Q3) T<sub>3</sub>,T<sub>4</sub>,and calcitonin are
A) secreted by the thyroid gland.
B) secreted by the parathyroid glands.
C) secreted in response to declining plasma levels of calcium.
D) steroids.
Q4) Enlargement of the thyroid gland
A) is called a goiter.
B) causes addisonian crisis.
C) makes the person appear cushingoid.
D) causes hypocalcemic tetany.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The word icterus refers to
A) infection.
B) bleeding.
C) jaundice.
D) fever.
Q2) This cell is the "parent cell" of the three types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow.
A) erythrocyte
B) leukocyte
C) stem cell
D) megakaryocyte
Q3) Which of the following is descriptive of hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus?
A) flushed
B) yellow
C) blue
D) ecchymotic
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Purkinje fibers
A) open valves.
B) pull on the cusps of the valves.
C) conduct electrical signals throughout the ventricles.
D) close valves.
Q2) Which of the following is least related to the mitral valve?
A) left heart
B) bicuspid
C) semilunar
D) chordae tendineae
Q3) These conducting fibers rapidly spread the electrical signal throughout the ventricles.
A) bundle of His
B) Purkinje fibers
C) SA node
D) AV node
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the symptoms of acute left-sided heart failure are
A) relieved by morphine.
B) cured by an antibiotic.
C) respiratory in nature (e.g.,dyspnea,orthopnea).
D) confined to the lower extremities as in pedal edema.
Q2) Which of the following most accurately describes the vagus nerve?
A) "fight or flight"
B) norepinephrine
C) parasympathetic
D) causes tachycardia
Q3) Increased afterload (e.g.,hypertension)
A) is usually caused by arteriolar dilation.
B) increases the work of the heart.
C) can only occur when preload increases.
D) is usually caused by intense parasympathetic (vagal)discharge.
Q4) Heart rate and stroke volume determine
A) hematocrit.
B) total blood volume.
C) cardiac output.
D) the size of the heart valves.

Page 19
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Sample Questions
Q1) The splanchnic circulation
A) refers to the blood vessels that supply the stomach,spleen,pancreas,and intestines.
B) is the special circulation that brings oxygenated blood to the base of the brain.
C) occurs only in the fetal circulation.
D) refers to the blood vessels in the lower extremities.
Q2) Which of the following vessels carries unoxygenated blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava?
A) portal vein
B) celiac axis
C) hepatic artery
D) hepatic veins
Q3) The subclavian veins
A) receive blood from the inferior vena cava.
B) pump blood into the jugular veins.
C) are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
D) deliver blood to the superior vena cava.
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a child with nephrotic syndrome loses large amounts of albumin in his urine (albuminuria),
A) plasma oncotic pressure decreases and he develops edema.
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure increases,causing edema.
C) plasma oncotic pressure increases,thereby "pulling" fluid into the capillary,causing poor skin turgor.
D) lymph flow decreases.
Q2) If plasma oncotic pressure exceeds CHP,
A) fluid is filtered from the capillary into the interstitium.
B) fluid moves osmotically into the capillary from the interstitium.
C) plasma proteins diffuse from the capillary into the interstitium.
D) blood volume decreases.
Q3) What is the term that refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure reading?
A) pulse deficit
B) cardiac output
C) stroke volume
D) pulse pressure
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Q1) The subclavian vein
A) receives lymph from the large lymphatic ducts.
B) pumps blood into the large lymphatic ducts.
C) forms the thoracic duct.
D) is called a lacteal.
Q2) Thymosin
A) is a hormone.
B) is the fluid within the lymph nodes.
C) is secreted by all lymph nodes.
D) plays no known role.
Q3) What is (are)the lymphoid structure(s)that are generally removed during mastectomy?
A) spleen
B) liver
C) axillary lymph nodes
D) adenoids
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Q1) Which of the following is most associated with a low plasma level of antibodies?
A) the "booster" response
B) the primary response
C) an autoimmune response
D) anaphylaxis
Q2) These T cells do not participate in the destruction of the pathogen,but allow for a more rapid response if the antigen is presented at a later time.
A) killer T cells
B) suppressor T cells
C) thrombocytes
D) memory T cells
Q3) Which of the following is characterized by a local tissue response to T cell activity?
A) anaphylaxis
B) wheezing,edema,and hypotension
C) contact dermatitis
D) immunotolerance
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Q1) In which structure is the PO<sub>2</sub> 104 mm Hg?
A) pulmonary artery
B) alveolus
C) right ventricle
D) vena cava
Q2) Which of the following structures is located in the lungs?
A) pharynx
B) epiglottis
C) alveoli
D) larynx
Q3) Stimulation of the phrenic and intercostal nerves causes the release of this neurotransmitter into the neuromuscular junction.
A) adrenaline
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) myosin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amylases
A) digest carbohydrates.
B) emulsify fat.
C) are gastric hormones.
D) are proteolytic.
Q2) Enamel,dentin,and cementum are related to this structure.
A) tooth
B) liver
C) colon
D) villi
Q3) Gastrin,secretin,and cholecystokinin are
A) secreted by the stomach.
B) amylases.
C) emulsifying agents.
D) hormones.
Q4) Which of the following is most likely to cause ascites and esophageal varices?
A) common bile duct obstruction
B) gallstones
C) stenosis of the pyloric valve
D) increased portal vein pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major artery that supplies the kidneys?
A) carotid
B) portal
C) celiac axis
D) renal
Q2) Which of the following is absorbed across the walls of the collecting duct under the influence of ADH?
A) potassium
B) urea
C) water
D) albumin
Q3) Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
A) reabsorbs K and eliminates Na in the urine.
B) causes albuminuria.
C) expands blood volume.
D) causes hematuria.
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of extracellular fluid?
A) Most body water is extracellular.
B) Plasma is extracellular fluid.
C) Transcellular fluid is extracellular.
D) There is more interstitial fluid than intravascular fluid.
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to occur when output exceeds intake?
A) diuresis
B) polyuria
C) hematuria
D) dehydration
Q3) Which of the following anions buffers H ?
A) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
B) HCO-<sub>3</sub>
C) Na
D) K
Q4) Respiratory rate is most sensitive to the effects of this ion.
A) Na
B) K
C) H
D) Cl-
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76 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myometrium and the endometrium are layers of this structure.
A) ovaries
B) uterus
C) fallopian tubes
D) vagina
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to cause sterility in the female?
A) benign prostatic hypertrophy
B) cystitis
C) repeated bouts of gonorrhea
D) torn hymen
Q3) This structure carries both urine and semen.
A) vagina
B) urethra
C) ejaculatory duct
D) vas deferens
Q4) The cervix is part of this organ.
A) uterus
B) fallopian tube
C) vagina
D) perineum

Page 28
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the fine,downy hair that covers the fetus?
A) vernix caseosa
B) lanugo
C) colostrum
D) meconium
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) primary germ layers:ectoderm,mesoderm,chromosomes
B) embryonic structures:zygote,blastomeres,morula,blastocysts
C) genes:dominant,recessive,codominant
D) genetic disorders:Down,Edward,Patau syndromes
Q3) Afterbirth refers primarily to this structure.
A) morula
B) zygote
C) fetus
D) placenta
Q4) Which of the following organs involutes following delivery of baby?
A) vagina
B) fallopian tubes
C) ovaries
D) uterus
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