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Head and Neck Pathology is a specialized course that focuses on the comprehensive study of diseases affecting the head and neck region, including the oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, salivary glands, thyroid gland, and related structures. The course covers the etiology, pathogenesis, clinical presentation, histopathological features, and diagnostic criteria of neoplastic and non-neoplastic disorders. Emphasis is placed on correlating clinical findings with microscopic pathology, understanding the implications for patient management, and recognizing recent advancements in diagnostic techniques and molecular pathology within this anatomical region.
Recommended Textbook
Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist 6th Edition by Olga A. C. Ibsen
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10 Chapters
617 Verified Questions
617 Flashcards
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is diagnosed through clinical appearance?
A)Fordyce granules
B)Unerupted mesiodens
C)Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
D)Traumatic bone cyst
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following best describes an elevated, 5-mm soft tissue lesion containing serous fluid?
A)Macule
B)Vesicle
C)Lobule
D)Pustule
Answer: B
Q3) The term erythroplakia is best used in which of the following contexts?
A)Microscopic
B)Laboratory
C)Surgical
D)Clinical
Answer: D

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59 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a factor that may impair healing except one. Which one is the exception?
A)Tobacco use
B)Staphylococcus
C)Nutritional supplements
D)Renal failure
Answer: C
Q2) Each of the following is most likely to result in frictional keratosis except one. Which one is the exception?
A)Chronic cheek biting
B)Chewing on an edentulous ridge
C)Cigarette smoking
D)Tongue chewing
Answer: C
Q3) Necrotizing sialometaplasia is thought to result from:
A)lack of blood supply to the affected salivary gland.
B)a sialolith.
C)trauma to the floor of the mouth.
D)pleomorphic adenoma.
Answer: A
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of natural passive immunity would occur when:
A)antibodies from a mother pass through the placenta to the developing fetus.
B)a microorganism causes a disease.
C)a person receives a vaccination.
D)a person is immunized.
Answer: A
Q2) The diagnosis of lichen planus is made on the basis of:
A)clinical and radiographic appearance.
B)clinical and histologic appearance.
C)history of the condition.
D)therapeutic medication.
Answer: B
Q3) The major divisions of the immune response are the cell-mediated and humoral responses. Both of these responses originate from what type of cell?
A)Plasma cell
B)Stem cell
C)T-lymphocyte
D)B-lymphocyte
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) In testing for HIV infection, which of the following antibody tests is performed initially before the confirmatory Western blot test?
A)VDRL
B)ELISA (EIA)
C)FTA-ABS
D)CBC
Q2) Multiple tiny vesicles that progress to form painful ulcers
A)Impetigo
B)Tuberculosis
C)Actinomycosis
D)Syphilis
E)Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
F)Verrucous vulgaris
G)Condyloma acuminatum
Q3) In herpes labialis, the amount of virus present is highest in the _____ stage.
A)crusted
B)prodromal
C)vesicle
D)healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enamel hypoplasia is the result of a disturbance of or damage to ameloblasts during enamel matrix formation. Which one of the following would not be a factor?
A)Genetics
B)Ingestion of high concentrations of fluoride during tooth development
C)Vitamin deficiency during tooth development
D)Shingles
Q2) The body of the tongue develops from the:
A)frontal process.
B)first branchial arch.
C)second branchial arch.
D)third branchial arch.
Q3) Odontogenic keratocysts are a clinical component of:
A)nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome.
B)neurofibromatosis of von Recklinghausen.
C)cherubism.
D)Gardner syndrome.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Permanent change in the arrangement of genetic material
A)Autosomes
B)Gamete
C)Locus
D)Mutation
E)Phenotype
F)Syndrome
Q2) Hard, dense, cortical bone on the buccal aspect of the alveolar ridge by tooth number 14 would be termed a:
A)radiolucent torus palatinus.
B)radiopaque torus mandibularis.
C)radiopaque exostosis.
D)radiolucent exostosis.
Q3) Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome includes multiple mucosal neuromas, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland, and:
A)telangiectases.
B)pheochromocytoma.
C)gastrointestinal polyposis.
D)blue sclera.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant melanoma usually presents as a(n):
A)slowly enlarging white mass.
B)rapidly enlarging blue-to-black mass.
C)slowly enlarging papule.
D)exophytic, wartlike lesion.
Q2) Cells are poorly differentiated.
A)Benign
B)Malignant
Q3) The _____ is a unique type of monomorphic adenoma.
A)verrucous carcinoma
B)mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C)cylindroma
D)papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum
Q4) Osteosarcoma occurs more often in the _____ and more often in _____.
A)maxilla; males
B)maxilla; females
C)mandible; males
D)mandible; females
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of lesions typically arises in the posterior mandible and appears as an isolated, well-delineated radiolucent-to-radiopaque lesion that is less than 1.5 cm in size?
A)Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
B)Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
C)Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
D)Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
Q2) Light brown skin macules associated with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia are referred to as:
A)Koplik spots.
B)café au lait spots.
C)brown tumors.
D)gritty tissue.
Q3) Osteitis deformans and leontiasis ossea are other names for what chronic metabolic bone disease?
A)Central giant cell granuloma
B)Jaffe-Lichtenstein
C)Paget disease
D)Albright syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A megaloblastic anemia is characterized by red blood cells that are:
A)hypochromic and macrocytic.
B)hyperchromic and macrocytic.
C)microcytic and have nuclei.
D)macrocytic and have nuclei.
Q2) Polydipsia
A)Severe pain in a joint
B)Reduction of the number of red blood cells
C)Chronic excessive thirst and intake of fluid
D)Small, flat, hemorrhagic patch larger than a petechia on the skin
E)Cell surface protein to which a specific molecule (e.g., a hormone) can bind
F)Stoppage or cessation of bleeding
G)Decrease in number of granulocytes
H)Muscle pain
I)Insoluble protein that is essential for the clotting of blood
J)Platelet
K)Enlargement of the liver
L)Increase in the total red blood cell mass in the blood
M)Abnormal rarefaction of bone
N)Decrease in the number of platelets in circulating blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synovial _____ is the most common benign neoplasm of the synovium.
A)osteoblastoma
B)chondroblastoma
C)osteoma
D)chondromatosis
Q2) The most common systemic conditions that affect the TMJ are:
A)Sjögren syndrome and scleroderma.
B)rheumatoid arthritis and juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.
C)gout and Reiter syndrome.
D)ankylosing spondylitis and mixed connective tissue disease.
Q3) An open lock that the patient cannot reduce is called:
A)subluxation.
B)dislocation.
C)ankylosis.
D)myofascial pain.
Q4) The temporomandibular joint exhibits ginglymoarthrodial, or _____, movement.
A)rotational and translational
B)opening
C)closing
D)maximal interdigitation
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