Head and Neck Anatomy Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Head and Neck Anatomy is a comprehensive course that explores the structural organization and function of the head and neck regions in the human body. Emphasizing clinical relevance, the course covers the skeletal framework, muscles, blood vessels, nerves, lymphatics, and organs such as the salivary glands, thyroid, and sensory organs. Students learn through lectures, dissection, and laboratory sessions to develop a thorough understanding of topographical relationships, anatomical landmarks, and implications for medical procedures. The course is essential for students pursuing careers in dentistry, medicine, and allied health sciences, providing a solid foundation for diagnosing and managing disorders related to the head and neck.
Recommended Textbook
Oral Pathology for the Dental Hygienist 7th Edition by Olga A. C. Ibsen
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10 Chapters
758 Verified Questions
758 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Preliminary Diagnosis of Oral
Lesions
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65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benign migratory glossitis is a condition that does not remain static. What does this statement mean?
A) A variety of over-the-counter treatments are available for this condition.
B) Surgical intervention may be required.
C) Remission and changes in the surface of the tongue occur.
D) An intraoral habit is responsible for this condition.
Answer: C
Q2) Another term for an amalgam tattoo is a
A) melanoma.
B) focal argyrosis.
C) nevus.
D) multiple myeloma.
Answer: B
Q3) Where is the common intraoral location for leukoedema?
A) Lateral borders of the tongue
B) Soft palate and uvula
C) Floor of the mouth
D) Buccal mucosa
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which does not cause gingival enlargement?
A) Hormonal changes
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Hereditary factors
D) Nitroglycerin
Answer: D
Q2) Which inflammatory periapical lesion is most painful?
A) Periapical abscess
B) Periapical granuloma
C) Radicular cyst
D) Residual cyst
Answer: A
Q3) Serous exudate is composed of which material(s)?
A) Tissue debris and many white blood cells
B) Suppuration
C) Plasma fluids and proteins with a few white blood cells
D) Plasma fluids and red blood cells
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Immunity and Immunologic Oral Lesions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which type of immune response do B-lymphocytes and antibodies play the predominant role?
A) Cell-mediated immunity
B) Immune complex
C) Humoral immunity
D) Passive immunity
Answer: C
Q2) This patient has Sjögren syndrome and severe xerostomia. Which clinical feature most appropriately describes the changes on the tongue in this patient?
A) Dryness
B) Candidiasis
C) Loss of filiform and fungiform papillae
D) Fissures
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of candidiasis affecting the oral mucosa is __________________.
A) pseudomembranous
B) erythematous
C) chronic atrophic
D) chronic hyperplastic
Q2) Why are newborn babies susceptible to an infection with Candida albicans?
A) Newborns are always susceptible to numerous infections.
B) The organism can cross the placenta.
C) Babies do not have a fully developed immune system.
D) The infection can be passed during breast-feeding.
Q3) Which antigen is injected into the skin to determine exposure and infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A) HLA-B27
B) PPD
C) VDRL
D) IgE
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Chapter 5: Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ is characterized by its unique histologic appearance and its frequent recurrence rate.
A) radicular cyst
B) residual cyst
C) dentigerous cyst
D) odontogenic keratocyst
Q2) Multiple supernumerary teeth may be a component of which condition?
A) Cleidocranial dysplasia
B) Dermoid cyst
C) Syphilis
D) Static bone cyst
Q3) The pseudocyst seen in this radiographic image is surrounded by salivary gland tissue. It is a(n) _____ bone cyst.
A) simple
B) Stafne
C) traumatic
D) aneurysmal
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Chapter 6: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which syndrome is characterized by multiple melanotic macular pigmentations of the skin and mucosa, which are associated with gastrointestinal polyposis?
A) Osler-Rendu-Parkes Weber syndrome
B) Van der Woude syndrome
C) Gorlin syndrome
D) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Q2) Multiple osteomas and odontomas seen with Gardner syndrome can cause which oral complication?
A) Teeth fail to erupt.
B) Teeth demonstrate increased mobility.
C) Increased supernumerary teeth
D) Teeth exfoliate prematurely.
Q3) Each statement about chromosomes is true except one. Which one is the exception?
A) Chromosomes are located in the nucleus of the cell.
B) Hereditary units called genes are found on chromosomes.
C) Chromosomes can only be seen clearly under a microscope when the nucleus and cell are dividing.
D) Chromosomes contain RNA, which directs the production of amino acids, polypeptides, and proteins by the cell.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the origin of these tumors is glandular epithelium, benign tumors of salivary gland origin are termed
A) adenomas
B) nevi
C) chondromas
D) lipomas
Q2) Where is the most common intraoral location for the development of minor salivary gland tumors?
A) Tongue
B) Junction of the hard and soft palate
C) Interdental papilla
D) Floor of the mouth
Q3) Multiple myeloma is a systemic, malignant proliferation of A) red blood cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) eosinophils.
D) basophils.
Q4) Growth expands by invasion and replaces normal tissue.
A)Benign
B)Malignant
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Chapter 8: Nonneoplastic Diseases of Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of fibrous dysplasia, characterized by involvement of a single bone, is termed
A) Paget disease.
B) polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.
C) monostotic fibrous dysplasia.
D) central giant cell granuloma.
Q2) All are likely complaints of a patient with Paget disease of bone except one. Which is the exception?
A) "My partial denture does not fit."
B) "I can't hear you, can you speak louder?"
C) "I have spaces between my teeth that I never had before."
D) "My tongue is always sore."
Q3) Surgical treatment would most likely be recommended for a patient with ________ dysplasia.
A) periapical cemento-osseous
B) focal cemento-osseous
C) florid cemento-osseous
D) fibrous
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Chapter 9: Oral Manifestations of Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type A hemophilia is less common than type B hemophilia. Type A hemophilia is caused by a deficiency of the clotting factor called plasma thromboplastinogen or factor VIII.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) A "hair-on-end" pattern may be noted on skull radiographic images of a patient with A) polycythemia.
B) aplastic anemia.
C) sickle cell anemia.
D) thalassemia.
Q3) Thrombocytopenic purpura results from a A) defect in the capillary walls.
B) disorder of platelet function.
C) severe reduction in circulating platelets.
D) reduction in white blood cells.
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11
Chapter 10: Orofacial Pain and Diseases Affecting the
Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sign
A)Method for evaluating and manipulating a joint via the insertion of a camera and instruments
B)Dry, crackling sound
C)Surgical puncture of a joint followed by lavage of joint space
D)Physical examination using pressure of the hand or fingers
E)Inability to fully open the mouth
F)Radiography of a joint after injection of opaque contrast material
G)Noninvasive diagnostic technique that uses radio waves to produce computerized images of internal body tissues
H)Listening to sounds within the body, using a stethoscope
I)Subjective evidence of disease or a physical disorder that is observed by the patient
J)Objective evidence of disease that can be observed by a health care provider rather than by the patient
K)Joint
L)Induced inadvertently by a medical or dental care provider or by medical treatment or a diagnostic procedure
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