Head and Neck Anatomy Question
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Course Introduction
Head and Neck Anatomy provides an in-depth study of the structural organization of the head and neck region, with a focus on bones, muscles, nerves, blood vessels, lymphatics, and major organs such as the salivary glands and thyroid. The course emphasizes both the gross and surface anatomy, correlating anatomical knowledge with clinical applications relevant to dentistry, medicine, and allied health professions. Students will explore the functional relationships between anatomical structures and gain practical skills in identifying key landmarks, preparing them for advanced clinical training and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy of Orofacial Structures 7th Edition by Richard W. Brand
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Chapter 1: Oral Cavity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is another term for tongue-tied?
A) Glossolalia
B) Ankyloglossia
C) Frenectomy
D) Glossitis
Answer: B
Q2) Each of the following is true of the uvula EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) It is located at the most posterior portion of the hard palate.
B) It is located at the midline.
C) It is a downwardly projecting muscle.
D) It is necessary for swallowing.
Answer: D
Q3) Lymphoid tissues located at the base of the tongue are known as foliate papillae. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Tooth: Functions and Terms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cellular cementum has the ability to reproduce itself.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following structures represent a concavity or depression within the surface of a tooth (select all that apply)?
A) Pit
B) Fossa
C) Tubercle
D) Cusp
E) Groove
Answer: A, B, E
Q3) The part of the tooth that shows when someone opens their mouth is the anatomic crown.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Fundamental and Preventive Curvatures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Embrasures are spillways between the teeth that allow food to be shunted away from contact areas. While effective embrasures are self-cleaning, poorly contoured embrasures lead to gingival irritation and breakdown.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: A
Q2) Posterior teeth have contact areas slightly buccal to the center of the teeth. Lingual embrasures of posterior teeth are wider than buccal embrasures. A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: A
Q3) The facial crest of curvature for all teeth is located at the cervical third. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Dentition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tooth numbering system that always uses two numbers for each tooth is the
A) Palmer
B) Federation Dentaire Internationale (FDI)
C) Universal
D) Double Digit
Q2) In the Palmer System, permanent central incisors are assigned the number
A) 1
B) 5
C) 8
D) 24
Q3) In the FDI system the code for the deciduous mandibular left canine is _______.
Q4) The Universal system code for the deciduous maxillary right central incisor is _______.
Q5) Tooth number 3, the permanent maxillary right first molar, is succedaneous because it replaces a primary (deciduous) molar.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Development, Form, and Eruption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following selections include teeth that should have erupted or may be in the process of eruption in the dentition of an 8-year-old child (select all that apply)?
A) All deciduous teeth
B) Permanent maxillary central and lateral incisors
C) Permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars
D) Permanent canines
Q2) A 6-year-old has a space maintainer on the area of the deciduous mandibular left first molar. Which permanent tooth will erupt in the space?
A) First premolar
B) Second premolar
C) First molar
D) Second molar
Q3) Edentulous refers to
A) The final dentition period
B) A space maintainer
C) Absence of teeth
D) Unerupted third molars
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Chapter 6: Occlusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true of centric occlusion EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) It is determined by the way the teeth fit together.
B) It is the jaw position that affords greatest interdigitation of the teeth.
C) It is related to occlusion.
D) It is determined by both muscle and bone.
Q2) In class I occlusion the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the maxilla outgrows the mandible, a class II occlusion often results.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An 11-year-old child presents with wide spaces between mandibular second premolars and permanent first molars. These spaces are typical of
A) Mesial step
B) Distal step
C) Leeway space
D) Flush terminal plane
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Chapter 7: Dental Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fusion of roots of adjacent teeth at the cementum is called concrescence and is primarily caused by dilaceration. Gemination is the deposition of excessive secondary cementum.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true, the second is false.
C) The first statement is false, the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) An odontoma is composed of each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Dentin
B) Pulp
C) Enamel
D) Cementum
Q3) A distomolar is attached to the distal surface of a maxillary molar. Maxillary distomolars are the most common supernumerary teeth.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true, the second is false.
C) The first statement is false, the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Supporting Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following fibers extend from the cementum to the alveolar bone EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Oblique
B) Horizontal
C) Alveolar
D) Apical
E) Transseptal
Q2) The periodontal ligament is constantly undergoing functional change because the fibers are constantly subjected to a variety of pressures exerted on the tooth.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) A healthy gingival sulcus should not exceed 2.0 mm in depth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of moderate pain in a first molar. There is no evidence of premature contact or mobility. A radiograph does not reveal periodontal changes. What might cause the patient's pain?
A) A large, high filling
B) An accumulation of plaque and calculus below the CEJ
C) A retained piece of dental floss
D) Dental decay
Q2) Adjusting occlusion to discourage premature contact is considered a preventive therapeutic procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During restorative procedures, a matrix band properly wedged interproximally with a wooden wedge enables excess filling material to enter the gingival crevice. The wedge also forces the teeth apart so that an open contact can be established.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true, the second is false.
C) The first statement is false, the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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11
Chapter 10: Tooth Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which premolar has a small lingual cusp and no central pit?
A) Maxillary first
B) Maxillary second
C) Mandibular first
D) Mandibular second
Q2) The distal incisal edges of anterior teeth are more rounded than the mesial incisal edges.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which premolar most frequently has three cusps?
A) Maxillary first
B) Maxillary second
C) Mandibular first
D) Mandibular second
Q4) Which molar has two buccal grooves?
A) Maxillary first
B) Maxillary second
C) Mandibular first
D) Mandibular second
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Chapter 11: Root Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Orthodontics requires a sustained pressure to move teeth to a new location. Osteoblasts respond to the new location by forming new bone.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Pain within the root (root pain) can be elicited by which of the following (select all that apply)?
A) Root decay
B) Root resorption
C) Secondary dentin
D) Dehydration
E) Reparative dentin
Q3) Maxillary molar root trifurcations are located on each of the following surfaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Mesial
B) Distal
C) Lingual
D) Buccal
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Incisors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are commonly found on roots of maxillary incisors?
A) Proximal grooves
B) Evidence of division
C) Bifurcation
D) Indentation
E) None of the above
Q2) Which incisor has a lingual pit?
A) Maxillary central
B) Maxillary lateral
C) Mandibular central
D) Mandibular lateral
Q3) Extracted mandibular central incisors are the easiest to identify as either right or left because they are located anteriorly and near the midline.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Chapter 13: Canines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maxillary canines erupt about two years after the mandibular canines. Root formation of maxillary canines is considered complete between 13 and 15 years of age.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Which of the following accurately describe canines (select all that apply)?
A) They are the most stable teeth in the dentition.
B) Their location can only accommodate a short root.
C) The canine eminence is located on the lingual surface coronal to the cingulum.
D) Canines function as holding and tearing tools.
E) Their "V" shape at the corner of the mouth helps dissipate occlusal pressure.
Q3) The cusp tip of the mandibular canine is located more labially than the cusp tip of the maxillary canine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Premolars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bicuspid means the same thing as premolars.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lingual surface of premolars is formed from how many lobes?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Not all premolars are formed from the same number of lobes.
Q3) The mandibular second premolar always has three cusps because this tooth always forms from five lobes.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q4) The maxillary first premolar has a canine fossa.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Molars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. Garcia was upset after being informed that her 11-year-old son has areas of decay on two permanent second molars. Mrs. Garcia was certain that sealants had been placed on all of his molars "about one year ago." Which areas on the second molars would be the LEAST likely to develop decay?
A) Mesial pit
B) Distal pit
C) Buccal pit
D) Lingual pit
Q2) The mesial root of the mandibular first molar often has
A) One pulp canal
B) Two pulp canals
C) Two distinct mesial roots
D) Dilaceration
Q3) Maxillary molars have an oblique ridge. The oblique ridge is a marginal ridge.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Deciduous Dentition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The longer and more slender deciduous roots also flare more than those of the permanent dentition because this arrangement allows room for the developing permanent tooth crowns.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) An extra margin of space is available for the eruption of the permanent canine as well as the first and second premolars because the formation of diastemas provides this extra space.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) Root trunks of deciduous molars are long.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Basic Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells that form the inner lining of blood vessels originate from the
A) Ectoderm
B) Entoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Any of the above
Q2) Points of intracellular modifications that help hold cells together are called
A) Merocrine secretions
B) Desmosomes
C) Stratum spinosum
D) Basement membrane
Q3) Cartilage is composed of each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) Chondroblasts
B) Chondrocytes
C) Collagen
D) Osteoblasts
E) Ground substance
Q4) Bone resorption is involved in the process of bone remodeling.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Development of Orofacial Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stomodeum forms the oral cavity and the oral pharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which pharyngeal arch will degenerate after formation?
A) Third
B) Fourth
C) Fifth
D) Sixth
E) None
Q3) The thyroid gland originates from the
A) Foramen cecum
B) Anterior two-thirds of the tongue
C) Posterior third of the tongue
D) Midline of the inner surface of the pharyngeal arches
E) All of the above
Q4) Which ethnic group is most likely to have a combined cleft lip and palate?
A) Caucasians
B) Asians
C) African Americans
D) There is very little differentiation by ethnicity.
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Chapter 19: Dental Lamina and Enamel Organ
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cap stage begins when the concavity of the tooth buds becomes slightly concave.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The enamel organ originates from the
A) Endoderm
B) Ectoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Ameloblasts
Q3) At about the sixth embryonic week, there is a continued thickening in the dental lamina. These localized thickenings correspond to the positions of the twenty teeth of the future primary dentition.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The permanent molars develop from successional lamina.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Enamel, Dentin, and Pulp
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reduced enamel epithelium secretes the primary enamel cuticle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each of the following is true of the cells of the inner enamel epithelium (IEE) during the bell stage EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) The cells increase in length.
B) The cells prepare to become secretory cells.
C) Their organelles increase.
D) There is a decrease in mitochondria.
Q3) During the mineralization stage of enamel rod calcification approximately half of the hydroxyapatite crystals are deposited because the remaining half are deposited during the maturation stage.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Chapter 21: Root Formation and Attachment Apparatus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enamel pearls (select all that apply):
A) Are formed by cementocytes
B) Are usually found in root furcations
C) Are small elevators of enamel
D) Dissolve after root completion
E) Often cause periodontal cysts
Q2) Each of the following defects can occur during or after the breakup of the epithelial root sheath EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A) Periodontal cysts
B) Accessory root canals
C) Hypercementosis
D) Enamel pearls
E) Epithelial rests of Malassez
Q3) Sharpey's fibers are part of the cementum. They are embedded in alveolar bone.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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23
Chapter 22: Eruption and Shedding of Teeth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reduced enamel epithelium and the oral epithelium fuse into the united oral epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which structure acts as a "shock absorber" during the eruption process?
A) Alveolar bone
B) Dental pulp
C) Cementum
D) Periodontal ligament
E) All of the above
Q3) An ankylosed deciduous tooth will prevent the eruption of a permanent tooth because the alveolar crest of the bone fuses in the cervical area with the dentin of a resorbing root.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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Chapter 23: Oral Mucous Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mucosa that responds to constant trauma from chewing by becoming thick and keratinized in a line corresponding to the occlusal surfaces of the teeth is the
A) Buccal
B) Tongue
C) Lip
D) Soft palate
Q2) Basement membrane appears as ridges and pegs projecting from connective tissue into its surface epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Epithelial cells are generally pink in color because they reflect the surrounding gingival tissues.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
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25
Chapter 24: The Tongue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tongue muscles that run from side to side are from which group of muscles?
A) Vertical
B) Transverse
C) Superior longitudinal
D) Inferior longitudinal
Q2) Which muscles run anterior to posterior within the tongue (select all that apply)?
A) Styloglossus
B) Superior longitudinal
C) Inferior longitudinal
D) Genioglossus
E) Transverse
Q3) The area MOST likely to develop undetected oral cancer is the
A) Fungiform papillae
B) Circumvallate papilla
C) Posterior lateral borders of the tongue
D) Ventral surface of the tongue
Q4) The lingual tonsils help to fight infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secretory function can be modified by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) Chewing
B) Taste
C) Smell
D) Dehydration
E) Tubelike acinar endpieces
Q2) The acinus with the largest lumen is the serous type.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Acini are the
A) Mucous and serous secretions
B) Connective tissue capsules
C) Secretory endpieces
D) Intratubular ducts
Q4) Intercalated ducts modify the salivary fluid that passes through them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Osteology of the Skull
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Q1) The structure that is composed of the vomer and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone is the
A) Inferior nasal conchae
B) Vertical nasal septum
C) Inferior orbit
D) Lateral nasal orbit
Q2) There are 24 bones that make up the skull. Fourteen bones make up the bones of the face.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The vertical portion of the mandible is called the ramus. The mandible is made up of one body, two alveolar processes, and two rami.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) Another name for the cheekbone is the ___________ bone.
Q5) The maxilla consists of a body and ____________ processes.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Nose, Nasal Cavity, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maxillary sinuses are the smallest of the paranasal sinuses. At birth each maxillary sinus is the size of a small pea.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) The most posterior-superior part of the nasal cavity is
A) Where the ethmoid meets the sphenoid bone
B) The choana
C) The superior nasal concha
D) The ethmoid bulla
Q3) The respiratory epithelium in the roof of the nasal cavity, upper surfaces of both the superior concha, and nasal septum is modified. This tissue has nerve fibers that can perceive odors.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The sinuses that are subdivided into numerous small compartments are the ______ sinuses.
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Chapter 28: Muscles of Mastication, Hyoid Muscles, and Sternocleidomastoid
and Trapezius Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The larynx moves up and down during swallowing. The thyrohyoid muscle pulls the larynx down.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Spasms originating from the TMJ can be referred (as pain) to the sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hyoid muscles located above the hyoid bone are called suprahyoid muscles. When contracted, most muscles of this group elevate the mandible.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) The suprahyoid and thyrohyoid muscles control laryngeal movements.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) The retrodiscal pad lies between the two posterior lamina of the disc.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The gliding movement of the TMJ occurs along the anterior slope of the articular eminence. Specifically, this gliding movement occurs between the articular disc and the articular surface of the temporal bone.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The TMJ has three distinct types of movement. They are rotational, gliding, and subluxating.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q4) Subluxation occurs when the mandible is opened wide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Muscles of Facial Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) The facial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression and mastication. The facial nerve is the fifth cranial nerve.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Both the corrugator and the platysma pull the eyebrow up. The corrugator muscle has fibers that extend to the lateral part of the eyebrow whereas the procerus has fibers that extend to the medial end of the eyebrow.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) The risorius muscle pulls the corners of the mouth down as in a frown.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The action of the orbicularis oris is to close and compress the lips.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Soft Palate and Pharynx
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true of the middle pharyngeal muscle EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) It originates from the posterior, upper part of the hyoid bone.
B) It crosses the stylohyoid ligament.
C) It inserts into the median raphe.
D) Contraction constricts the pharyngeal opening.
E) Contraction forces food down toward the esophagus.
Q2) The superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle and the buccinator facial muscle have the same point of origin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The levator veli palatini elevates the posterior end of the soft palate. It joins the tensor veli palatini in tensing the soft palate.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 32: Arterial Supply and Venous Drainage
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Sample Questions
Q1) The facial artery is the blood supply for all of the following EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) Muscles of facial expression
B) Upper and lower lips
C) Skin of facial expression
D) Sides of the nose
E) Oral and nasal cavities
Q2) Each of the following structures is supplied by branches of the internal carotid artery EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A) Eyes
B) Brain
C) Coverings of the brain
D) Cheek
Q3) The right atrioventricular valve is also known as the tricuspid valve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pterygopalatine artery supplies the soft palate area.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mumps is a bacterial infection of the parotid gland.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following accurately describe features of the sublingual salivary gland (select all that apply)?
A) It is classified as a major salivary gland.
B) It is the smallest of the three pairs of major salivary glands.
C) It is composed mostly of serous cells with some isolated mucous cells.
D) The secretion of the sublingual gland is the most watery of the three major glands.
E) The sublingual gland has more visible demilunes capping mucous acini than other glands.
Q3) The lingual salivary glands are classified as major salivary glands and divided into several groups. The anterior lingual glands, found near the tip of the tongue, are mostly serous in nature.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
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Chapter 34: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The olfactory and optic are the only cranial nerves that are not paired because they are centrally located in the intravertebral foramina.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q2) Sensation to the maxillary labial gingiva is supplied by the nasopalatine nerve because this nerve branches off the infraorbital as it travels to supply the maxillary anterior teeth.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct but are NOT related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT correct.
D) The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
E) NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q3) The central nervous system is made up of the brain and the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Lymphatics and Spread of Dental Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ludwig's angina refers to an infection in which space?
A) Submental
B) Sublingual
C) Lateral pharyngeal
D) Parapharyngeal
Q2) The mandibular third molars drain into the upper deep cervical nodes. These nodes drain into the retropharyngeal nodes located behind the throat wall.
A) Both statements are true.
B) The first statement is true; the second is false.
C) The first statement is false; the second is true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) Maxillary infections around the eye or cheek can spread to the lateral pharyngeal space.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A buccal abscess of a mandibular molar initially drains into the
A) Sublingual space
B) Buccal vestibule
C) Lateral pharyngeal space
D) Parapharyngeal space
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