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Gross Motor Development explores the foundational principles and milestones of large muscle movement in children, examining how skills such as walking, running, jumping, and throwing are acquired and refined from infancy through adolescence. The course delves into the biological, psychological, and environmental factors influencing motor growth, highlights typical and atypical developmental patterns, and introduces assessment methods and intervention strategies. Students will gain an understanding of the critical role gross motor skills play in overall child development, health, and learning, and learn to design activities and environments that effectively support gross motor progress in diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Meeting the Physical Therapy Needs of Children 1st Edition by Susan K. Effgen PhD PT
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25 Chapters
400 Verified Questions
400 Flashcards
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you suspect child abuse of a child you are serving,
A) you can say nothing because your professional code of conduct requires confidentiality.
B) you must report the abuse using your state's procedures.
C) you should speak to the child's parent.
D) you must write a report and share it with the child's physician.
Answer: B
Q2) Evidenced-based practice should include
A) expert opinion, continuing education, and personal experience.
B) intuition, unsystematic clinical experience.
C) explanations based on pathophysiology.
D) awareness, consultation, judgment, and creativity.
Answer: D
Q3) The sequence of the hierarchy of response competence is first skill acquisition followed by
A) fluency, maintenance, and generalization.
B) refinement of the skill, transfer, and attainment.
C) generalization, maintenance, and refinement.
D) transfer and performance in different environments.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Play in young children might include
A) intrinsic motivation.
B) freedom to suspend reality.
C) performance for its own sake.
D) internal control.
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q2) What are two things a potential mother can do preconception to improve her health as recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention?
Answer: The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC, 2010a) recommendations for improving preconception health include daily use of vitamin supplements containing folic acid; management of diabetes; cessation of alcohol, smoking, and recreational drug use; altering the dosage of certain medications; receiving vaccinations against or for treatment of infections; and improving weight status.
Q3) What factors have been shown to correlate with positive child development?
Answer: Adequate socioeconomic status, higher parent educational level, and availability of play toys.
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Q1) Pain is considered the fifth vital sign. What behavioral pain scale would you use for a child who is preverbal or nonverbal and cannot participate in a self-reported scale?
Answer: The Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) behavioral pain scale or the Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario Pain Scale (CHEOPS).
Explanation: These are the two scales that do not require verbal responses and are appropriate for children. There are other nonverbal scales for neonates.
Q2) When documenting services for children,
A) the term "patient" or "client" should be used.
B) the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act does not apply.
C) the term "infant" or "child" should be used.
D) there is no need to document physical therapy services because the team writes a joint report.
Answer: C
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Q1) What are three common stresses associated with raising a child with a disability?
Q2) What is the key element defining family-centered care?
A) Holistic care
B) Evidence-based practices
C) Collaborative partnership
D) Quality service
Q3) It is appropriate for the physical, occupational, and speech therapists to collaboratively decide on the child's mode of communication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following approaches is not representative of family-centered care?
A) Strength based
B) Directive
C) Supportive
D) Responsive
Q5) Family-centered care precludes providing direct service in a hospital-based clinic.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Measuring a child's thigh-foot angle gives you an indication of the amount of A) twisting of the long axis of the tibia (version).
B) hamstring limitation.
C) genu valgum.
D) metatarsus adductus.
Q2) It is typical for a 24-month old to have a hip flexion contracture of about 10 degrees. A)True
B)False
Q3) A tape measure is a more accurate method to measure an actual leg length discrepancy than the block method.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The spine of a newborn infant is initially in a A) scolotic position. B) kyphotic position. C) straight position.
D) lordotic position.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Young boys having Duchenne muscular dystrophy tend to use the Gower maneuver to rise from the floor because of weakness in
A) knee extensors and flexors.
B) hip extensors and flexors.
C) distal leg musculature.
D) upper extremity musculature.
Q2) Wayne Stuberg and colleagues demonstrated that a standing program could facilitate hip development in children with developmental disabilities. The program recommended was:
A) 30 min, 2 days per wk.
B) 30 min, 5 days per wk.
C) 60 min, 1 day per wk.
D) 60 min, 3 days per wk.
Q3) Pseudohypertrophy is commonly seen in children with
A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
B) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
C) juvenile idiopathic arthritis.
D) Blout disease.
Q4) Which type of juvenile idiopathic arthritis involves the most joints and is the most debilitating?
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Q1) Which is the most likely diagnosis for a child presenting with mild hypotonia, muscle weakness that is most pronounced in the hands, poor postural control, motor coordination difficulties, and delayed motor milestone acquisition without cognitive deficits?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Developmental coordination disorder
C) Down syndrome
D) Hydrocephalus
Q2) Which component of the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health would include the assessment of ROM, motor function, and sensation?
A) Activities
B) Body functions and structures
C) Health condition
D) Participation
Q3) Which of the following statements most accurately defines spasticity?
A) Constant resistance to passive movement
B) Hyperreflexia associated with increased resistance to passive movement
C) Upper motor neuron syndrome
D) Velocity-dependent increased resistance to passive movement
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Q1) Activity-focused interventions for participation should not be integrated with interventions for body functions and structures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Select the practice scenario that is most likely to facilitate motor learning in a child with a neurological impairment.
A) Promoting error-free practice to avoid learning bad habits.
B) Practicing in the clinic setting to control external stimuli.
C) Varying the practice situation to include several versions of the task.
D) Provide a substantial amount of verbal rationale.
Q3) According to the perception-action framework, there is a reciprocal relationship between the individul and the environment and objects in the environment provide opportunities for movement. What are these objects in the environment called?
A) Extrinsic Rationale
B) Affordances
C) Variables
D) Reinforcers
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is emerging evidence that increased intensity of physical therapy interventions can improve physical therapy outcomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are treating a 13-month-old child who is not yet sitting independently. He requires support at the hips to sit on the floor, and your goal for him is to sit indendently. Focusing on function, which intervention strageties would be most appropriate?
A) Playing in prone to strengthen his trunk muscles and floor sitting activities while playing with toys with decreasing amounts of physical assistance provided
B) Strengthening activities, such as having the child perform assisted sit-ups and sitting on a therapy ball
C) Using pillows around the hips and trunk to completely prop the child into a supported poistion in sitting to play
D) Reducing tone and active range of motion
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Q1) Wound drainage that is infected and malodorous is called _____________.
Q2) Superficial partial-thickness burns, without infection, should heal within ______days.
Q3) The self-reporting pain scale utilized for children aged 3 to 7 years is the _____scale.
Q4) _________exercises are the exercises of choice for pediatric patients with thermal injuries.
Q5) A wound dressing that contains gel-forming polymers and absorbs wound exudates, provides a moist wound environment, and conforms to the body shape is a A) film.
B) hydrogel.
C) alginate.
D) hydrocolloid.
Q6) The prognosis for a wound for a specific child will depend on what factors?
Q7) ___________is the process of laying down of collagen matrix.
Q8) Skin necrosis from chronic pressure is likely to occur after _____hours of continuous pressure.
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Q9) ____________are the cells responsible for pulling the epidermal layer toward the center of the wound.

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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase the likelihood of a young child achieving a functional task,
A) the intensity of physical therapy should be increased.
B) everyone should focus on just the motor goal.
C) intervention should be discipline specific.
D) everyone must help find opportunities for high-volume, task-specific practice.
Q2) Which technique(s) assist the therapist and family in integrating therapeutic objectives into the family's daily lives?
A) Intervention in the child's natural environment
B) Activity-based instruction
C) Use of catalogs and matrixes
D) All of the above
Q3) Role release allows all therapists to complete the duties of all disciplines.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is considered the most functional, natural form of early intervention?
A) Clinician-directed treatment
B) Activity-based instruction
C) Individual instruction with only the child and clinician present
D) None of the above
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Q1) All of the statements are true except which of the following?
A) Cognitive ability has no basis in determining the need for physical therapy.
B) An individualized education program (IEP) should include a behavioral management plan for children with behavior problems.
C) Child must be educated to the maximum extent possible with children who do not have disabilities.
D) Assistive technology may include electric wheelchairs.
E) Specific intervention methodologies should be included in the IEP document.
Q2) Preschool services, as defined by Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act, may start as early as A) birth.
B) 1 year of age.
C) 2 years of age.
D) 3 years of age.
E) 5 years of age.
Q3) There is consistency among local educational agencies regarding who receives physical therapy services.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true about strength training in the prepubescent athlete?
A) Strength training is contraindicated
B) Strength training will improve force output and increase muscle mass
C) Programs developed for adolescents can be done by prepubescent children if the repetition number is lowered
D) Strength training must be well-supervised, emphasize concentric movements with lighter weights, and avoid maximal lifts
Q2) Indicate which of the following statements must be adhered to strenuously in sports for children.
A) Coaching staff should complete a certification course
B) Equipment should be properly fit to the youth
C) Playing areas should be free of obstacles and be shock-absorbing
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following activities can assist with infection control?
A) Proper cleaning of equipment with disinfectant
B) Sharing of personal sporting equipment
C) Weekly cleaning of clothing
D) Use of bar soap in the showers
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Q1) A 15-year-old male adolescent is admitted to the emergency room with a head trauma. Which type of imaging is the most efficient way to diagnose the extent of the injury?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Ultrasound
D) X-ray
Q2) An 8-year-old child with a recurrent inoperable brain tumor is admitted to the oncology floor with worsening of symptoms and declining medical status. The pediatric advanced care team has been consulted and is working with the primary medical team and family to determine the course of medical care. Physical therapy was consulted to assess with mobility, positioning, and to provide recommendations for safe discharge to home. What are the goals you would establish in order for them to be discharged to home safely?
Q3) A 2-year-old toddler with an extensive past medical history including prematurity (33-week gestation), feeding intolerance, and global delays is admitted to the acute care setting for revision of a g-tube. The family is currently followed at home by early intervention one time a week for physical therapy services. What factors play a role in your consideration for determining acute-care physical therapy treatment frequency?
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Q1) Developmentally supportive care is individualized caregiving and is based on
A) the general routine in each specific NICU.
B) using specific methods to speed up the infant's tolerance to care-giving procedures.
C) the infant's physiological reactions, behavioral cues, and signs of stress in response to the immediate environment.
D) providing an individual caregiver for the infant so the infant may adapt to that person's approach.
Q2) Infants that are small for gestational age
A) are premature.
B) are born after 40 weeks gestation.
C) weigh less than the 10th percentile.
D) weigh 1,000 g.
Q3) Full-term infants are born
A) between 37 and 42 weeks gestation.
B) at 9 months gestation.
C) at 40 weeks gestation.
D) between 35 and 40 weeks gestation.
Q4) Describe the behavioral state of "quiet alertness."
Q5) Name three neonatal methods of self-calming.
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Q1) Which of the following is not usually an ethical issue for a therapist to consider?
A) Parental control versus the right of a child to make choices about care
B) Eligibility criteria for therapy
C) How to manage education regarding sexuality
D) Family-centered care
Q2) For a 7-year-old boy s/p posterior fossa tumor resection who is currently ambulating three steps in the parallel bars with maximal assistance of one, the following is the most appropriate goal for discharge from inpatient rehabilitation:
A) Ambulate 50 ft with a walker and moderate assistance
B) Ambulate 50 ft with a walker and contact guard assistance
C) Ambulate 50 ft independently without an assistive device
D) Run 50 ft independently without loss of balance
Q3) A child who is safe to go home but still requires intensive rehabilitation 5 days per week would most benefit from which setting?
A) Acute care
B) Inpatient rehabilitation
C) Day hospital rehabilitation
D) Home health care
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Q1) If you are providing assistive technology as mandated under the Technology Related Assistance Act, the evaluation for this technology
A) is not considered to be a critical part of the acquisition process.
B) is necessary to establish matches between children's abilities and the features of specifically recommended technology.
C) can be conducted by any team member who happens to know the child, regardless of their knowledge and expertise in assistive technology.
D) should only be conducted by professionals in a rehabilitation hospital setting.
Q2) Under the Technology Related Assistance Act and the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act, assistive technology includes any item, piece of equipment, or product system that is used to increase, maintain, or improve the functional capabilities of people with disabilities. These laws do not cover services to train either children or their caregivers and professionals involved in the use of that equipment.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) For a child with serious limitations in activity, play can be facilitated with which of the following technologies?
A) Switches
B) Battery adaptors
C) Latch timers
D) Environmental control units
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not an aided communication system?
A) Sign language
B) Dynamic display communication device
C) Simple picture board
D) Level-based communication device
Q3) The best role of a physical therapist in an Augmentative Alternative Communication (AAC) evaluation is to
A) refer the student to a speech pathologist.
B) help select the exact AAC device the individual needs.
C) determine whether sign language or use of an AAC device is appropriate.
D) help determine the best motor access for using an AAC device.
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Q1) A 6-year-old child with cerebral palsy who walks independently in the school environment using a wheeled, rear walker, would be classified in the Gross Motor Function Classification System as
A) Level I.
B) Level II.
C) Level III.
D) Level IV.
Q2) To measure a 6-year-old child's level of participation in life activities, the best standardized measurement tool to use is the
A) Gross Motor Function Measure, 88.
B) Peabody Developmental Motor Scale-2nd edition.
C) School Function Assessment.
D) Times Up and Go Test.
Q3) Strength training programs for children with cerebral palsy have been demonstrated to
A) increase muscle strength.
B) increase muscle tone.
C) increase functional community ambulation skill.
D) increase aerobic capacity.
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Q1) You are doing an examination on a 17-year-old with cystic fibrosis who confides in you that she is smoking on a daily basis. You should
A) report it to cystic fibrosis clinic practitioners and document it in her medical record.
B) tell her "You are not helping the situation."
C) call her parents right away and tell them they have a problem child.
D) ignore the statement; all teens talk this way.
Q2) Cystic fibrosis involves the exocrine mucous glands and typically affects the A) genitourinary tract.
B) pancreas.
C) sweat glands.
D) All of the above
Q3) During your examination of a 14-year-old with cystic fibrosis, you note moderate clubbing throughout all digits. This clubbing is caused by A) acute hypoxemia.
B) chronic hypoxemia.
C) lack of performance of fine motor skills.
D) medication side effects.
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Q1) The Original Borg Scale
A) measures blood pressure.
B) tracks perceived exertion during exercise.
C) evaluates muscle strength.
D) assesses functional range of motion.
Q2) Outpatient physical therapy services are indicated when the individual's goals are
A) to improve high-level balance skills.
B) not educationally based.
C) focused on improving recreational skills.
D) All of the above
Q3) There is evidence to suggest that the following intervention might be successful with infants with Down syndrome.
A) Constraint-induced movement therapy
B) Infant massage
C) Treadmill training
D) Therapy suit training
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Q1) The most common form of pediatric leukemia is acute lymphoblastic leukemia, which has a survival rate for children between the ages of 1 and 10 years of A) 80% to 90%.
B) 50% to 60%.
C) 40%.
D) 20%.
Q2) Children with acute lymphoblastic leukemia frequently have chemotherapy (Vincristine)-induced peripheral neuropathy, thus causing range of motion limitations in A) shoulder flexion.
B) neck rotation.
C) spinal flexion.
D) ankle dorsiflexion.
Q3) Intrathecal chemotherapy is administered directly into what area?
A) Muscle
B) Mouth
C) Vein
D) Cerebral spinal fluid
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Q1) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is associated with an absence of A) dystrophin.
B) red blood cells.
C) white blood cells.
D) platelets.
Q2) As Duchenne muscular dystrophy progresses, the greatest life-threatening concerns are
A) cerebral hemorrhage and seizures.
B) pulmonary infections and cardiomyopathy.
C) cerebral thrombosis and seizures.
D) neoplasms and cardiac arrest.
Q3) A pharmacological intervention that can prolong ambulation for boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy is
A) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.
B) chemotherapy.
C) antimalarials.
D) corticosteroids.
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Q1) One method being used to train children on how to ride a bike without training wheels requires
A) practice riding a bike for 2 hrs each day.
B) removal of the bikes pedals.
C) placement of the bike on a stationary rack.
D) the assistance of a caregiver.
Q2) Adults with developmental coordination disorder commonly have participation issues due to
A) the inability to walk independently.
B) the inability to communicate wants and needs.
C) decreased strength and endurance.
D) decreased muscle tone.
Q3) Families of children who have developmental coordination disorder often express concern about their child's
A) vision.
B) social skills.
C) hearing.
D) feeding skills.
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Q1) Discuss what a child must learn when using a manual wheelchair in a natural school environment.
Q2) In the natural school environment, the physical therapist relies on the classroom staff to follow through with mobility and transfer activities on a daily basis for a child with a myelomeningocele.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List five common complications of myelodysplasia.
Q4) What happens to the heart rate of children with low- and mid-lumbar myelomeningocele compared to nondisabled peers when walking?
A) Heart rate remains the same
B) Heart rate increases
C) Heart rate decreases
D) Heart rate varies
Q5) In the school environment, it is nice to have a translator available to interpret at the individualized education program meetings, but it is not required.
A)True
B)False
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