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Gross Anatomy is the study of the structures of the human body visible to the naked eye, with a focus on organs, tissues, and systems as observed through dissection and examination. This course provides an in-depth understanding of the spatial relationships between anatomical structures and their functional significance, with an emphasis on clinical correlations critical for health professions. Students will learn the foundational knowledge necessary for further studies in physiology, pathology, and medical practice, enabling them to identify and describe the major components of the human body and appreciate the complexity of human form and function.
Recommended Textbook
Illustrated Anatomy of the Head and Neck 4th Edition by Margaret J. Fehrenbach
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Q1) A horizontal plane is created by an imaginary line dividing the body at any level into superior and inferior parts and is ALWAYS _______ to the median plane.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) parallel
D) perpendicular
Answer: D
Q2) What is another term for midsagittal plane?
A) Median plane
B) Coronal plane
C) Frontal plane
D) Horizontal plane
Answer: A
Q3) What is the anatomic relationship of the muscles to the skin?
A) Anterior
B) External
C) Deep
D) Superficial
Answer: C
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Q1) The buccal region of the head is composed of soft tissues of the cheek. Most of the upper cheek is fleshy, mainly formed by a mass of fat and muscle. Which is the strong muscle felt in this area when the patient clenches his or her teeth together?
A) Corrugator supercilii muscle
B) Temporalis muscle
C) Masseter muscle
D) Hyoid muscle
Answer: C
Q2) The eyeball is located in the orbital region of the head. On the eyeball is a white area with a central area of coloration. What is the term for the white area?
A) Sclera
B) Iris
C) Pupil
D) Orbit
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following external foramina can ONLY be observed from an inferior view of the skull?
A) Hypoglossal canal
B) Foramen ovale
C) Foramen spinosum
D) Stylomastoid foramen
Answer: D
Q2) The pterygopalatine fossa communicates with the middle cranial fossa via the A) foramen rotundum.
B) superior orbital fissure.
C) foramen ovale.
D) inferior orbital fissure.
Answer: A
Q3) After the seventh cranial nerve travels through the petrous part of the temporal bone, through which opening does it exit onto the face?
A) External auditory meatus
B) Jugular notch
C) Foramen spinosum
D) Stylomastoid foramen
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following muscles is NOT considered a suprahyoid muscle?
A) Digastric muscle
B) Mylohyoid muscle
C) Stylohyoid muscle
D) Sternothyroid muscle
Q2) Which of the following muscles will serve to depress the lower lip?
A) Depressor labii inferioris and depressor anguli oris muscles
B) Depressor labii inferioris and orbicularis oris muscles
C) Depressor labii inferioris and mentalis muscles
D) Depressor labii inferioris and risorius muscles
Q3) Which of the following muscles when contracted allows for the retraction of the mandible?
A) Masseter muscle
B) Temporalis muscle
C) Lateral pterygoid muscle
D) Medial pterygoid muscle
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Q1) The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is innervated by the maxillary nerve (division) of the fifth cranial or trigeminal nerve. The blood supply to the joint is from branches of the external carotid artery.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) allows for movement of the mandible during speech and mastication. Two basic types of movement are performed by the joint and its associated muscles: a gliding movement and a rotational movement.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) What is another term used for articular fossa of the temporomandibular joint?
A) Submandibular
B) Glenoid
C) Pterygoid
D) Temporal
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Q1) Which branch of the maxillary artery supplies the maxillary anterior teeth by way of each tooth's apical foramen?
A) Infraorbital artery
B) Inferior alveolar artery
C) Sphenopalatine artery
D) Anterior superior alveolar artery
Q2) What is the MAJOR destination of the subclavian artery as it travels in the body?
A) Intracranial structures
B) Upper extremity or arm
C) Tissue inferior to the hyoid bone
D) External scalp tissue
Q3) During the extraoral examination of a patient, an artery is visually noted under the skin of the patient in the temporal region. Which artery can be visualized in this manner during the examination?
A) Middle temporal artery
B) Transverse facial artery
C) Superficial temporal artery
D) Maxillary artery
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Q1) Which of the following glands listed below is NOT an endocrine gland?
A) Lacrimal gland
B) Parathyroid gland
C) Thyroid gland
D) Thymus gland
Q2) Which of the following glands wraps around the mylohyoid muscle?
A) Parotid gland
B) von Ebner's glands
C) Sublingual gland
D) Submandibular gland
Q3) At which of the following bony junctions does the nasolacrimal duct begin?
A) Nasal and lacrimal bones
B) Nasal and palatine bones
C) Maxilla and nasal bone
D) Maxilla and lacrimal bone
Q4) What is the location for the parathyroid glands?
A) On the anterior surface of the thyroid gland
B) Inferior to the hyoid bone, superficial and lateral to the trachea
C) On or within the posterior surface of the thyroid gland
D) In the parotid space, posterior to the ramus of the mandible
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Q1) Branches of the facial nerve traverse all of the following openings EXCEPT the A) foramen rotundum.
B) internal auditory meatus.
C) stylomastoid foramen.
D) pterygoid canal.
Q2) Which of the following skull foramina are associated with the pathway of the seventh cranial nerve from the brain to the facial region?
A) Foramen ovale and foramen rotundum
B) Foramen spinosum and external acoustic meatus
C) Internal acoustic meatus and external acoustic meatus
D) Internal acoustic meatus and stylomastoid foramen
Q3) Which of the following structures is innervated by the vagus nerve?
A) Parotid salivary gland
B) Floor of the mouth
C) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
D) Soft palate muscles
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Q1) Which of the following locations is the injection site for the inferior alveolar local anesthetic nerve block?
A) Medial to the pterygomandibular fold
B) Lateral to the pterygomandibular fold
C) Superior to the pterygomandibular fold
D) Inferior to the pterygomandibular fold
Q2) Which of the following local anesthetic nerve blocks uses the apex of the maxillary canine for a landmark during administration?
A) Infraorbital nerve block
B) Anterior superior alveolar nerve block
C) Middle superior alveolar nerve block
D) Posterior superior alveolar nerve block
Q3) Which of the following local anesthetic nerve blocks anesthetizes the buccal gingival tissue of the maxillary first molar?
A) Inferior alveolar nerve block
B) Anterior superior alveolar nerve block
C) Buccal nerve block
D) Posterior superior alveolar nerve block
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Q1) From the following list of descriptions, select those for tonsillar tissue.
A) Located in pharynx
B) Drains into superior deep cervical lymph nodes
C) Masses of tissue in oral cavity
D) Found along lymphatic vessels
E) Drains into the jugulodigastric lymph node
Q2) The retroauricular, anterior auricular, and superficial parotid nodes drain the external ear, lacrimal gland, and adjacent regions of the scalp and face. All of these nodes empty into the submandibular lymph nodes.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q3) Lymph from a particular tissue region drains into a secondary node, regional node, or master node. Secondary nodes, in turn, drain into a primary node or central node.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Q1) The buccopharyngeal fascia is continuous with the fascia covering the buccinator muscle, where that muscle and the superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle come together at the
A) lateral pterygoid plate.
B) mandibular symphysis.
C) pterygomandibular raphe.
D) hyoid bone.
Q2) Which of the following spaces are NOT part of the masticator space?
A) Infratemporal space
B) Temporal space
C) Pterygomandibular space
D) Space of the body of the mandible
Q3) Which of the following spaces does the canine space communicate with?
A) Buccal space
B) Temporal space
C) Masticator space
D) Vestibular space of the maxilla
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Q1) Which of the following terms is BEST used to describe an infection with suppuration resulting from the entrapment of pathogens in a contained space?
A) Cellulitis
B) Abscess
C) Fistula
D) Embolus
Q2) Which of the following factors is important in the spread of odontogenic infections from their involvement with gram-negative anaerobic bacteria?
A) Adaption to wet environment
B) Increased metabolism
C) Beta-lactamase enzyme
D) Thicker cell walls
Q3) A dental professional SHOULD understand the infectious process that allows microorganisms to create disease. Certain nonresident microorganisms can invade and initiate an infection.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
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