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This course explores the dynamic relationship between government institutions and society, analyzing how political systems, policies, and public administration impact the lives of citizens. Through a comparative and interdisciplinary approach, students examine the role of governments in shaping social order, addressing collective needs, mediating conflicts, and responding to social change. The course also delves into concepts such as citizenship, political participation, public opinion, and the balance between individual rights and collective responsibilities, providing a comprehensive understanding of how government and society interact to influence contemporary social issues.
Recommended Textbook
The Struggle for Democracy 9th Edition by
Edward S. Greenberg
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Q1) What is the deliberative will of the people?
Answer: The "deliberative will" of the people refers to what people want after a period of reflection and discussion with others. It is more long term than just expressed opinions off the top of the head.
Q2) In part due to the constant shifting by issue of the composition of the majority and minority,
A) direct democracy prevails.
B) majority rule is preeminent.
C) majority tyranny is prevented.
D) political equality is guaranteed.
E) political liberty is ignored.
Answer: C
Q3) What was the major concern among those who were skeptical of democracy?
A) The idea of having a few rulers reign over the masses.
B) The idea that ordinary people might rule themselves.
C) The requirement that in a democracy there must be a separation of church and state.
D) The idea that democracy must use capitalism as an economic system.
E) The idea that elites would have too much power and authority.
Answer: B
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Q1) The supremacy clause of the Constitution creates the basis for a more centralized federal system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The gridlock of American politics and government policy is exactly what most of the framers had in mind when they designed the American constitutional system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The framers of the Constitution were attempting to create a form of government that existed nowhere else during the late eighteenth century.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Why was the central government ineffective under the Articles of Confederation?
Answer: The Articles set up such a weak central government that it could not enforce any of the laws it made. It simply could not carry out its powers.
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Q1) The delegation of power to state and local governments is known as devolution
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following involve(s) no aid to the state at all or less aid than compliance would cost?
A) An unfunded mandate
B) The doctrine of enumerated power
C) Block grants
D) Conditional grants-in-aid
E) Categorical grants
Answer: A
Q3) The Civil War resulted in constitutional changes that subordinated the states to certain new kinds of national standards. How did the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment affect these national standards?
Answer: The due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment eventually became the vehicle by which the Supreme Court ruled that many civil liberties in the Bill of Rights were also protected against the states.
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Q1) Using the information provided in your textbook, trace the history of median household income in the United States. Has median household income usually tracked with overall economic growth? Why or why not? What consequences might this have for American democracy?
Q2) Nativist sentiments in the population
A) made the transition to American life easy for immigrants.
B) led most Americans to oppose capitalism in the 1800s.
C) were largely responsible for the abolition of slavery.
D) have led to many anti-immigrant policies throughout American history.
E) are no longer a reaction to immigration concerns
Q3) What were two of the reasons that industrial enterprises grew to unprecedented size after the Civil War?
A) technology and cost
B) favorable legislation and the influx of former slaves as workers
C) technology and the influx of former slaves as workers
D) technology and the move to an agriculture-based economy
E) cost and the move to an agriculture-based economy
Q4) Discuss the economic, and potential political effects of the newly dynamic American economy.
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Q5) ________ reactions were nineteenth-century, anti-immigration movements.

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Q1) Philip Converse claimed that most Americans display ________ in their survey responses
A) sophisticated opinions
B) core attitudes
C) dysfunctional beliefs
D) nonattitudes
E) democratic attributes
Q2) When people who consider themselves Republican are more likely to vote for Republican candidates, it's known as
A) party identification.
B) political efficacy.
C) political socialization.
D) party socialization.
E) political cohesion.
Q3) Summarize the effects of public opinion on policy. To what extent do policies and changes in policy correspond to public opinion and changes in public opinion?
Q4) Most ordinary Americans do not know or care a lot about politics.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All but which of the following corporations dominate the magazine business?
A) Time Warner
B) Newhouse
C) Gannett
D) General Electric
E) all of the above
Q2) What type of news coverage has been increasing to the point of misinformation, especially on local news telecasts?
A)crime coverage
B) foreign news
C) political news
D) news from Washington, D.C.
E) election coverage
Q3) Washington Post reporters Woodward and Bernstein used this basic form of reporting when they covered the Watergate scandal.
A) informational
B) investigative
C) "yellow" journalism
D) electoral choices
E) pack journalism
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Q1) The rules of the political game in the United States discourage the formation of interest groups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interest groups have borrowed many of the techniques of ________, involving advances in computer and communications technology, to get their message to the public and to channel responses to public officials.
A) CD lasers
B) satellite technology
C) direct marketing
D) home shopping channels
E) legislators
Q3) Payoffs for lobbying members of the executive branch can be high because A) Congress has little power to oversee the bureaucracy and cannot interfere with lobbying.
B) presidents grant significant access to interest groups.
C) executive branch officials are not very knowledgeable about policy.
D) executive agencies have broad discretion how to implement policies.
E) all of the above
Q4) What is soft money?

Page 9
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most effective tool of the civil rights movement was nonviolent civil disobedience.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Social movements can contribute to democracy by
A) allowing poorer citizens to enter the realm of politics.
B) diminishing the scope of the conflict.
C) granting minorities the right to rule.
D) increasing political participation among dominant groups.
E) increasing instances of direct democracy.
Q3) Consciousness-raising groups are
A) never successful when employed in social movements.
B) a broad network of meetings to talk about common problems.
C) meetings used to discuss specific protest strategies.
D) efforts on the part of lobbyists to influence legislation.
E) important to those who attempt to limit the successes of social movements.
Q4) Integration are policies that encourage separation of races or groups of people in schools or public facilities.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Belonging to or identifying with a political party is known as
A) party volunteerism.
B) party organization.
C) grass roots organization.
D) party identification.
E) none of the above
Q2) During a realignment
A) one party dominates American politics, usually for about 30-40 years.
B) parties tend to agree on issues, promoting bipartisan policy making.
C) there are usually more than three parties vying for majority control.
D) dealignment is highly likely.
E) none of the above
Q3) The 1896 election was a dramatic victory for the Republicans, setting the stage for their domination for several decades.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When parties are working properly, they do a number of things that make popular ________ possible.
Q5) What is party identification and why is it important in American politics?
Q6) What is political ideology?

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Q1) Demonstrations, boycotts, and the like are called ________ political participation.
Q2) Who "really" has a chance to win the presidential election?
Q3) A vote cast but not counted until it is determined that the voter is properly registered is known as a (an)
A) absentee ballot.
B) provisional ballot.
C) early-voting ballot.
D) local ballot.
E) mail-in ballot.
Q4) Which of the following groups won the constitutionally protected right to vote first?
A) women
B) black males
C) felons
D) 18- to 20-year-olds
E) Native Americans
Q5) Who votes? Does it make any difference who votes?
Q6) There is a ________ bias in both political participation and voting in the United States.
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Q1) What is congressional oversight?
Q2) The ________ gives Congress broad powers to legislate beyond its enumerated powers.
Q3) For each election cycle, ________ seats in the House of Representatives are up for reelection.
Q4) Discuss congressional redistricting and gerrymandering. In your opinion, does the Constitution prohibit districts that explicitly favor one party or group over another? What do you think the Framers would think about congressional redistricting of recent years?
Q5) Which of these powers is unique to the House of Representatives?
A) the origination of revenue bills
B) the power to advise and consent for treaties
C) trying impeachment cases
D) advise and consent for judicial appointments
E) advise and consent for upper-level executive appointments
Q6) A ________ committee is a temporary committee created to conduct studies or investigations.
Q7) When people talk about the "third house of Congress," they are talking about ________ committees.
Q8) What are three important functions of committees in Congress?
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Q1) Which of the following roles does the modern president NOT perform?
A) Chief Legislator
B) Manager of the Economy
C) Chief of State
D) President of the Senate
E) Party Leader
Q2) Which statement supports the argument that the presidency has evolved into a highly democratic institution that is responsive to the American people?
A) It is the only nationally elected office.
B) Presidents can go their own way in terms of foreign policy.
C) Presidents are more likely to lead and shape public opinion than follow it.
D) Because elections only take place every four years, presidents have a great deal of time to follow their own agendas.
E) Because presidents only serve two terms, there are few compelling reasons to respond to public opinion in their second term.
Q3) The power to lead the public also implies the power to manipulate public opinion.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) _______________ are agencies that operate in a market setting and are organized very much like a private company.
A) Government corporations
B) Bureaucracies
C) Departments
D) Agencies
E) Independent executive agencies
Q2) Who promised to make government "look more like America" with his political appointments?
A) Nixon
B) Ford
C) Carter
D) Reagan
E) Clinton
Q3) Political appointees usually stay in their positions for much longer periods of time than most career civil servants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ refers to the inefficiencies of bureaucracy.
Q5) What is legislative oversight?

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Q1) ________ bring indictments.
Q2) Judicial review raises questions about democracy because it gives elected institutions of government power over unelected institutions of government.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most important factor in predicting how a Supreme Court justice will vote is
A) the justice's ideological predilections.
B) the justice's social background.
C) the justice's previous judicial experience.
D) the justice's belief that a decision will enhance the Court's influence in American government and society.
E) unknown.
Q4) When writing the opinion of the Court, the assigned justice will A) work in isolation.
B) will be bound by precedent.
C) rely mostly on amicus curiae briefs.
D) receive help from law clerks.
E) all of the above
Q5) What does Article III of the Constitution tell us about the national judiciary?
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Q1) A major exception to the expansion of freedom of expression has been concern for A) due process of law.
B) internal security.
C) equal protection of the laws.
D) hateful speech.
E) objective speech.
Q2) What kind of rights and liberties preoccupied the courts in the nineteenth century?
Q3) The "Lemon test" is made up of all of the following except A) a secular purpose.
B) primary effect is to neither advance nor inhibit religion.
C) no excessive entanglement between government and religion.
D) ordinary scrutiny.
E) None of the above
Q4) Five of the ten amendments that make up the Bill of Rights concern protections for individuals suspected, accused, or convicted of a crime.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the Court's core interpretation of the nationalized free exercise clause?
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Q1) The Supreme Court has ruled that civil unions for gays and lesbians are identical to marriage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Under what type of scrutiny does the Supreme Court examine sexual discrimination suits?
A) Intermediate scrutiny
B) Suspect scrutiny
C) Strict scrutiny
D) Ordinary scrutiny
E) Lax scrutiny
Q3) In ____________ the Supreme Court established gender discrimination is an intermediate scrutiny category.
A) Craig v. Boren
B) Dowell v. Oklahoma
C) United States v. Virginia
D) Roe v. Wade
E) Brennan v. Boren
Q4) What is the current state of civil rights for gays and lesbians?
Q5) How has the Supreme Court ruled on affirmative action programs recently?
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Q1) The federal government spends most of its money on
A) social insurance.
B) means-tested programs.
C) Medicare.
D) entitlement programs.
E) national defense.
Q2) Why is the regulatory state likely to expand in the future?
A) New problems, created as a matter of course in a dynamic market economy, are always appearing, and many bring public demands for government intervention.
B) The Democrats control the United States Congress.
C) The few regulatory policies supported by the public are likely to expand.
D) Regulation makes American businesses more efficient and competitive in the world market.
E) With large regulatory systems already in place, it is easy for the government to add more regulations in the case of a national emergency.
Q3) What are the principal goals of economic policy?
Q4) Capture is associated mostly with redistributive policies.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to your text, which of the following statements does NOT characterize the development of welfare states in rich democracies?
A) Structural factors best explain why political leaders create and expand safety nets.
B) Political leaders created such programs in part for votes and election victories.
C) Industrialization produces hardships.
D) Interest groups work to influence politicians to support their members' preferences through safety net programs.
E) Welfare states and programs were used to undermine radical movements for change.
Q2) In comparison with welfare programs in other democracies, which of the following statements is true?
A) The American system does not include universal health coverage.
B) The American system requires less of private employers.
C) The American system is less redistributive.
D) The American system covers fewer people.
E) All of the above are true
Q3) What are entitlement programs?
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Q1) According to the U.S. Constitution, Congress has the power to declare war and the president is commander-in-chief. Given what you have learned about foreign and defense policy, how well do you think today's governments follow the original intent of the framers of the Constitution?
Q2) ________ has the world's largest economy.
Q3) The increasing worldwide integration of markets, production, and communications across national boundaries is known as
A) globalization.
B) the European Union.
C) nongovernmental organizations.
D) global instability.
E) world trade.
Q4) Who believes that the United States should use its military and diplomatic power in the world in cooperation with other nations and international organizations?
A) Multilateralists
B) Isolationists
C) Unilateralists
D) Hegemonists
E) Imperialists
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