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Introduction
Government and Public Policy explores the structures, functions, and processes of government institutions and the development and implementation of public policy. The course examines how policies are formulated, the role of various government branches and agencies, and the impact of political, social, and economic factors on policy decisions. Students will analyze case studies of significant policies, assess the effectiveness of policy outcomes, and gain an understanding of the challenges faced by policymakers in contemporary society. This course aims to develop critical thinking and analytical skills needed to evaluate the role of government in addressing public issues.
Recommended Textbook Essentials of American Government Roots and Reform 2011 10th Edition by Karen J. OConnor
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Q1) The first of the Baby Boomers became eligible for Social Security in 2011.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Indigenous peoples had been living in North America for more than 30,000 years before the arrival of the first European colonists.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Congress's authority to check the president's judicial appointment power is a concept that can be attributed largely to the ideas of
A)Thomas Hobbes.
B)Jean-Jacques Rousseau.
C)John Locke.
D)Charles-Louis, the Second Baron of Montesquieu.
E)St. Thomas Aquinas.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following BEST describes the relationships among states under the Articles of Confederation?
A)A strong constitutional system
B)A form of government modeled after Canada
C)A life-long rivalry
D)A loose league of friendship
E)An interdependent, cohesive partnership
Answer: D
Q2) Following the French and Indian War,the British government and the colonists agreed that westward expansion and settlement should be curtailed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) If ratified,the Equal Opportunity to Govern Amendment will give women equal rights.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) States' unwillingness to follow provisions of the health care reform laws put forth by Congress is an example of nullification.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Suppose the national government passes a series of aggressive anti-smoking laws that effectively invalidates state and local laws.This is an example of
A)the federal government's reserved powers.
B)preemption.
C)distributive policy.
D)an interstate compact.
E)New Federalism.
Answer: B
Q3) President Lyndon B.Johnson's Great Society program altered the fragile balance between state and federal power.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The first Supreme Court case dealing with symbolic speech was Stromberg v.California.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A state's decision to force citizens to quarter soldiers would be unconstitutional under the incorporation doctrine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A warrantless search is permissible if
A)consent is given.
B)a search warrant is difficult to obtain.
C)the officer thinks stolen goods may be in a house.
D)a parked car is involved.
E)illegal drugs are involved.
Q4) Lawyers may reject potential jurors for any reason EXCEPT
A)a juror's political views.
B)a juror's race or sex.
C)a juror's residence.
D)a juror's personal relationships with the defendant, plaintiff, or judge.
E)a juror's sexual orientation.

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Q1) The Thirteenth Amendment banned slavery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the Equal Rights Amendment?Why do you think it has never been ratified?
Q3) How did Title VII provide statutory remedies for discrimination in employment?
Q4) In Hernandez v.Texas,the Court ruled unanimously that Mexican Americans were entitled to a jury that included other Mexican Americans.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Supreme Court has ruled that the University of Michigan's Law School admissions process is unconstitutional.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Supreme Court's rulings in the Civil Rights Cases collectively resulted in
A)greater state enforcement of federal civil rights laws.
B)passage of the Thirteenth Amendment.
C)an expanded interpretation of the Fourteenth Amendment.
D)serious limitations on the scope of the Civil Rights Amendments.
E)passage of the Fifteenth Amendment.

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Q1) The most powerful people in the House of Representatives are the majority and minority leaders.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the context of the legislative process,pork refers to
A)the appropriations for members' pet projects that can help them be reelected.
B)the vote trading that goes on when members agree to fund each other's favorite projects.
C)subsidies for the U.S. meat industry.
D)regulations implemented by the Food and Drug Administration concerning the content of hot dogs.
E)pet programs favored by the president.
Q3) What are the major components of the Budget and Accounting Act of 1921?
Q4) The Senate has often been referred to as the
A)Kitchen Cabinet.
B)Millionaires Club.
C)Effete Elite.
D)White Guys Club.
E)Melting Pot.
Q5) How do colleagues and caucuses influence the decisions of members of Congress?
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Q1) Using James David Barber's typology,how would you characterize President Barack Obama?
Q2) In the early years of the country,the president was much more powerful than Congress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an example of going public?
A)Calling members of both parties to the White House
B)Issuing executive orders
C)Appearing on Anderson Cooper 360.
D)Hosting t-ball games at the White House
E)Holding Cabinet meetings
Q4) ________ and ________ were the only nonelected president and vice president.
A)Lyndon B. Johnson/Hubert Humphrey
B)John F. Kennedy/Lyndon B. Johnson
C)Gerald R. Ford/Nelson Rockefeller
D)Gerald R. Ford/Spiro T. Agnew
E)Jimmy Carter/Walter Mondale
Q5) What did the Supreme Court rule in U.S.v.Nixon?
Q6) How do crises impact presidential power?
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Q1) What is the spoils system,and why was it ended?
Q2) How does the bureaucracy make policy through administrative discretion,rule-making,and adjudication?
Q3) Presidents cannot make changes in an agency's annual budget requests.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are currently more than ________ subunits of Cabinet-level departments and independent agencies.
A)1,000
B)1,250
C)1,500
D)1,800
E)2,000
Q5) All of the following were created within a few years of passage of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 EXCEPT
A)the G.I. Bill.
B)the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
C)the Department of Housing and Urban Development.
D)the Department of Transportation.
E)the Great Society programs.
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Q1) The major purpose of the federal circuit courts of appeals is to
A)allow for the use of senatorial courtesy.
B)review the decisions of district court judges concerning the facts of a case.
C)correct errors of law and procedure.
D)hear new testimony if necessary.
E)specifically recommend cases to the U.S. Supreme Court.
Q2) How do cases move through the federal judicial system?
Q3) What are some of the obstacles that the Supreme Court faces in implementing its decisions?Give an example.
Q4) The U.S.Supreme Court decided that a certain film was not obscene because it failed to meet the criteria for obscenity established by Miller v.California.This is an example of A)precedent.
B)being overruled.
C)a constitutional mandate.
D)appellate jurisdiction.
E)a seriatim decision.
Q5) The U.S.courts of appeals have no original jurisdiction.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) How do race,class,and gender affect political socialization?
Q2) A polling question with limited respondent options sometimes paints an inaccurate picture of the true sentiments of the general public.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explore media bias.What types of biases do the media have,and how do they affect media coverage of people,events,and campaigns?Is this a bad thing? Why or why not?
Q4) The first penny press paper was called the A)New York Post.
B)Globe.
C)National Gazette.
D)New York Sun.
E)Buffalo Evening Telegraph.
Q5) Why are traditional telephone polls becoming increasingly difficult to conduct reliably?
Q6) How do the news media cover Congress?How does this coverage affect our understanding of that institution?
Q7) What efforts were made in your school to increase your political knowledge?
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Q1) The _______ Party arose in opposition to the popularity of President Andrew Jackson.
A)Democratic
B)Democratic-Republican
C)Federalist
D)Whig
E)Free-Soil
Q2) Independent voters
A)sometimes have stronger partisan leanings than "not very strong" party identifiers.
B)are generally on the fence about their presidential candidate preferences.
C)are decreasing in number over the past ten years.
D)vote most frequently for independent candidates.
E)are always disinterested in politics.
Q3) A PAC is an officially registered campaign financing arm of
A)a political party.
B)a House or Senate conference.
C)any group wishing to make contributions to federal elections.
D)an executive branch agency.
E)a labor union.
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Q1) Suppose you are quite wealthy and contributed money to the campaign of one candidate in a primary election,then gave money to another campaign after that first candidate dropped out.You also contributed to a battery of political action committees and the state and national party committees.By the time the general elections come in November,what is the most that you could have contributed?
A)$30,400.
B)$50,000.
C)$115,500.
D)$500,000.
E)There is no overall limit.
Q2) One difference between the primary election campaign and the general election campaign is the party of a candidate's opponents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Certain components of BCRA have been deemed unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the differences between the primary and general election campaigns?
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Q1) The Office of Management and Budget's mission is to defend the congressional budgetary agenda.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Economic conditions were so poor in 2008 that Congress passed President George W.Bush's bailout plan with bipartisan support after only one draft.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A Federal Communications Commission fine to CBS for showing indecent content on network television is an example of authoritative policy implementation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Scheduling congressional hearings to evaluate the impending problem of global warming is an example of agenda setting.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How is the Federal Reserve organized?
Q6) Compare and contrast Medicare and Medicaid.
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Q1) Why did the United States and the Soviet Union become enemies during the Cold War?
A)The United States' use of nuclear weapons in 1945
B)A disagreement between the commanders of their respective armies
C)The implementation of high tariffs in the Soviet Union
D)The United States' refusal to join the United Nations
E)A Communist government in the Soviet Union
Q2) The ________ Act prevented U.S.ships from leaving U.S.ports for foreign ports without the approval of the federal government.
A)Shipping
B)Embargo
C)Transit
D)Ports
E)Trade
Q3) What were the two principles that dominated U.S.foreign policy in the period between the two world wars?
Q4) Why was isolation the primary defense policy in the early years of the American republic?
Q5) Compare and contrast the Monroe Doctrine and the Roosevelt Corollary.
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Q1) Is the current Texas economy well situated to withstand the economic crises our country has been experiencing? How has the Texas economy weathered previous economic storms?What aspects of the contemporary Texas economy give you hope or despair for your economic future,and why?
Q2) Texas's population completed the transition from primarily rural to primarily urban in the 1940s.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does NOT describe the contemporary Texas economy?
A)More diverse than in the past
B)More globalized than in the past
C)Less dependent on agriculture than in the past
D)The health of the economy is more reliant on the price of oil than in the past.
E)The third largest state economy in the nation
Q4) Examine,compare,and contrast the characteristics,history,and politics of the five main ethnic groups in Texas: Hispanic Americans,Native Americans,African Americans,Asian Americans,and Anglos.How has each group impacted Texas politics?
Q5) What role did cotton play in the Texas economy?
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Q1) Imagine you have been elected governor of the state of Texas.Would you support a constitutional reform that would allow you to have appointment power over key offices in the executive branch?Is so,why?If not,why not?
Q2) Which of the following reasons did NOT contribute to the electoral defeat of the proposed amendments that resulted from the 1974 Constitutional Convention?
A)The influence of political scandals such as Sharpstown in Texas and Watergate in Washington on voters attitudes toward government and politics
B)The last minute opposition of Governor Dolph Briscoe to the proposed amendments
C)The campaign against the amendments by several interest groups which benefited from aspects of the existing constitution
D)A feeling among voters that the proposed amendments justified replacing the existing constitution
E)Disclosures during trial about the private life and habits of Price Daniel, Jr., the former House Speaker and president of the 1974 Texas Constitutional Convention who was murdered by his wife
Q3) Describe the Texas Constitution during the Confederacy.
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Q1) Most large American cities have weak mayors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An election system in which all positions on the council or governing body are filled by city-wide elections is known as a/an
A)at-large-by district election.
B)at-large-by place election.
C)at-large by zone election.
D)city-wide election.
E)single-member district election.
Q3) Why are single-member city council elections more likely to result in minority representation than are at-large-by-place elections?
Q4) Why is there a need for special districts in Texas? In other words,why are cities and counties not sufficient for meeting the needs of Texans?What explains the number of special districts?Given that such districts are relatively obscure to the average citizen,do they threaten the health of Texas democracy? What are some advantages of such districts?
Q5) Explain the process and purpose by which cities annex adjacent territory.
Q6) Describe two advantages of e-government.
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Q1) What is the purpose of the Legislative Redistricting Board?
A)To redraw legislative districts if the legislature fails to do so
B)To redraw legislative districts immediately before the Census
C)To advise the governor on redistricting
D)To reapportion congressional districts in Texas
E)To prevent the legislature from gerrymandering legislative districts
Q2) The Texas legislature ignores the proposed biennial state budget submitted to it by the governor in favor of the budget prepared by the
A)Legislative Budget Board.
B)the State Board of Control.
C)the Texas Budget Authority.
D)lieutenant governor.
E)Comptroller of Public Accounts.
Q3) Detail two of the unique responsibilities each chamber of the Texas legislature possesses.
Q4) Texas senators have six-year terms of office and members of the Texas House have two-year terms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Describe the length of the governor's term in office and the number of terms he or she can hold.
Q2) Examine the role of several of the offices,agencies,commissions,and boards mentioned with regard to the modern Texas bureaucracy.Briefly note the role each plays in the formulation,implementation,and evaluation of public policy.How are members of the executive agencies selected?
Q3) Discuss the various powers (both formal and informal)that the governor uses when acting as a policy maker and political leader.Consider whether these powers at the governor's disposal are sufficient to allow the governor to perform the functions of a chief executive for contemporary Texas.
Q4) Discuss patterns of overrepresentation and underrepresentation in governors' appointees.To what extent are these patterns important?
Q5) What appointment usually is the first made by an incoming governor?
A)speaker of the House
B)Senate president
C)secretary of state
D)attorney general
E)commissioner on environmental quality
Q6) What functions does the Texas comptroller of public accounts perform?
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Q1) Describe one way in which the Texas judicial system has evolved since the Constitution of 1876 was adopted.
Q2) You have been injured in an accident and want to bring a civil suit against the person who injured you.You may be entitled to damages under the provisions of state law that deal with torts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a criminal trial in a state district court in Texas,how many jurors must agree in order to render a verdict?
A)A unanimous vote of the twelve jurors
B)A vote of ten of the twelve jurors
C)A vote of no less than six jurors
D)A vote of six or more jurors
E)A vote of seven or more jurors
Q4) Assume that you are a landlord in Texas wishing to remove tenants from your property.To do so,you will file a forcible entry and detainer action in a justice of the peace court.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What are the primary functions of the party organizations?
A)Providing services to constituents and to candidates
B)Party building and electoral activities
C)Candidate recruitment and drafting legislation
D)Endorsing candidates and establishing tax rates
E)Advising lawmakers and distributing pork
Q2) What is the difference between a general election and a primary election?
Q3) The principal purpose of county or senatorial district conventions is to
A)select delegates to the party's state convention.
B)select candidates who would run in the national election.
C)determine the basis for vote allocation
D)select members of the state electoral commission
E)prepare a roster of public policy recommendations to submit to the county commissioners court.
Q4) Prior to the 1980s,the Republican Party had control of Texas government only during Reconstruction.
A)True
B)False

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Q5) Under what circumstances can convicted felons vote in Texas?
Q6) What is early voting?What effect has it had on voter turnout?
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