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Global Supply Chain Strategy explores the design, management, and optimization of supply chains in an interconnected world. The course examines how multinational companies coordinate sourcing, production, and distribution across borders, covering topics such as global logistics, risk management, supplier relationships, and technology integration. Students analyze real-world case studies to understand strategies for developing resilient, sustainable, and competitive supply chains in response to evolving market demands, international regulations, and cultural differences. The course also addresses the impact of geopolitical issues, economic shifts, and emerging trends on global supply chain strategy.
Recommended Textbook
Supply Chain Management Strategy Planning and Operation 6th Edition by Sunil Chopra
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Sample Questions
Q1) The objective of customer order entry is to
A) get the correct orders to customers by the promised due date at the lowest possible cost.
B) maintain a record of product receipt and complete payment.
C) maximize the conversion of customer arrivals to customer orders.
D) ensure that orders are quickly and accurately entered and communicated to other affected supply chain processes.
Answer: D
Q2) For any supply chain, the source of revenue is generated by
A) efficient operations.
B) information flows.
C) the customer.
D) product flows.
Answer: C
Q3) The decision phases in a supply chain include
A) production scheduling.
B) customer relationship management.
C) supply chain operation.
D) supply chain orientation.
Answer: C
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Q1) The uncertainty of customer demand for a product is the A) rate of strategic uncertainty.
B) demand uncertainty.
C) implied demand uncertainty.
D) average forecast error.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following customer needs will cause implied uncertainty of demand to increase?
A) Product margin
B) Lead time decreases
C) Average stockout rate
D) Average forced season end markdown
Answer: B
Q3) A firm that is not on the cost-responsiveness efficient frontier can improve
A) both responsiveness and cost performance.
B) only responsiveness.
C) only cost performance.
D) responsiveness, but not cost performance.
Answer: A

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Q1) What is the average sale price of the gasoline?
A) $2.61
B) $2.64
C) $2.67
D) $2.70
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following would be a characteristic of a facility with little excess capacity?
A) Allows a facility to be very flexible and to respond to wide swings in the demands placed on it
B) Costs money and therefore can decrease efficiency
C) Requires proximity to customers and the rest of the network
D) Will likely be more efficient per unit of product it produces
Answer: D
Q3) The components of inventory decisions include capacity, cycle inventory, safety inventory, seasonal inventory, and sourcing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The costs incurred in sending material out of a facility are
A) sourcing transportation costs.
B) outbound transportation costs.
C) crossbound transportation costs.
D) inbound transportation costs.
Q2) Distribution is a key driver of the overall profitability of a firm because
A) the addition of distributors only adds cost to the supply chain.
B) it directly impacts both the supply chain cost and the customer experience.
C) it slows down the responsiveness of the supply chain.
D) it cannot be developed as a part of supply chain strategy.
Q3) Customers always want the highest level of performance along all the dimensions response time, product variety and returnability.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Companies in the same industry often select very different distribution networks because
A) some companies are poorly run.
B) different companies try to avoid using the same approach.
C) different companies have different objectives for their supply chain.
D) all of the above
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Q1) The allocation of supply sources and markets to facilities has a significant impact on performance because it affects total production, inventory, and transportation costs incurred by the supply chain to satisfy customer demand.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Supply chain network design decisions include
A) only the location of manufacturing, storage, or transportation-related facilities.
B) only the allocation of capacity and roles to each facility.
C) both the location of manufacturing, storage, or transportation-related facilities and the allocation of capacity and roles to each facility.
D) neither the location of manufacturing, storage, or transportation-related facilities nor the allocation of capacity and roles to each facility.
Q3) Firms focusing on cost leadership tend to
A) locate facilities close to the market they serve.
B) locate facilities very far from the market they serve.
C) find the lowest cost location for their manufacturing facilities.
D) select a high-cost location to be able to react quickly.
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Q1) A global supply chain with offshoring would tend to see which of these performance dimensions decrease?
A) Working capital
B) Hidden costs
C) Supply chain visibility
D) Product returns
Q2) In a complex decision tree, there are thousands of possible paths that may result from the first period to the last.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Simulation methods are very good at evaluating a decision where the path itself is decision dependent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Financial analysis should be used as an input to decision making, not as the decision-making process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Summarize the steps in the decision tree analysis methodology.
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Q1) Mature products with stable demand
A) are usually easiest to forecast.
B) are usually hardest to forecast.
C) cannot be forecast.
D) do not need to be forecast.
Q2) The measure of forecast error where the absolute amount of error of each forecast is averaged is
A) mean squared error (MSE).
B) mean absolute deviation (MAD).
C) mean absolute percentage error (MAPE).
D) bias.
Q3) The forecast of demand forms the basis for all strategic and planning decisions in a supply chain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Personnel can utilize forecasts to make decisions concerning A) scheduling.
B) promotions.
C) plant/equipment investment.
D) purchasing.
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Q1) Companies should work with downstream partners to produce forecasts and with upstream partners to determine constraints when doing aggregate planning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The quality of the forecast can be improved by using information from
A) the focal firm.
B) downstream partners.
C) upstream partners.
D) competing supply chains.
Q3) Much of aggregate planning has traditionally been focused
A) on short-term production scheduling.
B) on customer relationship management.
C) within an enterprise.
D) beyond enterprise boundaries.
Q4) Short-term production serves as a broad blueprint for operations and establishes the parameters within which aggregate planning decisions are made.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Formulate the aggregate plan using linear programming and solve it using Solver.
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Q1) Which approach to capacity management would only be effective if the overall demand across all the products is relatively constant?
A) Use of seasonal workforce
B) Use of subcontracting
C) Use of dual facilities-dedicated and flexible
D) Designing product flexibility into the production processes
Q2) Which approach to capacity management would use a part-time workforce to increase capacity flexibility by enabling the firm to have more people at work during peak periods?
A) Time flexibility from workforce
B) Use of seasonal workforce
C) Use of subcontracting
D) Use of dual facilities-dedicated and flexible
Q3) Promoting during a peak demand month may decrease overall profitability if a significant fraction of the demand increase results from a forward buy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss key issues when managing predictable variability of demand within a supply chain. To

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Q1) How does cooperation and trust improve performance in a supply chain partnership?
Q2) Trade promotions and other short-term discounts offered by a manufacturer result in large orders during the promotion period followed by very small orders after that.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lack of information sharing between the retailer and manufacturer leads to a large fluctuation in manufacturer orders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The lack of supply chain coordination on various measures of performance has costs associated with it. Which of the following is one of these costs?
A) Inventory
B) Reliability
C) Transportation
D) Quality
Q5) Describe the impact of forecasts based on orders rather than actual customer demand.
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Q1) All costs that do not vary with the size of the order but are incurred each time an order is placed are referred to as
A) the material cost and are denoted by C.
B) the fixed ordering cost and are denoted by S.
C) the holding cost and are denoted by H.
D) the purchase price and are denoted by P.
Q2) The price paid per unit is referred to as
A) the material cost and is denoted by C.
B) the fixed ordering cost and is denoted by S.
C) the holding cost and is denoted by H.
D) the purchase price and is denoted by P.
Q3) What is the best order quantity for Nathan to use?
A) 5,477
B) 5,505
C) 10,000
D) 5,491
Q4) Discuss the role of cycle inventory in the supply chain.
Q5) Describe the impact of trade promotions on cycle inventory.
Q6) Discuss the characteristics of a successful multi-echelon supply chain.
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Q1) What is an explanation offered for why firms have not historically tracked stockouts very well?
A) There is no agreed upon definition of stockouts.
B) There is no way to track stockouts.
C) Stockouts occur after the fact.
D) Stockouts are difficult to track.
Q2) Periodic review policies require
A) more safety inventory than continuous review policies for the same level of product availability.
B) less safety inventory than continuous review policies for the same level of product availability.
C) the same safety inventory as continuous review policies for the same level of product availability.
D) no more safety inventory than continuous review policies for the same level of product availability.
Q3) When using a continuous review policy, a manager has to account for the uncertainty of demand during the lead time and the review interval.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The level of product availability
A) is also referred to as the customer service level.
B) is an important component of any supply chain's responsiveness.
C) increases revenues for the supply chain by increasing sales.
D) Only A and B are true.
Q2) As lead times decrease, supply chain managers are able to
A) better match supply with demand.
B) better match demand with supply.
C) increase supply chain cost.
D) decrease product availability.
Q3) A supply chain can use a high level of product availability to improve its responsiveness and attract customers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following would be a strategy to decrease the margin lost in a stockout?
A) Arranging for backup sourcing
B) Discarding the unused material
C) Selling unsold product to an outlet store
D) Reducing the level of cycle inventory
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Q1) The use of software to determine transportation routes has been the most common IT application in transportation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A carrier's decisions are affected by the prices that the market will bear, but not the responsiveness it seeks to provide its target segment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The skillful supply chain manager declared she would not only disaggregate cycle inventory, but she would also aggregate safety inventory and use an inexpensive mode of transportation for replenishing cycle inventory and fast mode when using safety inventory for her product that had
A) high value and high demand.
B) high value and low demand.
C) low value and high demand.
D) low value and low demand.
Q4) Discuss the two key players involved in any transportation in the supply chain.
Q5) Discuss the importance of designing flexibility into the transportation network.
Q6) Explain why transportation systems should be tailored.
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Q1) An intermediary can increase the supply chain surplus by decreasing the number of relationships required between multiple buyers and sellers. This is called A) capacity aggregation.
B) inventory aggregation.
C) warehouse aggregation.
D) relationship aggregation.
Q2) What are some of the benefits of effective sourcing decisions?
Q3) The procurement process for both direct and indirect materials should work on A) improving coordination and visibility with the supplier.
B) decreasing the transaction cost for each order.
C) consolidation of orders to take advantage of economies of scale and quantity discounts.
D) minimizing communication with the supplier.
Q4) Quantity flexibility contracts counter double marginalization by giving the retailer the ability to modify the order based on improved forecasts closer to the point of sale. A)True
B)False
Q5) What factors should be considered when making sourcing decisions?
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Q1) What is the difference in the number of rooms that should be held by the Stone Lion if the standard deviation of corporate demand increases by five and if it decreases by five?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) The amount of the asset reserved for the higher price segment is such that
A) all orders from the lower priced segment will be accepted and filled.
B) the expected marginal revenue from the higher priced segment is more than the price to the lower price segment.
C) the expected marginal revenue from the higher priced segment is less than the price to the lower price segment.
D) the expected marginal revenue from the higher priced segment equals the price to the lower price segment.
Q3) Unused capacity from the past is extremely valuable. A)True B)False
Q4) Describe the role of revenue management.
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Q1) What type of inventory is one of the most damaging from a sustainability perspective?
A) Raw materials
B) Work in process
C) Finished goods
D) Landfill
Q2) ________ is a social arrangement that encourages all participants to behave such that they do not contribute to the tragedy of the commons.
A) A zero sum game
B) Escalation of commitment
C) Mutual coercion
D) Barzini Red
Q3) ________ worked with their equipment supplier, Siemens VAI, to create a new production process that cut costs and emissions by using local iron ore that was of lower quality but cheaper.
A) Walmart
B) Coca-Cola
C) Posco
D) Starbucks
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