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Global Strategic Management focuses on the formulation and implementation of effective strategies in an international context, examining how multinational companies navigate complex global environments. The course explores topics such as global market entry, competitive advantage, cross-cultural management, and risk assessment. Students analyze real-world cases to understand the interplay between global trends, organizational resources, and local market dynamics, preparing them to develop strategic solutions that address challenges and leverage opportunities in a rapidly changing global economy.
Recommended Textbook
Strategic Management and Business Policy 13th Edition by Thomas L. Wheelen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Henry Mintzberg discovered that strategic formulation is a regular, continuous process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) One tenet of the learning organization is to maintain stability.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What is a strategic decision and what are its three characteristics.
Answer: A strategic decision deals with the long-run future of an entire organization.There are three characteristics of a strategic decision: rare, consequential, and directive.Strategic decisions are unusual and typically have no precedent to follow.They commit substantial resources and demand a great deal of commitment from people at all levels.And they set precedents for lesser decisions and future actions throughout the organization.
Q4) Corporate strategy occurs at the business unit or product level.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Sample Questions
Q1) In implementing the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the SEC required in 2003 that a company disclose
A)the number of insiders on their PR committee.
B)if it has adopted a code of ethics that applied to the CEO and the CFO.
C)the CEO's pay.
D)the CFO's pay.
E)all of the above
Answer: B
Q2) According to ________ theory, _______ directors tend to identify with the corporation.
A)agency, inside
B)corporate governance; inside
C)stewardship; inside
D)corporate governance; affiliated
E)stewardship; outside
Answer: C
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Q1) According to a survey by the Ethics Resource Center, which was not cited as one of the most common questionable behaviors that employees engage in?
A)cutting corners on quality
B)covering up incidents
C)abusing or lying about sick days
D)surfing the web on company time
E)lying to or deceiving customers
Answer: D
Q2) According to the utilitarian approach, the ability to affect the company is known as A)power.
B)legitimacy.
C)urgency.
D)stability.
E)utility.
Answer: A
Q3) Kohlberg places 80 percent of U.S.adults in the principled level of development. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT descriptive of intense rivalry among firms?
A)slow industry growth
B)high fixed costs
C)high exit barriers
D)few competitors or competitors that are roughly equal in size and power
E)product offerings that are highly differentiated
Q2) The U.S.major home appliance industry, including the companies of Maytag, Whirlpool, General Electric, and Electrolux, is an example of an industry
A)that has evolved from an oligopoly to a monopoly.
B)in which each company maintained a distinct product line.
C)that was once fragmented, but now is consolidated.
D)that has experienced consistent, increasing sales.
E)experiencing a successful strategy of product specialization because of product differentiation.
Q3) Describe the four general forces in the societal environment.
Q4) According to Michael Porter, a high force can be regarded as threat because it is likely to reduce profits.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The second step when analyzing the value-added chain is to
A)identify the legal ramifications and responsibilities of their product or service.
B)examine the linkages among the product's or service's value activities.
C)confirm that all variables have been included and taken into consideration.
D)ensure that quality management is adequately addressed.
E)examine the potential synergies among the corporation's product or business units.
Q2) The term that describes putting once isolated specialists together to work and compare notes in a collective product design effort is called
A)simultaneous strategy.
B)participatory planning.
C)jointly-designed objectives.
D)concurrent engineering.
E)cooperative design.
Q3) Transferability is the ability of competitors to use duplicated resources and capabilities to imitate the other firm's success.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) SWOT is an acronym that stands for Strategy, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of Porter's competitive strategies concentrates on seeking differentiation in a particular buyer group, product line segment, or geographic market?
A)differentiation
B)cost leadership
C)differentiation focus
D)competitive advantage
E)cost focus
Q3) As an industry becomes hypercompetitive, firms initially respond by
A)raising entry barriers.
B)moving into untapped markets.
C)attacking the strongholds of other firms.
D)competing on cost and quality.
E)working their way to a situation of perfect competition.
Q4) What are cooperative strategies?
Q5) What are timing tactics?

Page 8
Q6) What are the types of alliances that business can engage in?
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Q1) According to Campbell, Goold, and Alexander in their parenting-fit matrix when parent companies create more value than any of their rivals would if they owned the same businesses, they have
A)multi-point competition.
B)parenting advantage.
C)corporate parenting.
D)portfolio analysis.
E)no real advantage.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the limitations of the BCG Growth Share Matrix?
A)It is too simplistic.
B)The link between market share and profitability is questionable.
C)Growth rate is only one aspect of industry attractiveness.
D)There are too many aspects of overall competitive position included.
E)Small competitors with fast-growing market share are ignored.
Q3) With taper integration, a firm internally makes 100% of its key supplies and completely control its distributors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is growth a very attractive strategy?
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Q1) Which strategy is developed to pull together the various activities and competencies of each department so that corporate and business unit performance improves and resource productivity is maximized?
A)business strategy
B)competitive strategy
C)generic strategy
D)enterprise strategy
E)functional strategy
Q2) The most commonly used political strategies include which of the following?
A)constituency building
B)political action committee contributions
C)advocacy advertising
D)lobbying
E)all of the above
Q3) Leveraged buyouts are also referred to as
A)leveraged bargains.
B)management buyouts.
C)management bargains.
D)coordinated buyouts.
E)debt buyouts.
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Q1) A corporation run by a team of managers with functional specializations and which successfully operates in one industry is said to be a
A)Stage I company.
B)Stage II company.
C)Stage III company.
D)Stage IV company.
E)Stage V company.
Q2) An example of shared tangible resources is the alliance between Renault and Nissan to build factories that built both Nissan and Renault vehicles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Those who implement strategy will be less diverse than those who formulate it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The greatest weakness of a Stage II corporation is that all its eggs are in one basket. A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss Chandler's conclusion concerning strategy.
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Q1) According to the text, assessment centers have been able to accurately predict subsequent
A)job satisfaction.
B)job performance and career success.
C)organizational commitment.
D)organizational attachment.
E)job management skills.
Q2) One objective of TQM is better, less variable quality of the product and service.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because an organization's culture can exert a powerful influence on the behavior of all employees, it can strongly affect a company's ability to shift its strategic direction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A good retrenchment strategy can be implemented well in terms of organizing, but poorly in terms of staffing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A global MNC should use what type of controls over its foreign units?
A)Management should be given considerable latitude, but be required to meet some predetermined performance targets.
B)Management should use a matrix structure allowing some limited autonomy of the foreign unit.
C)Management needs to exert tight controls over its many units using a centralized strategic operational decision-making format.
D)Management should use a functional approach assigning distinct and separate responsibilities to each department throughout the MNC.
E)Management should use a divisional approach assigning goals and targets for each product-group on all its foreign units collectively.
Q2) Behavior controls specify how something is to be done through policies, rules, standard operating procedures, and orders from a superior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List the five step feedback model of the evaluation and control process.
Q4) What is the balanced scorecard? What are the four areas to be addressed?
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Q1) Fixed asset turnover is what type of financial ratio?
A)liquidity ratio
B)profitability ratio
C)activity ratio
D)leverage ratio
E)revenue ratio
Q2) Which financial indicator is calculated as the ratio of annual credit sales to accounts receivable?
A)days of cash
B)average collection period
C)accounts receivable turnover
D)inventory turnover
E)net working capital turnover
Q3) "Inventory to net working capital" is an example of a(n)
A)leverage ratio.
B)liquidity ratio.
C)activity ratio.
D)asset management ratio.
E)profitability ratio.
Q4) What are constant dollars and why are they important?
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