Global Environmental Issues
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Global Environmental Issues explores the complex and interconnected challenges affecting the Earth's ecosystems and human societies in the 21st century. This course examines topics such as climate change, biodiversity loss, resource depletion, pollution, and environmental justice from a global perspective. Students will analyze the scientific, economic, political, and social dimensions of these issues, considering both causes and consequences. Emphasis is placed on understanding the roles of international organizations, policy frameworks, and sustainable development strategies in addressing environmental problems. Through case studies and current events, students will develop critical thinking skills and explore solutions for creating a more sustainable future.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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Chapter 1:
Literacy
From a Vanished Viking Society
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Q1) Which phrase best describes the term "environment"?
A) the climate where an organism lives
B) the living surroundings in which an organism exists
C) the living and nonliving surroundings in which an organism exists
D) the nonliving surroundings where an organism lives
E) the domination of nonliving systems by living systems
Answer: C
Q2) How does wealth inequality impede sustainable growth?
A) Poorer nations lack natural resources.
B) Underprivileged people sometimes exploit the environment in order to survive.
C) Wealthier nations are very affected by resource availability and must pay high costs to access them.
D) People with the most money and power are the first to succumb to environmental problems.
E) The world's natural resources are controlled by the vast majority of the population. Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) Describe the difference between a hypothesis and a scientific theory?
Answer: A hypothesis is a possible explanation for what we have observed that is based on some previous knowledge. A scientific theory is a widely accepted explanation of a natural phenomenon that has been extensively and rigorously tested scientifically.
Q2) Why can scientific opinions change over time?
A) All conclusions in science are considered tentative and open to revision.
B) Our understanding of a concept or process can change as scientists learn more.
C) New evidence may be used to overturn a prevailing conclusion.
D) All of these statements are true.
E) None of these statements are true.
Answer: D
Q3) The observation of a decrease in stratospheric ozone didn't come from just a few readings. Explain the importance of replication within a study.
Answer: ANSWET: Many readings were taken at two different sites over more than a dozen seasons. This is a hallmark of good science because it decreases the chance that one reading was influenced by another factor (e.g., equipment error, unusual seasonal variation, etc.).
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail
of
in Our Everyday Lives- Human Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) Which common logical fallacy presents extraneous information that does not directly support the claim but that might confuse the reader/listener?
A) red herring
B) false dichotomy
C) appeal to ignorance
D) ad hominem attack
E) hasty generalization
Answer: A
Q2) What is the rule of thumb that calls for leaving a safety margin when the data about a particular substance's potential for harm are uncertain, and where the substance may cause unexpected or unpredictable effects?
A) innocent until proven guilty
B) guilty until proven innocent
C) the precautionary principle
D) do no harm
E) risk assessment
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population
Control
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 4.5. The AIDS epidemic continues to affect certain African countries especially hard, as it targets individuals of reproductive and pre-reproductive age. Describe how this epidemic might prevent a country from proceeding through the demographic transition. In which stage might they be stuck?
Q2) A good example of a demographic factor that influences population changes would be ________.
A) education
B) economic conditions
C) cultural values
D) health care
E) All of the factors listed above influence population changes.
Q3) _________ have already undergone the demographic transition.
A) Developing countries
B) Developed countries
C) Countries with high replacement fertility rates
D) Agrarian societies
E) None of these answers are correct.
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Q4) How has the one-child policy in China changed the country's sex ratio? What effect is this having on the country?
Chapter 5: Environmental Health- Eradicating a Parasitic
Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the Environment- Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) Why does urbanization sometimes lead to the increased incidence of waterborne pathogen infections?
Q2) How would your actions of taking the entire prescription of an antibiotic potentially help individuals living on the other side of the world?
Q3) Why do you think 75% of all emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic?
Q4) Which of the below choices is not a vector-pathogen pairing?
A) mosquitoes : Plasmodium that causes malaria
B) field mice : bacterium that causes Lyme disease
C) tick : bacterium that causes Lyme disease
D) mosquitoes : virus that causes dengue fever
E) copepods : Guinea worm larvae
Q5) According to the World Health Organization, how many people fall victim to waterborne diseases each year?
A) 100,000
B) 1,000,000
C) 100,000,000
D) 1,000,000,000
Page 7
Q6) Why is the eradication of Guinea worm disease (GWD) possible?
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Carpet Company
Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 6.1. Which of the following might be considered a "cultural use" of an ecosystem?
A) bees pollinating cherry trees
B) an open field and nearby forest used for a Civil War reenactment
C) carbon moving from a tree to a caterpillar to a bird to the soil
D) water percolating through soil in a wetland
E) rocks being weathered by the wind
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an important reason to maintain an intact ecosystem?
A) An intact ecosystem provides numerous ecosystem services.
B) An intact ecosystem can renew and recycle resources.
C) If we use more resources and goods than the ecosystem can replenish, we will not be able to receive these goods and services.
D) Our future health and well-being will be threatened.
E) All of the above are important reasons to maintain intact ecosystems.
Q3) It is predicted that there will soon be more cell phones in the world than people. Inside each phone is a metal called tantalum. This metal is mined from the Earth and is a nonrenewable resource. How could cell phone manufacturing become more cyclical in a closed-loop system? What can consumers do to help?
Page 9
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Chapter
With Trash- Ecology
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Q1) What are the potential environmental consequences of disposing of waste via landfilling and incineration? What systems exist in each disposal method to try and prevent these potential problems?
Q2) Refer to Infographic 7.4. Compare the foraging areas for the two populations of Laysan albatross chicks relative to the locations of the garbage patches. This comparison suggests that _________ birds likely eat more plastic because
A) the Oahu; they have a smaller foraging area
B) the Kure; a large portion of the Western Garbage Patch is in their foraging area
C) the Kure; they have a larger foraging area
D) the Oahu; their actual nesting site is closer to the Eastern Garbage Patch
E) neither the Kure nor the Oahu; they can both avoid foraging in the area of the garbage patches
Q3) What is e-waste? Explain why recycling e-waste is a better idea than simply burying it in a hazardous waste landfill. What are the concerns with such recycling efforts?
Q4) Refer to Infographic 7.8. What are the three required steps of recycling? Which step drives the entire process and is therefore most important?
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) A group of individuals of the same species living and interacting in the same region is a(n) ____________.
A) community
B) population
C) cohort
D) biome
E) ecosystem
Q2) Which nutrient cycle(s) do(does) not have a phase in the atmosphere?
A) carbon
B) nitrogen
C) phosphorous
D) choices A and B only
E) choices B and C only
Q3) Consider the following scenario: A plant grows in the soil and is eventually eaten by a rabbit. The rabbit is eaten by a hawk. The hawk becomes ill, dies, and falls to the ground. Fungi and bacteria decompose the hawk. How is this scenario an example of both nutrient cycling and energy flow?
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Q4) How have humans impacted the carbon cycle, and how can humans use nature to address this issue?
Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) Why would a clumped distribution be an advantage for a bee-pollinated plant?
Q2) Which of the following factors affecting the human population is not density dependent?
A) starvation
B) aggressive behavior
C) disease
D) forest fires
E) All of the factors listed above are density dependent.
Q3) Which of the following are characteristics of a population?
A) all the same species
B) interaction between members
C) interbreeding
D) live in the same geographic area
E) all of the above
Q4) Which is the rarest form of population distribution naturally found in nature?
A) clumped distribution
B) uniform distribution
C) random distribution
D) irregular distribution
E) All types of distribution occur about equally.
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Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) The historic flow of water in south Florida was from Lake Okeechobee, with the main flow moving ________________.
A) south through the Everglades and into Florida Bay
B) east-west across Florida
C) southeast through the Everglades to Miami and the Atlantic Ocean
D) north to Orlando
E) east through West Palm Beach and into the Atlantic Ocean
Q2) Human impact has reduced the original Everglades by approximately _____.
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 90%
Q3) Which of the following groups can undergo photosynthesis to generate energy?
A) secondary consumers
B) primary consumers
C) producers
D) both a and b
E) none of the above
Q4) Why are decomposers and detritivores essential members of any ecosystem? Page 13
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Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing Birds of Guam
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 11.3. A population of grasshopper mice preys upon a population of beetles. The population of beetles contains individuals with an adaptive trait of squirting a noxious fluid that repels the mice. Over time, the majority of beetles in the population will have the genes that provide for that trait. Use the infographic to describe what changes will need to occur in the grasshopper mouse population to counter what has happened in the beetle population. What is this situation an example of?
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the theory of evolution?
A) It helps us understand the diversity of life on Earth and how populations change over time.
B) It is supported by a vast amount of evidence and is very likely not to be wrong.
C) Natural selection is the main mechanism by which populations adapt and evolve.
D) The pace of evolution is generally slow.
E) Evolution is just a theory that can be easily dismissed by available evidence.
Q3) What must exist within a population in order for evolution by natural selection to occur, and what are its sources?
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Chapter
Production of a Common Household Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on
Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) Why do tropical areas typically have more biodiversity than a colder or drier climate?
Q2) It is common for fast food restaurants to use a particular species of potato to make their French fries. This species has a characteristic shape and size that fits nicely in the potato cutting machines. They also have the desired taste and color the fast food restaurants, and their patrons, prefer. You can image that potato farming for fast food restaurants is a lucrative business. Given what you know about the Irish Potato Famine, how are fast food restaurants endangering potato crops and farming?
Q3) What personal choice would NOT protect Earth's biodiversity?
A) buying captive-bred birds
B) planting a rain garden in a ditch by the road
C) limiting the use of weed killer on your lawn
D) always buying the cheapest product, no matter how it was farmed
E) joining a local wildlife monitoring group
Q4) Why are biodiversity hotspots important?
Q5) What are some ways that you can protect biodiversity?
Page 16
Q6) Endemic species are ________ susceptible to extinction due to habitat loss.
A) more
B) less
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Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a Forest Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) Many zoos participate in species survival plans in which members of a particular endangered species are transferred from zoo to zoo to mate with other members of that species. Why is this mating technique important for the continuation of the species?
A) Oftentimes zoos will only have one sex of the endangered animal, so to mate those individuals, they must be moved to another zoo with members of the opposite sex.
B) This reduces the genetic diversity of the population as a whole and increases the likelihood that the species will survive and thrive in the wild.
C) This technique allows captive animals to experience different environments, since they are unlikely to ever be released back into the wild.
D) This technique increases the genetic diversity of the next generation of the species, which makes them more suited to weather any disturbances in their natural habitats upon release.
E) There are only a few zoos that are certified to house and rear young, so mating and birth must take place at these facilities.
Q2) In which protected area do you think an endangered species would best thrive?
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Chapter
14: Freshwater Resources- Toilet to Tap: a
California County Is Employing a Controversial Method toSupply Drinking Water
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Q1) Why are two sets of marshes used in the Arcata wetland sewage treatment system?
Q2) Of all the freshwater on the Earth, approximately ________________ is trapped as ice.
A) 10%
B) 80%
C) 50%
D) 8%
E) 60%
Q3) Which practice requires the greatest amount of water input?
A) flushing the toilet
B) taking a shower
C) making a cotton T-shirt
D) washing dishes
E) producing 1 pound of beef
Q4) One of the ways wastewater in Orange County is treated is by using reverse osmosis, UV light, and hydrogen peroxide. What does each process do in the treatment of wastewater?
Q5) What are some potential impacts of global warming on aquifers?
Q6) How might global warming and climate change affect water scarcity in the future? Page 19
Q7) Refer to Table 14.1. Explain how using less energy saves water.
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Chapter 15: Water Pollution- Into the Gulf: the Makings of a
Zone, Far Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) What plant nutrients are found in animal waste and fertilizer that can cause eutrophication?
A) nitrogen
B) phosphorous
C) oxygen
D) carbon dioxide
E) both A and B
Q2) In their efforts to address hypoxia in the Gulf of Mexico, the Gulf Task Force's recommendations consider:
A) social impacts.
B) economic realities.
C) environmental needs.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
Q3) Air pollution can cause water pollution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why should we care about water pollution?
Page 21
Q5) Discuss the pros and cons of using drainage pipes for agricultural fields.
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Q1) Why does microfertilization reduce the amount of water pollution from farms that employ this technique?
A) Since no fertilizer is used, there is no contamination by fertilizer from water runoff of the farm.
B) Microfertilization employs a biodegradable nitrogen source that does not pollute water sources.
C) Since only a small amount of fertilizer is used, less will end up in the local water supply.
D) With this technique, all of the fertilizer applied is used by the plant; thus there isn't a chance for it to end up in the water supply.
E) Microfertilization actually increases the amount of water pollution seen in local sources.
Q2) By 2050, the human population is estimated to reach 10 billion. While the ability to produce food has risen with population growth so far, increasing production for another 3 billion humans poses a tremendous challenge. Discuss how the gene revolution will likely be part of the solution to meeting future food demands.
Q3) Why are many European countries opposed to the use of GMOs?
Q4) Why is there no clear answer to the problem of malnutrition in Africa?
Page 22
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Chapter 17: Agriculture- Farming Like an Ecosystem:
Creative Solutions to Feeding the World- Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) An increase in crop genetic diversity is an advantage of what kind of farming?
A) sustainable
B) commercial
C) global
D) industrial
E) All farming decreases genetic diversity.
Q2) What is an advantage of growing perennial crops?
A) increased soil erosion
B) increased soil fertility
C) decreased irrigation need
D) the ability to grow in any environment
E) There are no advantages over growing annual crops.
Q3) Organic agriculture is a type of which farming method?
A) sustainable
B) industrial
C) commercial
D) global
E) nonprofit
Describe pros and cons of each in industrialized agriculture. Page 23
Q4) What are monocultures and concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs)?
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Chapter
Rubble, the True Costs of Coal
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Q1) Clean coal technologies are being developed to _________________.
A) reduce CO emissions
B) store emitted CO
C) remove toxins from coal prior to combustion
D) A, B, and C
E) none of these answers
Q2) Which area of the world has the least amount of coal reserves?
A) North America
B) Africa
C) Europe
D) Australia
E) Asia
Q3) The first form of coal that is created from submerged vegetation, pressure, and heat is ____________________.
A) peat
B) anthracite
C) lignite
D) bituminous
E) none of these answers
Q4) What are the benefits of using coal as an energy source?
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Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Drilling could detrimentally affect which species in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge?
A) Arctic fox
B) polar bears
C) caribou
D) migratory birds
E) all of these answers
Q2) Refer to Infographic 19.2. Which area has both the most natural gas and oil reserves?
A) United States
B) Russia
C) Middle East
D) Libya and western Africa
E) Venezuela
Q3) What is a conventional oil reserve? How does the distribution of conventional oil reserves impact relationships between countries?
Q4) Explain what an oil shale is and what its potential is as an energy source.
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Q5) Why are environmentalists opposed to oil and natural gas mining in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge?
Chapter 20: Air Pollution- the Youngest Scientists: Kids on the Frontlines of Asthma Research
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Q1) Air pollution can cause which of the following conditions?
A) ground-level ozone
B) water pollution
C) asthma
D) property damage
E) all of these answers
Q2) Which of the following indoor air pollutants is correctly matched to its source?
A) radon tobacco smoke
B) cooking particulates
C) VOCs poorly ventilated furnaces
D) chlorine damp basements
E) carbon monoxide soaps and cleaners
Q3) Which of the following choices is a source of mercury pollution?
A) volcanoes
B) forest fires
C) mining
D) burning coal
E) all of these answers
Q4) Why is ground-level ozone considered to be an air pollutant while stratospheric ozone is not? How is it formed?
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Which of the following choices is NOT evidence for the recent changes in global climate?
A) a single weather event like a hurricane.
B) prairies giving way to deserts in Africa and the American West.
C) coral reefs dying off.
D) earlier springs and later winters.
E) more and longer heat waves.
Q2) What changes occurred to Minnesota's climate 12,000 and 6,000 years ago? What effect did these changes have on the ranges for various tree species?
Q3) Climate changes that impact freeze-thaw patterns are predicted to have a negative impact on what industry in the northeastern United States?
A) logging
B) maple syrup
C) tourism
D) nut
E) Christmas tree
Q4) Refer to Infographic 21.3. Describe how the greenhouse effect works. What is different with the enhanced greenhouse effect, and what are the main causes of it?
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Chapter
Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) What is the process of nuclear fission?
Q2) Which of the following choices for an isotope represents the greatest production of daughter atoms?
A) 1 half-life
B) 2 half-lives
C) 3 half-lives
D) 4 half-lives
E) 5 half-lives
Q3) A chain reaction is created in a nuclear plant when U-235 in the fuel rods is bombarded with _______________, causing the nucleus to become unstable and split.
A) neutrons
B) electrons
C) protons
D) electricity
E) water
Q4) Refer to Infographic 22.4. Use the infographic to explain how a nuclear reaction happens.
Page 29
Q5) How can nuclear waste best be disposed of?
Q6) What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope, and how long is it?
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Chapter
23: Sustainable Energy for Stationary SourcesFueled by the Sun: a Small Island Makes Big Strides in Renewable Energy- Sustainable Living in Community
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Q1) How do geothermal power plants work?
A) They actively move heat from underground into an overlying structure in order to remove or add heat to the structure.
B) They utilize steam released from hydrothermal reservoirs to spin turbines and produce electricity.
C) They use the heat from hot rocks located in earthquake zones to heat coal.
D) They use heat from volcanic eruptions to boil water and create steam that can power a turbine.
E) They funnel hot steam into people's homes so that it can be used as a heat source.
Q2) In 2013, how much energy used by the human population came from renewable resources?
A) 3%
B) 9%
C) 16%
D) 25%
E) 40%
Q3) How does insulating pipes, using an on-demand water heater, and taking shorter showers save energy?
Page 31
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Chapter
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Q1) Explain the role of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Q2) The era of modern environmental policy had begun by:
A) 1849.
B) 1880.
C) 1923.
D) 1969.
E) 1996.
Q3) Which was the first environmental law that required the U.S. government to consider environmental issues before approving policies?
A) Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA)
B) Toxic Substances Control Act (TOSCA)
C) Clean Water Act (CWA)
D) National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
E) Clean Air Act (CAA)
Q4) As president of a country that relies significantly on income from whaling, you are concerned about declining whale populations. Several other countries are considered whaling countries. What can be done to help ensure sustainable whaling into the future?
Q5) What was the Kyoto Protocol, and how was compliance enforced?
Page 32
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from midcentury to 2030.
Q2) Advantages of urbanization for a society include ___________________.
A) concentrated wastes that have to be transported away
B) lower energy impact per person due to smaller homes and less traveling
C) the urban heat island effect
D) dependence on food and resource inputs from outside the city
E) higher levels of air pollution
Q3) Why are parking garages considered part of the New Urbanism?
A. They encourage single occupancy car use.
B. They are more compact than parking lots.
C. They are an important part of suburban and exurban development-the growth pattern of the future.
D. A, B, and C are correct.
E. None of these answers are correct.
Q4) What is a green building? Describe three design features that help make a building green, and explain the benefits of such choices.
Q5) What has happened to the distribution of people (rural and urban) from the 1950s to 2013?
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Chapter 26: Counterfeit Cooling:
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Q1) __________ refers to unwanted electronic devices, such as televisions, computers, and cell phones, that contain recoverable metals but also toxic chemicals.
A) Electric pollution
B) Manufactured waste
C) E-waste
D) Nanotube waste
E) None of these answers
Q2) Which mining technique is best used when the top of a fairly deep ore deposit is found close to the surface?
A) placer mining
B) subsurface mining
C) strip mining
D) open-pit mining
E) mountaintop removal
Q3) Why is global demand for all types of minerals rising, and why is it critical to develop alternatives to minerals that are currently used in so many everyday products?
Q4) Use Infographic 26.2 to describe how minerals are created.
Q5) List five commonly used products that contain mineral resources.
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) What are the challenges of a planned grazing approach to grassland management?
Q2) Describe how overgrazing helped lead to the classic American tragedy of the commons called the "Dust Bowl."
Q3) Which of the following layers of soil gets depleted during soil erosion?
A) A horizon
B) B horizon
C) C horizon
D) R horizon
E) none of these answers
Q4) What are some of the important ecosystem services provided by grasslands?
Q5) What are some of the natural and human threats that grasslands currently face?
Q6) What is the greatest threat facing grasslands today?
A) global climate change
B) human-land use decisions
C) overgrazing
D) urbanization
E) pollution
Q7) Refer to Infographic 27.3. Discuss three characteristics many of those areas at highest risk of desertification have in common.
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Q8) How does undergrazing reduce the biodiversity of grasslands?
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) Forests remove ____________ from the atmosphere and release _____________ back into the atmosphere.
A) oxygen; carbon dioxide
B) carbon dioxide; oxygen
C) nitrogen gas; oxygen
D) nitrogen gas; carbon dioxide
E) carbon dioxide; nitrogen gas
Q2) Which statement is correct?
A) Fire suppression prevents destruction of forests in the long run.
B) Deforestation causes little change in the water supply of an area.
C) Subsistence farming can help prevent mass scale deforestation.
D) Roads going through forested areas have little effect on deforestation because people use them solely for transportation.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q3) You have been given the task of convincing a country to maintain its forests instead of converting them into large farms. What information would you present in your argument for keeping the forests?
Q4) How does the layering or stratification of forests contribute to overall animal biodiversity?
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a major threat to ocean ecosystems?
A) overfishing
B) plate tectonics
C) pollution
D) rising sea levels
E) invasive species
Q2) Why do ecologists consider coral reefs a keystone species?
Q3) What event can lead to coral bleaching?
A) pollution
B) acidification
C) high temperatures
D) salinity changes
E) all of these answers
Q4) Coral reefs are complex ecosystems with numerous interspecific interactions. Which of the following interactions is an example of commensalism?
A) clown fish and sea anemone
B) remora fish and manta ray
C) corals and zooxanthellae
D) sharks and tuna
E) octopus and crab
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Chapter 30:
Elements:
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 30.7, explain how the number of people an area of land can support varies with the meat content of their diet. What happens to that relationship when the total consumption of fat per day increases to 35% or more?
Q2) Describe why some scientists have suggested that feeding cattle a corn-rich diet has resulted in selecting for the development of E. coli strain O :H .
Q3) The __________________ refers to the amount of edible food that is produced per unit of feed input.
A) output per input ratio
B) feed conversion ratio
C) product per feed ratio
D) feed footprint
E) weight per time ratio
Q4) According to journalist and sustainable-food advocate Michael Pollan, "Cheap food is dishonestly priced. It is, in fact, unconscionably expensive." What does this mean for beef production and consumption in the United States, and what can be done about it?
Q5) What does it mean to "eat lower on the food chain?" How can it help make livestock production more sustainable?
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Soil and Grassland Resources
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Q1) Refer to the Marine Food Pyramid in Infographic 31.3. The overfishing of which trophic level would most greatly affect that ecosystem?
A) TL5
B) TL4
C) TL3
D) TL2
E) Overfishing of any level would have the same effect on the ecosystem.
Q2) The tragedy of the commons states that any resource to which a group of people have free access is likely to become ______ and degraded as each seeks to ______ personal benefit without consideration for the needs of others.
A) overexploited; minimize B) overexploited; maximize
C) underexploited; minimize
D) underexploited; maximize
E) bountiful; maximize
Q3) How can recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) address the environmental challenges posed by net pen and open pond aquaculture? What constrains RAS, given all these advantages?
Q4) How is aquaculture similar to a tree plantation?
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to Recovering the
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Q1) What are some of the concerns regarding the use of crops in biofuel production?
Q2) _____________ refers to the process where a plant absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and then stores carbon in its roots.
A) Carbon absorption
B) Carbon storing
C) Carbon loading
D) Carbon sequestration
E) None of these answers
Q3) Which of the following choices is FALSE regarding biodiesel production?
A) Biodiesel is mixed with water to capture impurities.
B) It is formed directly from its feedstock.
C) Feedstocks include vegetable oils, animal fats, or recycled greases.
D) It can be produced on small or large scales.
E) It is a multistep process.
Q4) List and describe at least five habits drivers can employ to maximize mileage and conserve energy.
Q5) List and describe at least three advantages and three disadvantages of biofuels.
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Q6) What are biofuels, and what are potential biofuel sources?
Q7) Explain the outcome of David Tilman's research and what it meant for biofuel crops.
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