Geriatric Nursing Practice Test Bank
Course Introduction
Geriatric Nursing Practice focuses on the specialized care of older adults, addressing the unique physiological, psychological, and social changes associated with aging. The course covers assessment techniques, common health problems, pharmacological considerations, and evidence-based interventions designed to promote optimal health, functionality, and quality of life for elderly patients. Students will explore geriatric syndromes, interdisciplinary collaboration, ethical issues, and strategies for enhancing communication with older adults and their families, preparing them for competent and compassionate nursing care in diverse settings.
Recommended Textbook
Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults 1st Edition by Laurie Kennedy Malone
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19 Chapters
312 Verified Questions
312 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3891
Page 2
Chapter 1: Changes With Aging
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77498
Sample Questions
Q1) The major impact of the physiological changes that occur with aging is:
A) Reduced physiological reserve
B) Reduced homeostatic mechanisms
C) Impaired immunological response
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) All the following statements are false about drug absorption except:
A) Antacids increase the bioavailability of digitalis
B) Gastric acidity decreases with age
C) Anticholinergics increase colonic motility
D) Underlying chronic disease has little impact on drug absorption
Answer: D
Q3) Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation of drugs and this is thought to be due to:
A) Less obesity rates than women
B) Prostate enlargement
C) Testosterone
D) Less estrogen than women
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Health Promotion
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77497
Sample Questions
Q1) The four main domains of clinical preventive services that the practitioner will provide are:
A) Counseling interventions,screening tests,immunizations,and chemoprophylaxis
B) Counseling intervention,screening tests,immunizations,and education
C) Counseling interventions,transportation,screening tests,and immunizations
D) Screening tests,brief psychotherapy,immunizations,and chemoprophylaxis
Answer: A
Q2) Ivan W.is a 65-year-old man who is new to your practice.He has a history of COPD,CAD,hypertension,and type 2 diabetes mellitus.He has had no immunizations since his discharge from the military at age 25.Childhood diseases included chickenpox,measles,mumps,and "German measles." He presents for a disease management visit.Which of the following immunizations would you recommend for Ivan?
A) MMR,influenza,pneumococcal,Zostavax
B) Influenza,pneumococcal,PPD,Hepatitis B
C) Tdap,pneumococcal,influenza,Zostavax
D) Hepatitis B,influenza,pneumococcal,Hepatitis A
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Exercise in Older Adults
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77496
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medical conditions is not considered restrictive for engaging in physical activity?
A) Unstable angina
B) Dehydration
C) Depression
D) Uncontrolled tachycardia
Answer: C
Q2) When the nurse practitioner recommends exercise for a sedentary older adult,which of the following pieces of advice should be considered for all types of exercise?
A) Only use equipment recommended by physical trainers
B) Start low and go slow
C) Only group exercise is beneficial to someone who has not been active in a long time
D) Focus only on one type of exercise for the first few months
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77495
Sample Questions
Q1) A review of the evidence relative to screening of the elderly reveals the highest evidence rating for:
A) Vision screening
B) Mammography screening
C) Hearing screening
D) Dementia screening
Q2) What is reflective of functional decline in older adults?
A) Functional decline is synonymous with advanced age.
B) Some individuals die of "old age" but have maintained an active and healthy lifestyle.
C) Instrumental activities of daily living are preserved longer than activities of daily living.
D) It is always possible to prevent functional deterioration.
Q3) The evidence reflects that comprehensive geriatric assessment should be conducted:
A) On all individuals 65 and older
B) On all individuals 75 and older
C) By an inter-disciplinary team of professionals
D) Targeting the vulnerable and frail elderly
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Chapter 5: Symptoms and Syndromes
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77494
Sample Questions
Q1) Presbystasis is best described as:
A) Impairment in vestibular apparatus that causes dizziness
B) Age-related disequilibrium of unknown pathology characterized by a gradual onset of difficulty walking
C) The loss of high frequency tones with aging that can impair sensation
D) A disorder of the inner ear characterized by vertigo
Q2) The anal wink reflex is used to test:
A) Rectal prolapse
B) Sensation and pudental nerve function
C) Baseline and squeeze sphincter tone
D) Fissures and fistulas
Q3) Medications known to contribute to constipation include all of the following except:
A) Stimulant laxatives
B) Anticholinergic drugs
C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
D) Iron
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Chapter 6: Skin and Lymphatic Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In examining the skin of your nursing home patient,you note a "stained glass" brownish mark on the face.Which of the following lesions best describes a stained glass brownish mark?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrhea keratosis
C) Lentigo maligna
D) Superficial spreading malignant melanoma
Q2) Which of the following descriptions best illustrates assessment findings consistent with tinea capitis?
A) Circular erythematous patches with papular,scaly annular borders and clear centers
B) Inflamed scaly dry patches with broken hairs
C) Web lesions with erythema and scaling borders
D) Scaly pruritic erythematous lesions on inguinal creases
Q3) Which of the following is generally not a first-line treatment for post herpetic neuralgia?
A) Intrathecal methylprednisolone
B) Gabapentin
C) 5% lidocaine patch
D) Topical capsaicin
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Head, neck, and Face Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77492
Sample Questions
Q1) A 64-year-old male presents with erythema of the sclera,tearing,and bilateral pruritus of the eyes.The symptoms occur intermittently throughout the year and he has associated clear nasal discharge.Which of the following is most likely because of the inflammation?
A) Bacterium
B) Allergen
C) Virus
D) Fungi
Q2) Which of the following conditions is the leading cause of blindness in the United States?
A) Macular degeneration
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Glaucoma
D) Cataracts
Q3) The nurse practitioner knows that antihistamines work primarily through which of the following mechanisms?
A) Vasodilatation
B) Blocking leukotriene effects
C) Inhibiting histamine receptor sites
D) Vasoconstriction
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Chapter 8: Chest Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77491
Sample Questions
Q1) Which test is the clinical standard for the assessment of aortic stenosis?
A) Cardiac catheterization
B) Stress test
C) Chest x-ray
D) Echocardiography
Q2) Ischemic heart disease is:
A) Defined as imbalance between oxygen supply and demand.
B) Frequently is manifested as angina.
C) Leading cause of death in the elderly.
D) All of the above.
Q3) The best way to diagnose structural heart disease/dysfunction non-invasively is:
A) Chest x-ray
B) EKG
C) Echocardiogram
D) Heart catheterization
Q4) In mitral stenosis,p waves may suggest:
A) Left atrial enlargement
B) Right atrial enlargement
C) Left ventricle enlargement
D) Right ventricle enlargement
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Chapter 9: Peripheral Vascular Disorders
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77490
Sample Questions
Q1) Known risk factors for lymphedema include all of the following except:
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Obesity
D) Venous ulcer disease
Q2) An early symptom of peripheral artery disease is:
A) Painful cramping of muscles during walking
B) Pain is worse when the legs are dependent below the level of the heart
C) Pain intensifies after vigorous walking is stopped
D) Ulceration or gangrene occurs at the sight of minor injury
Q3) The major cause of death after an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair is:
A) AAA rupture
B) Hemorrhage
C) Renal failure
D) Myocardial infarction
Q4) The best initial screening test for abdominal aortic aneurysm is:
A) Angiography
B) CT scan with IV contrast
C) Abdominal ultrasound
D) MRI
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Chapter 10: Abdominal Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77489
Sample Questions
Q1) In differentiating a gastric ulcer from a duodenal ulcer,you know that each type of ulcer can present with distinct signs and symptoms.Which of the following pieces of information from the patient's history is the least useful for you to determine that the patient has a duodenal ulcer?
A) Pain occurs on an empty stomach
B) Diffuse epigastric pain
C) Rarely associated with non-steroidal use
D) Occurs in patients under 40 years of age
Q2) A clinical clue for suspected renal artery stenosis would be:
A) Decreased urine output
B) Development of resistant hypertension in a previously well-controlled patient
C) Retroperitoneal pain on the affected side
D) Rising BUN level with normal creatinine level
Q3) Which of the following findings would indicate a need for another endoscopy in clients with peptic ulcer disease?
A) Cases of dyspepsia with constipation
B) Symptoms persisting after 6-8 weeks of therapy
C) All clients with dyspepsia who smoke and drink alcohol
D) When a therapeutic response to empiric treatment is obtained
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Urological and Gynecological Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77488
Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Jones is a 68-year-old retired Air Force pilot that has been diagnosed with prostate cancer in the past week.He has never had a surgical procedure in his life and seeks clarification on the availability of treatments for prostate cancer.He asks the nurse practitioner to tell him the side effects of a radical prostatectomy.Which of the following is NOT a potential side effect of this procedure?
A) Urinary incontinence
B) Impotence
C) Dribbling urine
D) Selected low back pain
Q2) The nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient's pelvic muscle strength by digital examination.This is performed when:
A) A male patient complains of nocturia and dribbling
B) The nurse practitioner needs to confirm a cystocele or stress incontinence
C) The patient reports sudden loss of large amounts of urine or urge incontinence
D) The nurse practitioner suspects overflow incontinence
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13
Chapter 12: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77487
Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate first-line treatment for an acute gout flare is (assuming no kidney disease or elevated bleeding risk):
A) Indomethacin 50 mg TID for 2 days;then 25 mg TID for 3 days
B) Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 5 days
C) Prednisolone 35 mg QD for 5 days
D) Ice therapy
Q2) Which of the following best describes the pain associated with osteoarthritis?
A) Constant,burning,and throbbing with an acute onset?
B) Dull and primarily affected by exposure to cold and barometric pressure
C) Begins upon arising and after prolonged weight bearing and/or use of the joint
D) Begins in the morning but decreases with activity
Q3) Joint effusions typically occur later in the course of OA,especially in the:
A) Knee
B) Elbow
C) DIP joints
D) Hips
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14
Chapter 13: Central and Peripheral Nervous System Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77486
Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly patient has had a CVA in the anterior cerebral circulatory system (frontal lobe).What symptoms are most likely expressed?
A) Neglect of body and difficulty organizing space
B) Wernicke's aphasia (difficulty understanding speech)
C) Disorders of behavior and cognition
D) Bilateral motor and sensory problem
Q2) An older male patient is experiencing acute onset of right-sided weakness,slurred speech,and confusion.What should the nurse practitioner do promptly?
A) Administer an aspirin by mouth
B) Evaluate for stroke and arrange transport to the hospital right away
C) Do a thorough medication review and stat blood sugar
D) Order an EKG and administer O<sub>2</sub> by cannula immediately
Q3) A middle-aged patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease.What influences the nurse practitioner's decision to begin pharmacological treatment for this patient?
A) Intentional tremors
B) Gait instability requiring use of a cane
C) Symptoms interfering with functional ability
D) Medications initiated at first sign of unilateral involvement
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Endocrine, metabolic, and Nutritional Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77485
Sample Questions
Q1) Six months ago an elderly patient was diagnosed with subclinical hypothyroidism.Today the patient returns and has a TSH of 11.0 and complains of fatigue.He has taken Synthroid 25 mcg daily as prescribed.What is the best course of action for the nurse practitioner?
A) Assess further for a cause of fatigue
B) Double the dose of Synthroid
C) Discontinue the Synthroid
D) Prescribe Liotrix (T3 & T4 combination)
Q2) Feeding gastrostomy tubes at end-of-life Alzheimer's disease patients have been associated with:
A) Prolongation of life
B) Aspirational pneumonia
C) Increase in skin infections
D) Reversal of any clinical signs of failure to thrive
Q3) Which of the following nutritional indicators is not an indication of poor nutritional status in an older person?
A) Albumin of < 3.5 g/dl
B) Body mass index of 25
C) Total cholesterol < 150 mg/dl
D) Loss of 10% body weight in 180 days
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Chapter 15: Hematological and Immune System Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77484
Sample Questions
Q1) The pathophysiological hallmark of ACD is:
A) Depleted iron stores
B) Impaired ability to use iron stores
C) Chronic uncorrectable bleeding
D) Reduced intestinal absorption of iron
Q2) Contributing factors in HIV development in the older adult include all of the following except:
A) Older adults are less likely to be tested
B) Healthcare providers do not routinely ask older adults about HIV risks
C) Older adults are less likely to use condoms
D) Older adults are at low risk to contract HIV
Q3) In the older adult,which group comprises the highest rate of HIV/AIDS?
A) African American women
B) African American men
C) Hispanic women
D) Hispanic men
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Chapter 16: Psychological Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77483
Sample Questions
Q1) The comorbid psychiatric problem with the highest frequency in dementia is:
A) Anxiety
B) Depression
C) Agitation and aggression
D) Psychosis
Q2) The elderly are at high risk for delirium because of:
A) Multisensory declines
B) Polypharmacy
C) Multiple medical problems
D) All of the above
Q3) Of the following,which one is the most useful clinical evaluation tool to assist in the diagnosis of dementia?
A) Folstein's Mini-Mental Status Exam (MMSE)
B) St.Louis University Mental Status Exam (SLUMS)
C) Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)
D) Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS)
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Chapter 17: Nutritional Support in the Older Adult
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77482
Sample Questions
Q1) An 87-year-old female previously independent comes to the ER with 2 days of difficulty swallowing,productive cough,and dyspnea.History includes hypertension and atrial fibrillation.She has a low-grade fever and increased blood pressure.Physical examination and chest radiography are consistent with consolidation in left lower lobe.On bedside testing,she immediately sputters and coughs after drinking a small amount of water from a cup.There are no other neurological signs.Labs: Mild dehydration and WBC increased.MRI reveals a new small brain-stem infarction and mild generalized cerebral atrophy.Treatment for aspiration pneumonia is instituted.Five days later a speech therapy consult was ordered to evaluate swallowing.No improvement has been noted and formal evaluation shows aspiration with most consistencies of food and liquid.Which of the following is the best recommendation?
A) Careful oral feeding
B) Hospice
C) Gastrostomy feeding
D) Nasogastric feeding
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Chapter 18: Chronic Illness and the Advanced Practice
Registered Nurse Aprn
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77481
Sample Questions
Q1) The percentage of non-institutionalized elderly over age 75 with limitations in activity due to a chronic condition is:
A) 25%
B) Nearly 50%
C) Over 75%
D) Less than 15%
Q2) Long durations of a chronic illness that are most commonly associated in both women and men are:
A) Heart disease and obesity
B) Diabetes and COPD
C) Arthritis and dementia
D) Dyslipidemia and eye disease
Q3) All of the following statements are true about chronic disease/illness except:
A) Chronic disease is defined as a condition that requires both modification by the patient along with interaction with the provider
B) The meaning of chronic illness includes the experience of the patient and family and provider
C) Chronic illness is reversible if diagnosed and treated early
D) Chronic conditions are those that last a year or longer
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Palliative Care and End-Of-Life Care
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77480
Sample Questions
Q1) The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:
A) Acknowledge the reality of death
B) Work through the pain of grief
C) Begin to disengage
D) Restructure relationships
Q2) The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A) Opioids for pain control
B) Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C) Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D) Opioids for dyspnea
Q3) The best description of complicated grief is:
A) Chronic,delayed,exaggerated,masked,or disenfranchised
B) Experience of shock during notification of the death
C) When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one
D) A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one
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