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Geosciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the dynamic systems of the Earth, encompassing the study of its structure, composition, processes, and history. This course delves into the physical, chemical, and biological aspects of the planet, examining phenomena such as plate tectonics, earthquakes, volcanoes, the rock cycle, Earth's surface processes, resources, and environmental change. Students will gain an understanding of how natural processes shape the Earth, how humans interact with their environment, and the methods used to address pressing geological and environmental challenges. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and fieldwork, learners will develop critical analytical and observational skills essential for careers in environmental science, geology, resource management, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Geosystems An Introduction to Physical Geography 9th Edition by Robert W. Christopherson
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Q1) Remote sensing is
A) a subjective determination of temperature.
B) the monitoring of a distant object without physical contact.
C) an earthbound technique not used in modern satellites.
D) based on the principle that surfaces must be physically handled and directly measured for study.
Answer: B
Q2) If you were standing at 20° north latitude you would be within which latitudinal geographic zone?
A) tropical
B) midlatitude
C) equatorial
D) subarctic
E) subtropical
Answer: A
Q3) Longitude measures distances east or west of a prime meridian on Earth's surface.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) While standing at the Tropic of Cancer, Emma's shadow points north at noon (Sun time). Based on this, which of the following can be definitely concluded?
A) It must be the summer solstice.
B) It must be the winter solstice.
C) It must be one of the equinoxes.
D) It must not be the summer solstice.
E) It must not be the winter solstice.
Answer: D
Q2) The Tropic of Capricorn refers to
A) that parallel that is 23.5° south latitude.
B) the location of the subsolar point on September 22.
C) the parallel that is the farthest northern location for the subsolar point during the year.
D) that parallel that is 66.5° south latitude.
Answer: A
Q3) What primary factors determine the seasons on Earth?
Answer: The Earth's revolution around the sun; the Earth's rotation on its axis; the Earth's axial tilt; axial parallelism; and the Earth's sphericity.
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Q1) Pollution generated in one country can cause problems in other countries.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Photochemical smog results from the interaction of sunlight with the combustion products of automobiles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Sources of natural variable pollutants and materials include all of the following except
A) volcanoes.
B) forest fires.
C) plants and decaying plants.
D) industrial activity.
Answer: D
Q4) What have been some of the significant achievements of the Clean Air Act?
Answer: Significant reductions in atmospheric pollution, direct economic benefits, has saved lives, etc.
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Q1) Low, thick stratus clouds have little effect on the Earth's climate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a nonradiative transfer of longwave radiation to the atmosphere?
A) The greenhouse effect.
B) Latent heat transfer.
C) Stratospheric ozone radiation.
D) Conduction from the surface.
Q3) Describe the energy pathways of insolation as it enters the Earth's atmosphere.
Q4) If the surface of Earth were to suddenly turn white, the temperature of the planet would ________ because ________ insolation would be absorbed.
A) decrease; less
B) decrease; more
C) increase; less
D) increase; more
Q5) What does "albedo" mean? Discuss the albedo of different surfaces including several not explicitly discussed in the textbook.
Q6) Describe the different methods of heat transfer.
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Q1) Air pressure decreases with increased elevation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In general, as distance from the subsolar point increases, the average annual insolation ________ and the average annual temperature ________. A) increases; increases B) increases; decreases C) decreases; increases D) decreases; decreases
Q3) To date, the warmest summer on record in the U.S. occurred in A) 1974.
B) 1838.
C) 2012
D) 2001.
Q4) Discuss how latitude, altitude/elevation, cloud cover, and land-water heating differences can influence global temperature patterns.
Q5) Compare and contrast the wind-chill factor and the heat index.
Q6) Why do continental locations usually have greater extremes of temperature than do maritime locations at the same latitude?
Page 7
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Q1) Air flow is initiated by the A) Coriolis force.
B) pressure gradient force.
C) friction force.
D) centrifugal force.
Q2) The polar high is more pronounced over ________ because ________.
A) The Arctic; greater landmass
B) The Antarctic; greater landmass
C) The Arctic; colder ocean waters
D) The Antarctic; colder ocean waters
Q3) Monsoonal winds are
A) katabatic in nature.
B) regional wind systems that seasonally vary.
C) limited to the Indian subcontinent.
D) a form of mountain-valley wind.
Q4) The Coriolis force makes wind traveling in a straight path appear to be deflected in relationship to the Earth's rotation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the characteristics of Northern Hemisphere jet streams.
Page 8
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Q1) ________ occurs when the relative humidity is 100%.
A) Saturation
B) Evaporation
C) Sublimation
D) Deposition
Q2) The movement of water throughout the atmosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere is known as the
A) biogeochemical cycle.
B) hydroflux.
C) capillary movement.
D) hydrologic cycle.
Q3) The wet adiabatic rate is ________ than the dry adiabatic rate because
A) greater; condensation heats the air
B) greater; condensation cools the air
C) less; condensation heats the air
D) less; condensation cools the air
Q4) A stable air parcel resists upward displacement.
A)True
B)False

Page 9
Q5) Define and distinguish between relative humidity and specific humidity.
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Q1) Which of the following was the deadliest Atlantic hurricane of the last 100 years?
A) Hurricane Mitch
B) Hurricane Bonnie
C) Hurricane Andrew
D) Hurricane Camille
Q2) Hail forms
A) when water falls from a cloud and freezes during its fall to the ground.
B) every time water condenses onto dust particles.
C) from repeated circulation of raindrops above and below the freezing level in a cloud.
D) when water vapor sublimates (deposits) inside a cirrus cloud.
Q3) Cyclones in the southern Indian Ocean usually occur between
A) November and May.
B) April and December.
C) June and October.
D) August and December.
Q4) Examine the typical conditions that spawn hurricanes in the Atlantic. Describe the physical characteristics of a hurricane and examine why it can be so devastating to land.
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Q1) Outgassing refers to
A) changes in the total amount of water on Earth through evapotranspiration.
B) a steady-state equilibrium in the water system caused by cycles of evaporation and condensation.
C) the dynamic equilibrium between surface and ocean water.
D) process in which water and water vapor emerge from deep layers within and below the Earth's crust.
Q2) Precipitation that falls directly to the ground is known as A) throughfall.
B) overland flow.
C) infiltration.
D) stem flow.
Q3) Water is a renewable resource, constantly cycling through the environment in the hydrologic cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The upper limit of the zone of saturation is known as the water table.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the hydrological cycle, including its different components.
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Q1) Weather and climate are essentially different terms for the same phenomenon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following characterizes a tropical savanna climate?
A) It experiences a summer wet season, and is dominated by the ITCZ for nearly 12 months of the year.
B) The sun's direct rays are overhead (subsolar point) are overhead twice each year.
C) All months receive precipitation in excess of 6 cm (2.4 in.).
D) Its annual temperature variability is less than that of the tropical rain forest.
Q3) A climograph is a mechanical instrument used for measuring climates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A climate classification based on moisture using a water budget approach is an example of a(n)
A) empirical classification.
B) genetic classification.
C) combined classification.
Q5) Construct a climograph for your city or town.
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Q1) Which of the following accurately describes ¹ O/¹ O ratios of the worlds oceans?
A) Because ¹ O evaporates more readily than ¹ O, the oceans have a higher relative abundance of ¹ O during warm periods and a more balanced ratio when there is less evaporation.
B) The higher the ratio of oceanic ¹ O/¹ O, the warmer the temperatures because the ¹ O will have been mostly evaporated from ocean waters.
C) During periods of colder temperature ¹ O is locked up in snow and ice and the oceans have a higher preponderance of ¹ O; during warmer periods the isotope ratio is lower.
D) The ¹ O/¹ O ratio is low during colder temperatures because temperatures are too low for evaporation to be effective and both isotopes remain in the ocean.
Q2) While GCMs are useful for visualization the complex global oceanic-atmosphere circulation, they have had little utility in the study of climate change.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To study past climates, scientists use direct measurements.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Felsic igneous rock, such as granite and rhyolite,
A) have dark coloration.
B) are not resistant to weathering.
C) have a high melting temperature.
D) are high in silicate minerals.
Q2) A rock transformed from any other rock through extreme heat and or pressure is referred to as
A) sedimentary.
B) metamorphic.
C) igneous.
D) ancient.
Q3) Which of the following can occur when seismic waves encounter a layer in Earth's interior?
A) reflection and/or refraction
B) absorption
C) change in speed
D) reflection, refraction, absorption, and change in speed.
E) seismic waves cannot penetrate below the crust of Earth
Q4) Diagram and label the three types of plate boundaries.
Q5) Describe the important aspects of the formation and breakup of Pangaea.
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Q1) An effusive eruption ________, whereas an explosive eruption ________.
A) is an outpouring of low-viscosity magma onto the ground; is a violent explosion of magma, gas, and pyroclastics
B) produces composite volcanoes; produces shield volcanoes
C) is a violent explosion of magma, gas, and pyroclastics; produces shield volcanoes
D) produces composite volcanoes; is an outpouring of low-viscosity magma onto the ground
Q2) Lava plateaus, such as the Columbia River Plateau, are formed from ________ magma which has a ________ viscosity.
A) granitic; high
B) granitic; low
C) basaltic; high
D) basaltic; low
Q3) The measurement of land elevations relative to sea level is known as hypsometry.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Orogens are markably well correlated with the plate tectonics model.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Physical weathering dominates in warm, wet climates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hydration does not result in the formation of new chemical compounds, whereas hydrolis produces a different mineral through a chemical reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A slow persistent mass movement of surface soil is called
A) a debris avalanche.
B) soil creep.
C) a soil slide.
D) a rockfall.
Q4) After a threshold is crossed, the landscape
A) remains unstable thereafter.
B) adjusts to a new equilibrium condition.
C) looks identical to the landscape that existed prior to the crossing of the threshold.
D) returns to the conditions that existed prior to the crossing the threshold.
Q5) Describe the factors influencing the weathering process.
Q6) List and describe the various classes of mass movement.
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Q1) Stream velocity is often measured for different subsections of a stream cross section using a moveable current meter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As they migrate, meandering streams erode their out outside banks, often forming a narrow neck of land that eventually erodes through and forms a ________ and the stream becomes ________.
A) meander scar; narrower
B) cutoff; straighter
C) cutback; more sinuous
D) point bar; wider
Q3) In most river basins in humid regions, discharge is highest
A) upstream.
B) downstream.
C) midstream.
D) at the headwaters.
Q4) Describe the formation of deltas.
Q5) A braided stream is indicative of excess sedimentation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The artificial replacement of sand along a beach is called
A) groins.
B) beach nourishment.
C) jetties.
D) breakwater.
Q2) An atoll is approximately ________ in shape because it forms ________.
A) circular; around seastacks
B) circular; around submerged volcanic islands
C) linear; along barrier islands
D) linear; along continental shorelines
Q3) Barrier islands can migrate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A longshore current involves all of the following except
A) effective wind direction.
B) effective wave direction.
C) waves of transition.
D) transportation of large amounts of sand and coastal materials.
Page 18
Q5) Describe the physical composition of seawater.
Q6) Describe the three main zones of the ocean.
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Q1) Frozen subsurface water in regions of permafrost is called
A) talik.
B) the active layer.
C) ground ice.
D) periglacial water.
Q2) A glacier behaves more like a plastic than a rigid body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is evidence of recent changes in polar regions?
A) decrease in Arctic sea-ice volume
B) ice sheet darkening
C) increase in meltponds
D) the breakup of ice shelves
E) decrease in sea ice volume, ice sheet darkening, increased meltponds, and ice shelves calving are all evidence of recent changes in polar regions
Q4) Drumlins and kettles are examples of alpine glacial landforms.
A)True
B)False

Page 20
Q5) Describe the process by which snow becomes glacial ice.
Q6) Describe the importance of periglacial processes.
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Q1) Mollisols are widespread in the United States. occurring throughout the Great Plains region.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the five primary soil-forming factors?
A) topography
B) climate
C) human activity
D) biological activity
E) parent material
Q3) Soil structure can be defined as which of the following?
A) crumb or granular
B) platy
C) blocky
D) prismatic
E) crumb or granular, platy, blocky, or prismatic are all type of soil structure
Q4) Pedology is concerned with the practical use of a soils as a medium for plant growth.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Continental drift separating a once continuous population is an example of A) Lamarckian evolution
B) punctuated equilibrium
C) mutation
D) vicariance
Q2) The specific, unique role that a species performs within a given area is known as a(n)
A) ecotone.
B) habitat.
C) community.
D) niche.
Q3) According to the competitive exclusion principle, no two species can occupy the same niche.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A stable ecosystem is one that is not undergoing any change.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is biodiversity? How does biodiversity arise. Why is biodiversity important.
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Q1) The subdiscipline of biogeography that utilizes biogeographic principles, theories, and analyses to solve problems in biodiversity management is known as
A) island biogeography.
B) phylogenetic biogeography.
C) conservation biogeography.
D) historical biogeography.
Q2) Which of the following is not a regional name for the Mediterranean shrubland biome?
A) chaparral
B) maquis
C) taiga
D) mattoral
Q3) Moist continental climates support several distinct communities of needleleaf, broadleaf, and mixed forests in this biome found in North America, Europe, and Asia.
A) tropical savanna
B) midlatitude broadleaf and mixed forest
C) tropical rain forest
D) midlatitude grassland
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