Geoscience Fundamentals
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Geoscience Fundamentals introduces students to the foundational concepts and methods used to study the Earth. The course covers topics such as the structure and composition of Earth's materials, plate tectonics, geological processes, Earth's history, and the interactions between the geosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere.
Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, data analysis, and field and laboratory techniques essential for geoscientific investigation. Students gain a comprehensive understanding of how Earth's systems operate and change over time, laying the groundwork for more advanced studies in geology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Earth Science 1st Edition by Stephen Marshak
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Chapter 1: The Earth in Context
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Q1) A substance is NOT required to __________ to be considered a mineral.
A)be solid
B)be naturally occurring
C)contain carbon.
D)have atoms arranged in an orderly pattern
Answer: C
Q2) During a journey to the center of Earth, one would experience temperature __________ and pressure __________ .
A)increasing; increasing
B)decreasing; decreasing C)increasing; staying nearly the same
D)remaining remarkably constant; increasing
Answer: A
Q3) Compared with our sun, first-generation stars tend to be __________ in mass and
A)larger; cooler
B)larger; hotter
C)smaller; cooler
D)smaller; hotter
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Way the Earth Works: Plate Tectonics
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Q1) Which of these parts of the deep-ocean floor is flat and nearly featureless?
A)ridge axis
B)abyssal plain
C)guyot
D)trench
Answer: B
Q2) The thickness of oceanic lithosphere is
A)nearly uniformly 100 km.
B)greatest at the geographic poles and least near the equator.
C)greatest near the mid-ocean ridges and thins out away from the ridges.
D)least near the mid-ocean ridges and thickens away from the ridges.
Answer: D
Q3) Seafloor spreading is driven by volcanic activity
A)in the middle of abyssal plains.
B)along mid-ocean ridges.
C)at the edges of continental shelves.
D)along fracture zones.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Patterns in Nature: Minerals
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Q1) Calcite (CaCO ) is in which mineral class?
A)silicates
B) carbonates
C)oxides
D)sulfides
Answer: B
Q2) Some physical properties are more useful for identifying certain minerals than others. Explain how color can be useful to identify some minerals but not others. Be sure to use mineral examples in your answer.
Answer: Some minerals, like olivine, are always the same color. However, other minerals, such as quartz, come in a variety of colors, and thus color is not a useful physical property to use to identify quartz.
Q3) What type of rock forms when preexisting rocks undergo changes in response to a modification of their environment, without first melting?
A)igneous rocks
B)sedimentary rocks
C)metamorphic rocks
D)meteorites
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Up From the Inferno: Magma and Igneous Rocks
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Q1) Volcanoes that are not currently erupting but have erupted in the last 10,000 years and are likely to erupt again are termed __________ .
A)dormant
B)active
C)extinct
D)suspended
Q2) What are the ways in which geoscientists can monitor volcanoes? Is it possible for scientists to predict eruptions?
Q3) Columnar jointing forms primarily because of __________
A)Contraction and cracking of rock during the cooling process
B)Changes in density of the material as it cools
C)Partial remelting of lava on the surface
D)Fragmentation of the rock due to volatile escape
Q4) Felsic igneous rocks typically __________ .
A)contain more iron and magnesium than intermediate rocks
B)are lighter in color than mafic rocks
C)are darker in color than mafic rocks
D)are found in oceanic crust
Q5) What are some of the main volcanic hazards?
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Chapter 5: A Surface Veneer: Sediments and Sedimentary
Rocks
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Q1) Describe the difference between lithification and diagenesis.
Q2) If a geologist finds thick accumulations of fossiliferous limestone, in what type of basin might they have been formed?
A)passive-margin
B)intracontinental
C)rift
D)foreland
Q3) Lithification, the process by which sediments are turned into sedimentary rocks, includes
A)erosion and transportation.
B)transportation and cementation.
C)erosion and deposition.
D)compaction and cementation.
Q4) Geologists call individual layers of sedimentary rocks _________, whereas several of them together are called __________.
A)beds; strata
B)strata; beds
C)laminations; graded beds
D)graded beds; laminations
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Chapter 6: A Process of Change: Metamorphism and the Rock Cycle
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Q1) In the formation of gneiss (from a granite protolith), distinctive compositional bands form because of
A)crystals migrating within the rock.
B)crystals dissolving, with atoms and ions migrating and reorganizing as new crystals.
C)crystals melting, with new crystals solidifying in color bands.
D)chemical reactions with groundwater.
Q2) Mylonites, formed from dynamic metamorphism, typically do NOT display A)foliation roughly parallel to a fault.
B)very fine grains.
C)shear zones.
D)bands of randomly oriented mica grains.
Q3) Change that takes place during metamorphism that is associated with hot water solutions (hydrothermal fluids) is termed A)foliation.
B)metasomatism.
C)anachronism.
D)hydrosomatism
Q4) Describe the resulting metamorphism that occurs next to an igneous intrusion.
Q5) Describe how the rock cycle is linked to plate tectonics.
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Chapter 7: Crags, Cracks, and Crumples: Crustal
Deformation and Mountain Building
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Q1) Metamorphic rocks found in cratons are exposed during orogenesis by A)faulting.
B)folding.
C)shields.
D)erosion.
Q2) What types of geologic structures would you expect to find in an area that had undergone compression?
Q3) What are the three components of deformation? Briefly explain each.
Q4) Under which of the following conditions would a body of rock be more likely to exhibit plastic behavior?
A)low temperature
B)high temperature
C)low pressure
D)high rate of deformation
Q5) As the mountains in a mountain range are slowly eroded, the crustal root
A)is eroded at the same rate.
B)remains stationary.
C)sinks deeper into the mantle.
D)rises out of the mantle.
Page 9
Q6) What is the ultimate fate of all mountains on Earth?
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Chapter 8: A Violent Pulse: Earthquakes
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Q1) According to the moment magnitude scale (Mw), a magnitude 8 earthquake would be 1,000 times greater than a magnitude ___________ earthquake.
A)9
B)5
C)7
D)4
Q2) Making better ___________ is the best way to try to prevent earthquake damage.
A)seismometers
B)magnitude scales
C)buildings
D)seismograms
Q3) Why is an early warning system NOT considered a short-term earthquake prediction tool?
Q4) The point within Earth where an earthquake takes place is termed the A)focus.
B)epicenter.
C)eye of the fault.
D)vertex.
Q5) Compare and contrast P- and S-waves.
Q6) What is the Moho? How was it discovered?
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Chapter 9: Deep Time: How Old Is Old
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Q1) A geologist in South Dakota finds an assemblage of dinosaur bones in an outcrop for the Hilltown Formation, and his colleague in China discovers an assemblage of bones from a different dinosaur in the Liaoning Formation. What can be said about the two formations?
A)They are no younger than Cretaceous in age.
B)They are no older than Jurassic.
C)They are the exact same age.
D)They are no younger than Triassic in age.
Q2) Your friend the archaeologist, who studies the ancient human past, has asked you to find a numerical date for some hominid artifacts found buried by ash from a volcanic eruption. To do this, you can use carbon-14 dating, which has a half-life of 5,730 years, or uranium-238, which has a half-life of 4.5 billion years. Based on their half-lives, which isotopic dating system will give your friend the most accurate numerical age? Explain.
Q3) How is a relative age different from a numerical age? How are each of these determined?
Q4) Discuss what the numerical age represents when radiometrically dating a basalt, a gneiss, and a quartz sandstone.
Q5) Why have no rocks older than 4.12 Ga been found in Earth's crust?
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Chapter 10: A Biography of Earth
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Q1) The Hadean was a time in Earth history when
A)the first abundant shelly organisms appeared in the fossil record.
B)Earth's interior was so hot that a solid outer crust was quickly remelted.
C)stable continental interiors, termed cratons, first formed.
D)the dinosaurs appeared and came to dominate large-scale terrestrial life.
Q2) Describe the circumstances that led to the formation of true continental crust during the Archean.
Q3) Why are rocks formed before 3.85 Ga so rare?
Q4) Banded iron formations (BIFs) show evidence of an
A)oxygen-poor atmosphere because all of the oxygen was dissolved into the oceans and then precipitated as iron-oxide minerals.
B)acidic ocean that forced iron to bond with the oxygen in the water to form iron-oxide minerals.
C)oxygen-poor ocean because all the oxygen was trapped in the iron-oxide minerals that make up the formation.
D)oxygen-rich atmosphere that forced the oceans to become oxidizing and precipitate iron-oxide minerals.
Q5) What caused the buildup of oxygen in the atmosphere at roughly 2.5 Ga?
Q6) Why have some researchers suggested the use of the term Anthropocene?
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Riches in Rock: Energy and Mineral Resources
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Q1) Explain how coal forms and how this process is different from the ones that yield oil and gas.
Q2) In a nuclear reactor, failure of control rods may cause the system to become too hot and melt down because the control rods absorb ____________ and thus decrease the number of atoms undergoing ____________.
A)radiation; decay
B)radiation; fusion
C)neutrons; fission
D)neutrons; fusion
Q3) Coal is formed when heat and pressure alter deposits of ancient A)kerogen.
B)plankton.
C)terrestrial plants
D)tar.
Q4) Chemically, oil and gas are both A)pure forms of carbon. B)carbohydrates.
C)hydrocarbons.
D)carbonate minerals.
Q5) What are biofuels? Identify some examples of biofuels.
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Q1) You are a geologist trying to determine if the slope on which your client's house sits is stable. You determine that the angle of repose of the hillside is 35 degrees. You could consider the slope stable if it is composed of
A)saturated sand.
B)dry sand.
C)saturated gravel.
D)dry gravel.
Q2) What type of mass movement would you expect to form in a steep-walled canyon?
A)avalanche
B)rock fall
C)slump
D)lahar
Q3) Moisture among sediment grains
A)always increases the likelihood of mass wasting.
B)always decreases the likelihood of mass wasting.
C)can promote stability if present in small amounts.
D)can promote stability if the grains are saturated.
Q4) What type(s) of energy control(s) erosion? Explain your answer.
Page 15
Q5) What is a landform and how is it linked to the landscape?
Q6) How can water play a role in slope stability and slope failure?
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Chapter 13: Freshwater: Streams, Lakes, and Groundwater
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Q1) List and describe one possible effect from overpumping.
Q2) Ultimately geysers erupt because of the
A)periodic opening and closing of a fracture.
B)mixing of hot and cold water to form steam.
C)decrease in pressure as water rises.
D)increase in pressure from the hot water.
Q3) What physical property of the underlying rock would lead to the formation of a cliff over which a waterfall may form?
A)a high resistance to erosion
B)high porosity
C)large permeability
D)very fine grain sizes
Q4) How do geologists distinguish between a natural lake and a reservoir?
A)Reservoirs can become a natural lake over time.
B)Natural lakes can provide areas on recreational activities but a reservoir cannot.
C)Natural lakes are where Earth's surface is relatively higher and can provide surface runoff.
D)Reservoirs are lakes that have been trapped by the construction of a dam or retaining wall.
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Chapter 14: Extreme Realms: Desert and Glacial Landscapes
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Q1) Imagine a flat, thick layer of rock salt in an outcrop. What can be determined about the sedimentary environment in which it was formed?
A)It was an ocean.
B)It was a beach.
C)It was humid.
D)It was arid.
Q2) Which of the following are formed when one glacier beheads another?
A)Piedmont glaciers
B)hanging valleys
C)U-shaped valleys
D)roche moutonnée
Q3) The loss of rain forests would __________ the concentration of greenhouse gasses, leading to an __________ in global atmospheric temperature.
A)increase; increase
B)increase; decrease
C)decrease; increase
D)decrease; decrease
Q4) Describe the differences between lag deposits and desert pavement.
Q5) List and describe one short-term cause for glaciations.
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Chapter 15: Ocean Waters: the Blue of the Blue Marble
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Q1) The prevailing global wind patterns influence
A)atmospheric currents.
B)frictional currents.
C)ocean currents.
D)Coriolis force.
Q2) Autotrophs need __________ in order to survive.
A)salts
B)sulfates
C)zooplankton
D)nutrients
Q3) Imagine you are an oceanographer mapping the sea surface temperature variations throughout the Atlantic Ocean for the Northern Hemisphere. What phenomenon best explains the difference in sea surface temperatures of two coastal cities located at the same latitude located on opposite sides of the Atlantic Ocean?
A)Brazil current
B)jet stream
C)Guinea current
D)gulf stream
Q4) Define the flow of the Ekman transport and explain its process.
Q5) How does the desalinization process convert ocean water into freshwater?
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Chapter 16: Marine Geology: the Study of Ocean Basins and Coasts
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Q1) A coastline characterized by steep-sided cliffs and associated with an active margin is likely to be
A)accretionary.
B)submergent.
C)passive.
D)emergent.
Q2) Which of the following is LEAST likely to result in reef bleaching?
A)pollution
B)changes in seawater salinity
C)changes in water temperature
D)gradual sea level rise
Q3) Barrier islands are constantly moving in the direction of
A)the longshore drift.
B)the high tide.
C)down welling.
D)the Coriolis effect.
Q4) What are estuaries and how do they form?
Q5) How is an erosional coast different from an accretionary coast?
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Q6) Why do tides occur? What is the driving force, and what factors contribute to this force?
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Chapter 17: The Air We Breathe: Introducing Earths
Atmosphere
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Q1) Earth has had three atmospheres since its formation 4.54 Ga years ago. Distinguish Earth's first atmospheric gases from Earth's current atmosphere.
Q2) What important role do deposition nuclei play in the formation of a snowflake?
A)When temperatures are above freezing, aerosols serve as deposition nuclei. Water molecules attach to it and grow into a composite of ice crystals.
B)Deposition nuclei do not play any role in the formation of a snowflake.
C)When temperatures are below freezing, aerosols serve as deposition nuclei. Water molecules can attach to it and grow into a composite of ice crystals.
D)Deposition nuclei serve as a layer in Earth's atmosphere.
Q3) If there was no atmosphere, the daytime temperature of Earth's surface would be A)the same.
B)like Mercury's.
C)like Saturn's.
D)like Neptune's.
Q4) How does a mercury barometer work? How do meteorologists use it to describe atmospheric pressure?
Q5) List the three laws that govern the behavior of blackbody radiation.
Q6) Explain the role and process the ionosphere plays in radio transmission.
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Chapter 18: Winds of the World: the Earths Major Weather Systems
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Q1) Monsoons develop and occur only at lower latitudes because of the A)belt of high-pressure air currents associated with the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).
B)belt of low-pressure air currents associated with the Walker circulation.
C)belt of low-pressure air currents associated with the ITCZ.
D)polar and Ferrel cells.
Q2) Atmospheric scientists categorize hurricane damage using the Saffir-Simpson scale to describe the __________ of a hurricane.
A)thickness
B)shape
C)intensity
D)size
Q3) A very fast high-altitude river of air that forms in the upper troposphere is called a(n)
A)typhoon.
B)jet stream.
C)monsoon.
D)air mass.
Q4) Describe the four important properties of the Coriolis force.
Q5) What are the causes of the formation of a monsoon?
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Chapter 19: Thunderstorms, Tornadoes, and Local Weather Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is necessary for thunderstorm formation?
A)dry air
B)a downdraft
C)lightning
D)atmospheric instability
Q2) Which of the following is MOST likely to occur when a cold front intersects a package of warm air?
A)The two air masses mix, and a thunderstorm results.
B)The two air masses mix, and the formation of a tornado is possible.
C)The cold air is lifted on top of the warm air, and a thunderstorm results.
D)The warm air is lifted on top of the cold air, and a thunderstorm results.
Q3) Which of the following is MOST true of a supercell thunderstorm relative to an ordinary thunderstorm?
A)In a supercell thunderstorm, the updraft is rotating.
B)Frontal squall lines accompany supercell thunderstorms.
C)Supercell thunderstorms cover a larger geographic area.
D)Straight-line winds accompany supercell thunderstorms.
Q4) Lifting that results in thunderstorm formation does not always have to take place along fronts. Illustrate, using words and/or pictures, how lifting could occur along a less distinct boundary.
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Chapter 20: Climate and Climate Change
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Q1) What is a paleoclimate indicator? Provide three examples.
Q2) Which of the following best explains why we have seasons?
A)The amount of carbon dioxide in Earth's atmosphere varies throughout the year.
B)The plane of Earth's orbit is inclined relative to the sun.
C)Earth's distance from the sun is variable.
D)Earth's axis of rotation is at an angle to the plane of its orbit.
Q3) Changes in a system that enhance the initial change are known as
processes.
A)escalating
B)inflammatory
C)negative feedback
D)positive feedback
Q4) The greenhouse effect is
A)the current increase in global surface temperatures.
B)the result of global warming.
C)a climate change hypothesis that is no longer accepted.
D)the trapping of reradiated energy by the atmosphere.
Q5) Has Earth's climate changed in the past? What are some natural causes of long-term climate change? Short-term climate change?
Page 25
Q6) Identify five probable outcomes of global climate change.
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Chapter 21: Our Solar System and Beyond
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Q1) What advantages do space telescopes have over earthbound telescopes?
A)Space telescopes do not have any advantages over earthbound telescopes.
B)A space telescope that orbits above Earth's energy-absorbing atmosphere is able to detect the entire electromagnetic spectrum.
C)Earthbound telescopes can ONLY detect short and long wavelengths that can pass through the radio windows to the ground.
D)Space telescopes last longer and are easier to repair because they are less impacted by Earth's gravity.
Q2) What happens during a lunar eclipse in relation to the alignment of the Sun, the moon, and Earth?
A)Earth blocks moonlight from reaching the Sun.
B)Earth's moon blocks sunlight from reaching the Earth.
C)The Sun blocks moonlight from reaching Earth's moon.
D)Earth blocks sunlight from reaching Earth's moon.
Q3) Outline Newton's Laws of Physics.
Q4) Why do cell phones and weather radar systems transmit signals in the radio and microwave regions of the electromagnetic spectrum, rather than the infrared or ultraviolet regions?
Q5) What is a simple, everyday example of the Doppler effect?
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Chapter 22: Our Neighborhood in Space
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Q1) How is the condensation theory for the formation of the solar system different from the nebular theory?
Q2) Which of the following is MOST true of Saturn's moon(s)?
A)Saturn has no moons.
B)Saturn has one moon named Io.
C)Saturn has one moon named Titan.
D)Saturn has many moons (62 confirmed).
Q3) A meteor is
A)composed of rock and metal.
B)composed of rock and ice.
C)a light streak, also known as a shooting star.
D)a meteoroid that survives the Earth's atmosphere and strikes the ground.
Q4) We are able to see the Moon from Earth because it
A)produces its own light.
B)reflects the light from the Sun.
C)reflects the light from Earth.
D)is very close to Earth.
Q5) Contrast the atmospheres of Venus and Earth. Specifically, how are they the same or different in terms of composition, thickness, and greenhouse effect? What effect does this have on surface temperatures?
Page 27
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Chapter 23: The Sun, Stars, and Deep Space
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Q1) The Sun currently falls on the main sequence of the H-R diagram. How will it evolve as it nears the end of its life as a visible star?
Q2) Outbursts of glowing gas and plasma emerging from the Sun's surface, following the magnetic field lines back to the surface, look like particularly huge arcs of plasma and are known as
A)solar bursts.
B)solar prominence.
C)hotspots.
D)solar flares.
Q3) The star that has longest life span because of its size and rate of fuel consumption is known as a ____________ star.
A)low-mass
B)high-mass
C)intermediate
D)black dwarf
Q4) How do astronomers differentiate galaxies from one another?
Q5) How does energy move through the Sun's layers?
Q6) What provides the energy of a nova? What provides the energy of a supernova?
Q7) Describe and explain the impact of dark matter in our Universe.
Page 28
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Chapter 24: Prelude: Welcome to Earth Science
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Q1) The condensation of water vapor in the atmosphere and subsequent transfer to the ocean viaprecipitation is an example of a(n)
A)cycle.
B)system.
C)method.
D)hypothesis
Q2) Explain the concept of geologic time. Why is this concept important to understanding change in the Earth system?
Q3) Glaciers are a part of which realm?
A)geosphere
B)hydrosphere
C)biosphere
D)atmosphere
Q4) Which of the following statements is MOST true of a scientific theory?
A)Theory is a scientific word for a hypothesis.
B)A scientific theory is a new idea, yet to be tested.
C)Scientific theories are truths that are too theoretical to be tested directly.
D)A theory is a scientific idea supported by an abundance of evidence.
Q5) Give an example that illustrates a cycle.
Q6) Does the Earth System encompass more realms than the geosphere? Explain.
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