Geological Hazards Practice
Questions
Course Introduction
Geological Hazards is a course that explores the natural processes and phenomena resulting from the dynamic nature of the Earth's crust and interior. Students will examine the origins, mechanisms, and impacts of significant geological hazards such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, landslides, tsunamis, and soil liquefaction. The course emphasizes hazard assessment, risk mitigation, and the societal consequences of these events, integrating fundamental geological principles with real-world case studies. Through lectures, field studies, and practical exercises, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how geologic hazards affect human populations and infrastructure, and will develop skills to evaluate and manage associated risks.
Recommended Textbook
Earth An Introduction to Physical Geology 4th Canadian Edition by Edward J. Tarbuck
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20 Chapters
3286 Verified Questions
3286 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Geology and Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is the layer between Earth's rigid crust and its largely liquid core. Answer: mantle
Q2) An extensive, Late Pleistocene glaciation covered all of southern India, southern Africa, and southeastern South America with a continental ice cap just prior to the break up of Pangaea.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) At a ________ boundary, the two plates are moving towards one another.
Answer: convergent
Q4) Consider the tectonic plates on either side of an oceanic-ridge boundary.How are the plates moving with respect to the boundary?
A)sliding along it
B)moving toward it
C)moving away from it
D)falling into it
Answer: C
Q5) List the three types of plate boundaries.
Answer: divergent, convergent, transform
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Chapter 2: Minerals: The Building Blocks of Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is the appearance or quality of light reflected from the crystal face of a mineral.
Answer: Lustre
Q2) In the compound sodium chloride, the negative ions are chlorine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The external expression of internal atomic arrangement in a mineral is called its crystal habit.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Which of the following has the highest specific gravity?
A)wood
B)water
C)gold
D)quartz
Answer: C
Q5) What ferromagnesian silicate mineral is named for its green colour?
Answer: olivine
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Igneous Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What phenocryst minerals would you expect to find in a porphyritic andesite?
A)intermediate (Ca-Na)plagioclase and amphibole or pyroxene
B)Na-rich plagioclase and K-feldspar
C)Ca-rich plagioclase and olivine
D)muscovite and biotite
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following igneous rocks usually exhibit aphanitic texture?
A)granite, gabbro
B)andesite, rhyolite
C)andesite, diorite
D)rhyolite, gabbro
Answer: B
Q3) Name the texture that requires a magnifying glass or microscope to see individual mineral grains.
A)aphanitic
B)porphyritic
C)phaneritic
D)pegmatitic
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Volcanoes and Volcanic Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What destroyed the city of St.Pierre, Martinique in 1902?
A)mudflows
B)mafic lava flows
C)heavy ashfall
D)a nuée ardente
Q2) What volcanoes have the highest elevations?
A)composite volcanoes
B)shield
C)cinder cones
D)stratospheric
Q3) The active Hawaiian volcanoes are situated directly above a major boundary between two of the Earth's largest tectonic plates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the Indonesian term for a destructive, water saturated, volcanic mudflow?
Q5) What super-eruption about 73,500 years ago is thought to have affected regional climate?
Q6) Composite volcanic volcanoes like Mt.Garibaldi are also called ________.
Q7) What term denotes the large volcanic depression occupied by Crater Lake, Oregon?
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Chapter 5: Weathering and Soil
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term describes the physical disintegration and chemical alteration of exposed rocks?
Q2) The B soil horizon is called the zone of leaching.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Very fine-sized, clay mineral particles move downward from the A to the B horizon of some soils.What is this process called?
Q4) Pedalfers form more readily than pedocals under conditions of low soil moisture content.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which one of the following is an important, mechanical weathering process for enlarging fractures and extending them deeper into large boulders and bedrock?
A)oxidation
B)eluviation
C)hydrologic cycling
D)frost wedging
Q6) What compounds are the primary cause of elevated levels of acid rain and what is their source?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Sedimentary Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is chalk formed?
Q2) Which type of sandstone contains abundant, clayey, matrix material?
A)brownstone
B)wacke
C)arkose
D)cherty
Q3) In what setting would you expect to find massive, poorly sorted deposits ranging in size from boulders to clays?
A)channels deposits from the middle portions of rivers
B)eolian deposits from deserts with large dune fields
C)high latitude or high altitude glacial settings
D)sediments from lagoons and estuaries on a temperate coastline
Q4) Diagenesis mainly occurs in the uppermost few kilometres of the crust.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which sediment gets lithified to become sandstone?
A)sand
B)gravel
C)clay and fine silt
D)all clay sized sediment
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Chapter 7: Metamorphism and Metamorphic Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the conditions of contact metamorphism?
A)Pressures are very high, the rock is deeply buried, and temperatures are raised gradually by Earth's internally generated heat.
B)Pressures are fairly low, the rock is in the upper part of the crust, the heat for baking the neighbouring rocks is supplied quickly from the intrusion of a nearby magma body.
C)Heat is generated very quickly by shearing and mechanical movements along faults.
D)Depths are so deep and temperatures are so high that the rocks begin to partially melt.
Q2) What is the opposite of brittle deformation and give an example of a texture that forms this other way?
Q3) Where are the oldest metamorphic rocks in Canada (4.28 billion years)?
Q4) Which two metamorphic rocks are each composed predominantly of a single mineral?
A)mica schist and granitic gneiss
B)fault breccia and graphitic schist
C)garnet schist and andalusite hornfels
D)marble and quartzite
Q5) What are two ways that heat (temperature)drives metamorphism?
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Chapter 8: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rare element iridium has been implicated in which "ancient health" crisis?
A)poisoning of primitive algae in the Hadean Eon
B)extinction of the woolly mammoths in late Pleistocene time
C)disappearance of Neanderthal man during the early Cenozoic Era
D)extinction of the dinosaurs at the end of the Cretaceous Period
Q2) Visualize (or draw)five, horizontal, sedimentary strata as exposed in a cliff or canyon wall identified by consecutive numbers, 1 being the lowest bed and 5 being the highest.Which of the following statements concerning the strata are true?
A)bed 5 is the oldest
B)beds 1 and 3 are older than bed 4
C)bed 4 is older than bed 2
D)bed 3 is older than beds 2 and 4
Q3) Correlation of rock units between continents or widely separated areas is accomplished by using physical features such as colour, texture, and thickness of units.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What kind of date yields numbers in years?
Q5) Which have been around longer, the benthonic foraminifera or planktonic ones?
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Chapter 9: Crustal Deformation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compressional stresses are responsible for most normal faulting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Belts of ________ in layered sedimentary rocks are evidence for horizontal compression and shortening.
A)normal faults
B)strike-slip faults
C)horsts and grabens
D)tight folds
Q3) Rock salt or limestone is the weakest naturally occurring solid substance to exhibit ductile behaviour?
Q4) Vertical displacements along dip-slip faults can produce long low breaks in the landscape or cliffs called ________, that can show the relative sense of motion across the fault.
A)dipsy-doodles
B)fault scarps
C)hanging walls
D)strike hurdles
Q5) Name the three basic types of geologic structures associated with crustal deformation?
11
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Chapter 10: Earthquakes and Earth's Interior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are the travel-time curves for the P-wave and S-wave arrivals curved and not straight lines?
A)The greater the distance, the deeper the P and S waves travel, refracting through progressively denser layers.
B)During an earthquake, Earth shakes so much that it is like a quivering rubber ball and all of the distances are wrong.
C)They should be straight lines.Earth is flat and the time-travel graph proves it!
D)They have to bend with the curvature of the Earth.
Q2) Tsunami are only serious threats to coastal areas near an earthquake epicentre because the waves have lost most of their energy after moving across 200 kilometres of open water.Is this statement correct? Why or why not?
Q3) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)P wave
B)S wave
C)surface wave
D)body wave
Q4) ________ are not transmitted through the outer core.
Q5) What happens to the energy released in an earthquake?
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Chapter 11: The Ocean Floor
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Sample Questions
Q1) A low lying, coral limestone island with a central lagoon is called an ________.
Q2) Turbidites and siliceous oozes are both biogenous sediments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How do atolls differ from regular coral reefs and how was this determined?
Q4) Which sediment type comprises rounded blackish lumps of metallic compounds on the seafloor?
A)biogenous
B)manganese nodules
C)androgynous
D)terrigenous
Q5) Which is the longest ocean trench?
A)Aleutian
B)Java
C)Kurile-Kamchatka
D)Peru-Chile
Q6) Submarine, basaltic lava flows chill quickly to form tube shaped protuberances called ________.
Q7) Name three prominent, landforms found on the floor of the ocean basins.
Q8) ________ are where active volcanism and earthquakes are the rarest.
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Chapter 12: Plate Tectonics: The Framework for Modern Geology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most likely explanation for why there are no islands, only deep seamounts and guyots NW of Kauai towards Midway?
A)The seafloor farther from the current hot spot has aged and cooled off, so the volcanoes eroded and sank below sea level.
B)The hot spot was less vigorous from 27 to 65 million years than subsequently.
C)The Pacific plate moved much faster during the period in question and there wasn't time to build tall volcanoes over the Hawaiian hot spot.
D)The intervening seafloor is thinner so it sat higher and eroded off all the volcanoes.
Q2) ________ plates are moving apart from one another
A)convergent
B)transform
C)divergen
Q3) The volcanoes of Hawaii are localized above a deep mantle plume and hot spot; they are not part of the East Pacific Rise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rifting and normal faulting are characteristic of a ________ plate boundary.
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Chapter 13: Mountain Building and Continental Frameworks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rugged elevations are due to crustal extension, related to underlying mantle heat or convective upwelling, in the ________.
A)East African rift
B)European Alps
C)Appalachians and Caledonians
D)NE edge of Indian Ocean
Q2) British Columbia is "accreted terrane central" as it contains more than 39 separate terranes, all accreted during the past 200 million years with the westward motion of North America since the break up of Pangaea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Thick thrust sheets of massive Proterozoic and Paleozoic carbonates from glaciated peaks with steep cliffs on all sides like Castle Mountain in western Alberta are found in this part of the Rockies.
A)Main Ranges
B)Western Ranges
C)Front Ranges
D)Foothills
Q4) What do the 1.8 to 1.7, 1.7 to 1.6, and Grenville belts represent?
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Chapter 14: Mass Wasting: The Work of Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes thermokarst in periglacial regions?
Q2) How do freezing, thawing, wetting, and drying contribute to soil creep?
A)The soil becomes much weaker when dry and frozen.
B)Gravity exerts a much stronger force when the soil is wet and thawed.
C)The soil expands and contracts, lifting particles then lowering them a slight distance downslope.
D)Eventually these cause the soil and regolith to suddenly slide down the slope.
Q3) How do slopes become oversteepened?
Q4) Earthflows are often located downslope from slumps and triggered by the outflow of water from the slumps.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Triggers are the first step in a mass wasting event that leads to great damage.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which of the following contains ice wedges?
A)patterned ground
B)felsenmeer
C)thermokarst
D)pingo
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Running Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) Foreset beds are part of a deltaic, depositional sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The side view of a stream's course is the ________.
Q3) ________ describes the amount of water flowing past a certain point at any given time.
A)Capacity
B)Discharge
C)Competence
D)Hydro-load factor
Q4) ________ make up the suspended loads of most rivers and streams.
A)Dissolved ions and fine sand
B)Dissolved salts
C)Silt and clay-sized, detrital grains
D)Coarse sand and gravel that move during floods
Q5) ________ is the boundary line separating adjacent, stream drainage basins.
Q6) A poorly-drained natural marsh behind a levee is called a back swamp.
A)True
B)False
Q7) How does a wind gap form?
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Chapter 16: Groundwater
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, contaminated groundwater will be naturally cleaned faster by circulation through porous and permeable sands than by circulation through fractured crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the important factors according to Darcy's Law for determining the velocity of groundwater flow?
Q3) During gravity drainage, the portion of the groundwater that is retained on sediment particle and rock fracture surfaces is called the specific yield.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which would be the most prone to surface contamination from runoff and infiltration?
A)an aquifer with a thick, overlying, unsaturated vadose zone
B)deep confined aquifers directly below contaminated sites
C)shallow aquifers with thin soils or unconsolidated coarse overburden
D)wells a few hundred metres uphill from septic systems in rugged mountainous terrain
Q5) A stream flowing into a sinkhole is called a ________.
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Chapter 17: Glaciers and Glaciation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name for the very large, Pleistocene glacial lake that existed in the Central Prairies?
Q2) As a glacier advances over a fractured bedrock surface, it loosens, lifts, and incorporates blocks of rock in a process called ________.
A)frost wedging
B)hydraulic lifting
C)plucking
D)striation
Q3) What physical property of H<sub>2</sub>O allows glaciers to flow, particularly by basal slip?
A)dipole forces
B)pressure melting
C)spontaneous recrystallization to the cubic structure
D)high viscosity
Q4) Briefly describe how glaciers and ice ages relate to two global cycles.
Q5) Describe the transformations or steps in the process needed to make glacial ice.
Q6) Compare and contrast the bedding, typical grain size distribution, and sorting of a till versus glacial outwash sediments, and explain why this is so.
Q7) What happens to global sea level during ice ages and why?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Deserts and Winds
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ are rocks with one or more flat surfaces abraded by windblown sand.
Q2) In North America, loess deposits are found mainly in the dry to semiarid lands of southwestern United States and northern Mexico.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A ________ is closed depression in an arid region caused by ________.
A)kettle hole, boiling desert springs
B)sinkhole, wind abrasion
C)U-shaped valley, drying chinook winds
D)blowout, deflation
Q4) Wind is viscous enough to lift sediment grains by suction alone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Loess deposits in the central United States and Columbia Plateau ________.
A)blew in from the dry areas in the Great Plains and southwestern desert areas
B)originated as silt sized particles in Canadian Pleistocene glacial outwash streams and freshly exposed till
C)accumulated from flooding of the Mississippi River
D)were originally deposited as barchanoid dunes and later redeposited by glaciers
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Chapter 19: Shorelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a deep-water wave enters shallow water, the wave slows down and rotates toward being parallel with the shoreline.This process is known as ________.
Q2) Swash and backwash describe ________.
A)the oscillatory movement of water beneath a passing wave
B)the swirling action and sand movements produced when a shallow water wave impinges on an shallow offshore bar
C)the onshore and offshore movement of water relative to the beach by turbulent surf
D)the forward and backward water movements as storm waves reflect from a seawall or groin
Q3) Sand is the dominant sediment type in lagoons behind long sandy barrier islands. A)True
B)False
Q4) If you happen to be caught in a rip current, what is the best way to get to safety?
Q5) A ________ is a structure built parallel to the shoreline to dissipate much of the energy from incoming waves.
Q6) What is beach drift?
Q7) Name two different shoreline landforms that are created as headlands erode.
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Chapter 20: Mineral and Energy Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)coal
B)water
C)copper
D)natural gas
Q2) Name two metals or minerals found in vein or disseminated deposits associated with intermediate to felsic intrusions.
Q3) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)heavy oil sand
B)wet gas
C)oil shale
D)methane hydrate
Q4) Which one is not a significant potential Canadian source of geothermal energy?
A)Regina, Saskatchewan
B)Springhill, Nova Scotia
C)Fort Liard, Northwest Territories
D)Meager Creek, British Columbia
Q5) Briefly outline the pros and cons of alternate energy sources such as nuclear, solar, wind, geothermal and hydroelectric.
Page 22
Q6) Put a star around any two cumulate or primary magmatic ore deposits.
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