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Geography for Educators is designed to empower future and current teachers with foundational knowledge of physical and human geography, as well as effective strategies for integrating geographic principles into the classroom. The course explores key concepts such as spatial thinking, map interpretation, environmental systems, cultural landscapes, and the interconnectedness of global regions. Emphasis is placed on inquiry-based learning, curriculum development, and the use of digital tools to engage students in geographic inquiry. By the end of the course, educators will be equipped to foster students understanding of the world around them and promote geographic literacy at various grade levels.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Geography 14th Edition by Arthur Getis
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13 Chapters
971 Verified Questions
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36 Verified Questions
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Q1) What are the two ways in which geographical location is described? Use them to describe the location of your campus.
Answer: Absolute location and relative location; answer varies to second part.
Q2) The term cultural landscape suggests the visible imprint of human activity upon the natural environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Between the Middle Ages and the revival of geography in the 17<sup>th</sup> century,Muslim scholars were engaged in describing and analyzing their known world and its physical,cultural,and regional variation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Geography means "measurement of the earth."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The art and science of map-making is called cartography.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When one travels one fourth of the distance around the world along the same parallel of latitude,the number of time zones traversed is likely
A)4.
B)6.
C)12.
D)24. Answer: B
Q3) The Land Ordinance of 1785 established a systematic survey known as the A)base line system.
B)township and range system.
C)orthographic survey system.
D)public lands identification system. Answer: B
Q4) What is the name of the parallel from which latitude is measured?
Answer: Equator
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Q1) Explain why the zones of active volcanism and earthquakes are often located in close proximity.
Answer: The great force of a moving continent creates faults at the intersections of plates.Each movement at a fault creates earthquakes.At deep faults,particularly,molten material from within the earth can move to the surface,as volcanic explosion or as oozing lava.
Q2) Stalactites and stalagmites are characteristic of arĂȘtes and cirques.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Cirques are associated with coastal processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What general term refers to the alteration of the earth's crust due to plate movement?
Answer: Tectonic forces
Q5) What landforms occur when the land surface dips below the water table?
Answer: Lakes,streams,ponds,and marshes.
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Q1) The type of climate found within the equatorial low pressure zone and characterized by warm temperatures and regular convective rainfall throughout the year is the A)tropical rain forest.
B)savanna.
C)Mediterranean.
D)marine west coast.
Q2) Which of the following statements about carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is NOT true?
A)It is the primary greenhouse gas.
B)It is not naturally occurring.
C)Its levels have increased due to burning coal,petroleum,and natural gas.
D)Its levels have increased due to deforestation.
Q3) Relative humidity is the amount of water vapor in the air compared to the amount required for condensation to begin at a given temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Humid subtropical climates have drier summers than Mediterranean climates.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A wide bottom on a population pyramid suggests a country is in the __________ stage of the demographic transition.
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
Q2) An expression of population pressure exerted on agricultural land is A)crude density.
B)arithmetical density.
C)aggregate density.
D)physiological density.
Q3) In 2008,the total population of the world was estimated to be about
A)4.6 billion people.
B)6.7 billion people.
C)7.2 billion people.
D)8.2 billion people.
Q4) What term has reference to permanently populated portions of the earth as distinguished from the unpopulated regions?
Q5) Why is the total fertility rate a more accurate measure than the crude birth rate?
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Q1) Compare and contrast major world religions from the standpoint of their impact on the cultural landscape (i.e.,structures and symbols).
Q2) The persistence of Chinatowns,Little Havanas,and Little Italys is evidence of cultural assimilation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pidgin and creole languages are distinguished from one another by the fact that pidgin
A)may be based on any European language; creole is always a French dialect.
B)is always a second language for all its speakers; creole has become a distinctive first language of a society.
C)is a simplified European language taught to native populations; creole is a simplified native language.
D)is any invented language of Asia and the Pacific; creole is based on French and found in the Caribbean.
Q4) All the universalizing religions had their origin hearths in Southwest Asia.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The area in which people move about and carry on their daily activities is known as A)territoriality.
B)activity space.
C)cognition.
D)the area of critical mobility.
Q2) Which of the following statements does NOT pertain to chain migration?
A)It may involve employment in an ethnic niche business.
B)It is shaped by networks of kinship and friendship.
C)It is typically involuntary.
D)The destination has been prepared by previous migration flows.
Q3) Current migration paths in the United States clearly show channelized movement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A company with a headquarters in one country and subsidiary companies,factories,or other facilities in other countries is known as a A)transnational corporation.
B)nongovernmental organization.
C)non-state actor.
D)cell.
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Q1) Discuss the potential sources of conflicts along boundaries that a hypothetical state might experience.
Q2) Explain why the number of independent states worldwide is changing.
Q3) The Palestinians are an example of a A)stateless nation.
B)state.
C)nation-state.
D)part-nation-state.
Q4) The period of most rapid increase in the establishment of sovereign states came after World War II.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Law of the Sea Convention contains provisions for all of the following EXCEPT
A)a 12-nautical mile limit for territorial waters over which states can exercise sovereignty. B)freedom of the high seas.
C)100-nautical mile exclusive economic zones.
D)recognition of the deep seabed and its resources as the "common heritage of mankind."
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Q1) Intensive subsistence agriculture is characterized by A)equal emphasis upon crops and animals.
B)farms that specialize in producing a single crop.
C)high first-year yields,followed by production declines and land abandonment.
D)high yields per unit of cultivated land.
Q2) The von Thunen model of agricultural land use is based on the high-yielding seed varieties and the use of heavy fertilizers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mining and quarrying are extractive industries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sustainable agriculture adherents emphasize an increase in
A)Farm diversification
B)Food supply
C)The use of pesticides and herbicides
D)The use of fertilizers
Q5) Types of shifting cultivation include swidden,slash-and-burn,milpa,and ladang.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Three categories of economic activities included in the business services sector of the economy include
A)agriculture,gathering industries,and extractive industries.
B)retail trade,wholesale trade,and consumer services.
C)finance,insurance,and real estate
D)manufacturing,construction,and power production.
Q2) Compare the relative allocation of economic activity among the primary,secondary,and tertiary sectors for post-industrial,newly industrialized,and least developed countries in the world economy.
Q3) Because of the strength of its farm and mining sectors,the service industries are less important in the United States than in other advanced economies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The totality of physical facilities and public services existing at a place are known as that locale's
A)service framework.
B)operational medium.
C)infrastructure.
D)support base.

12
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Q1) Young adult males constitute the majority of poor people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The basic sector of an urban area's economy consists of
A)the activities that bring in money from outside the area.
B)its schools and city government.
C)an efficient transportation system.
D)retail functions that serve local customers.
Q3) In the past decade,the fastest growing metropolitan areas in the U.S.were located in the traditional manufacturing belt.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the name of the continuous belt of urban area extending from Washington D.C.to Boston?
Q5) Gentrification is the rehabilitation of housing in the oldest and now deteriorated inner-city areas by middle and high income groups.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe gentrification and the reasons it has taken place
Page 13
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Q1) Modern technology has reduced to 10% or less the proportion of the world's people largely dependent on wood for cooking and heating.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hydropower is the one energy source that comes without any environmental costs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of sugarcane versus corn for producing ethanol for vehicle fuel.
Q4) The U.S.consumes approximately 22.5% of world oil production.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the concept of sustainable development.
Q6) What parts of the world receive the largest shipments of crude oil from the Middle East?
A)United States and Latin America
B)Europe and Japan
C)India and China
D)Australia and New Zealand

Page 14
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Q1) Why can exotic species be damaging to ecosystems?
Q2) The most common method of disposing of municipal solid waste in the United States is
A)by incineration.
B)in open dumps.
C)by recycling.
D)in sanitary landfills.
Q3) What is the process by which certain chemicals accumulate at higher levels in the food chain?
Q4) What gas,emitted chiefly by burning fossil fuels,is thought by many to be the main cause of a future warming trend around the world?
Q5) An example of a point as opposed to a non-point source of water pollution is A)an animal feedlot.
B)an agricultural field.
C)a sewage plant.
D)a highway.
Q6) Explain the process of eutrophication
Q7) Explain how knowledge of prevailing wind patterns can help explain the spatial patterns of acid rain in the U.S.and Europe.
Page 15
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