Genomics Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Genomics is an interdisciplinary field of biology focused on the comprehensive study of genomes, the complete set of DNA within a single cell of an organism. This course explores fundamental concepts and techniques in genome sequencing, mapping, analysis, and interpretation. Students will examine the structure, function, evolution, and editing of genomes, with emphasis on high-throughput sequencing technologies, bioinformatics tools, and data analysis. The curriculum also addresses applications of genomics in medicine, agriculture, and environmental sciences, as well as ethical, legal, and social implications associated with genomic research.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics 10th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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1034 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is in a Human Genome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The distinction between mutations and gene expression is that
A)mutations affect only autosomes and gene expression affects only sex chromosomes.
B)mutations are dangerous and gene expression promotes health.
C)mutations are changes in the DNA sequence,whereas gene expression refers to the extent to which a gene is transcribed and translated,producing protein.
D)gene expression refers to changes in the DNA sequence,whereas mutation refers to the processes of DNA replication,RNA transcription,and protein synthesis.
Answer: C
Q2) Shawn's mother and Heather's mother are sisters.Shawn and Heather have __ of their genes in common.
A)1/2
B)1/4
C)1/8
D)1/16
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that control how often a cell divides include
A)telomere lengths,hormonal signals,crowding,and growth factors.
B)which chromosomes are active and which are not.
C)the activity level of the person,diet,and environmental exposures.
D)where chromosomes are located within the nucleus.
Answer: A
Q2) The internal scaffolding of a cell consists of
A)microtubules and microfilaments.
B)cilia and flagella.
C)chitin and chlorophyll.
D)lipid bilayers.
Answer: A
Q3) At the point in the cell cycle when mitosis begins A)DNA replication begins.
B)each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids joined at the centromere.
C)the number of chromosome is reduced to half.
D)the cell enters a dormant phase.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Meiosis,Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) After meiosis I,the number of chromosomes is _____ that of a somatic cell.
A)half
B)double
C)the same as
D)quadruple
Answer: A
Q2) In the first step in oogenesis
A)a primary oocyte divides to form a secondary oocyte and a first polar body.
B)an oogonium accumulates cytoplasm and DNA replicates.
C)a stem cell divides to yield an oogonium and a spermatogonium.
D)an oocyte divides to yield two polar bodies.
Answer: B
Q3) The female sex cells develop in paired organs in the abdomen called _____.
A)ovaries
B)oocytes
C)vagina
D)clitoris
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's laws derive from A)mitosis.
B)meiosis.
C)processes unique to pea plants.
D)calculus and algebra.
Q2) The wild type eye color for humans is A)brown.
B)green.
C)hazel.
D)pink.
Q3) Mendel followed the transmission of traits through several generations in A)frogs.
B)peas.
C)bacteria.
D)the mustard weeD.
Q4) An autosomal dominant trait
A)passes from mother to son only.
B)skips generations.
C)can be carried by unaffected individuals.
D)can affect either sex.
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Laws
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic heterogeneity refers to mutations in different genes that cause the same symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Marfan syndrome can be caused by mutations in either of two genes involved in the disorder,but mutations in one of the genes blocks activity of the other.This means that Marfan syndrome demonstrates
A)variable expressivity and complete penetrance.
B)an acquired phenotype.
C)late onset and early onset.
D)genetic heterogeneity and epistasis.
Q3) Can a woman with blood type A have a child with blood type O with a man who is AB?
A)Yes,because of codominance between the I<sup>A</sup> and I<sup>B</sup> alleles.
B)No,because a man with type AB blood could not contribute an i allele.
C)Yes,because of epistasis between the I and the H genes.
D)No,because the child's genotype must be ii.
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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sixteen-year-old Rhapsody has just learned that her younger brother Clyde is colorblind.Although she knows she has color vision because her cat,Juice,is clearly orange,and she reads that nearly all people with colorblindness are boys,she is concerned about her own sons one day.If she is a carrier for colorblindness,then the risk that a son of hers is colorblind is
A)dependent on the genes the child's father contributes.
B)1/8.
C)1/4.
D)1/2.
Q2) Imprinting disorders illustrate A)epistasis. B)epigenetics.
C)epidermics.
D)apogenetics.
Q3) A gene on the Y chromosome that determines maleness is A)ABO.
B)XIST.
C)SRY.
D)E.BOY.
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Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Traditional ways of evaluating multifactorial traits include
A)empiric risk and heritability.
B)Punnett squares and pedigrees.
C)surveys that ask people what they have been exposed to.
D)tests for several Mendelian traits or diseases.
Q2) "Total ridge count" is
A)a multifactorial trait that considers the number of ridges in whorls,loops,or arches of the finger pad skin.
B)a single gene trait that counts the number of ridges in the small intestine.
C)the number of wives of Ridge Forrester,a character on "The Bold and the Beautiful."
D)a polygenic trait that considers the number of lines of pigment in the irises.
Q3) Multifactorial traits include
A)only polygenic traits.
B)neither single gene nor polygenic traits.
C)both single gene and polygenic traits.
D)only traits that have no genetic cause.
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Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biological basis of autism may be
A)exposure to Ebola viruses during pregnancy.
B)formation of aberrant synapses.
C)interference with the ability to form synapses during childhood that are a response to experience,impairing learning and memory.
D)binding to nicotinic receptors in a way that destroys neurons in the hippocampus.
Q2) Anandamide is a substance made in the body that is the equivalent of the active component of A)heroin.
B)chocolate.
C)marijuana.
D)barbiturates.
Q3) LSD binds receptors that normally bind A)dopamine.
B)serotonin.
C)epinephrine.
D)trace amines.
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10
Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) When DNA replication halts in a polymerase chain reaction,owing to the incorporation of a tagged base into a growing DNA chain,a(n)_____ results.
A)partial DNA molecule
B)template strand
C)complementary sequence
D)first-generation DNA molecule
Q2) In a DNA molecule,the base pairs provide information,and the sugar-phosphate backbone does not,because
A)the base pairs are all the same,but the sugar-phosphate backbone varies.
B)there are eight types of base pairs.
C)the bases form a sequence,and the sugar-phosphate backbone does not.
D)the sugar-phosphate backbone is highly unstable.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true in DNA replication?
A)DNA polymerase unwinds the DNA at replication forks.
B)Primase removes short RNA primers and replaces them with DNA.
C)Ligase breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary DNA strands.
D)DNA polymerase proofreads DNA,correcting mismatched nucleotides.
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Chapter 10: Gene Action: From DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) A retrovirus produces an enzyme,called reverse transcriptase,which copies its RNA genome into DNA.This is opposite of the central dogma because
A)a virus is not an organism.
B)a virus lacks genetic material.
C)a retrovirus lacks DNA.
D)the central dogma states that DNA is copied into RNA.
Q2) The linear order of amino acids in a polypeptide is the _____ structure of a protein. A)primary B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q3) Parts of an mRNA molecule that are removed before protein synthesis are called A)exons. B)exomes.
C)promoters.
D)introns.
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12
Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Globin chain switching replaces gamma chains with _____ chains in adult hemoglobin.
A)epsilon
B)zeta
C)beta
D)alpha
Q2) The reason for fetal globin chain switching is that
A)a fetus has four alpha globin chains and a newborn has four beta globin chains.
B)a fetus's blood is clear until the sixth month and then globin chains turn it red.
C)the newborn needs more iron than the fetus or embryo.
D)the embryo and fetus receive different concentrations of oxygen compared to after birth.
Q3) Histone proteins
A)are male sex hormones.
B)are inert spool-like structural supports around which DNA winds.
C)control gene expression through chemical interactions that expose parts of the DNA to transcription factors,while shielding other parts.
D)bind to mRNAs,preventing their translation into protein.
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Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a transversion?
A)A to T
B)G to A
C)C to T
D)T to C
Q2) The parents-to-be were shocked when an ultrasound scan done in the second trimester of the pregnancy showed a fetus with obviously broken leg bones and ribs.The doctor diagnosed osteogenesis imperfecta.This is caused by a mutation in a gene that encodes
A)beta globin.
B)a clotting factor.
C)myosin.
D)collagen.
Q3) A source of gamma radiation is
A)plutonium and cesium isotopes.
B)alpha and beta globin.
C)uranium and radium.
D)carbon-14 and strontium-70.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amniocentesis cannot be used to detect fetal
A)gender.
B)intelligence.
C)chromosomal abnormalities.
D)biochemicals that indicate an inborn error of metabolism.
Q2) Uniparental disomy results when a child inherits
A)two recessive alleles for the same gene,one from each parent.
B)two alleles for the same gene from one parent.
C)one recessive allele from one parent.
D)more than two alleles for the same gene from one parent.
Q3) People with Klinefelter syndrome have _____ chromosome constitution.
A)XXY
B)XY
C)YO
D)XXX
Q4) Which type of cell could not be used for karyotyping?
A)Red blood cell
B)White blood cell
C)Fibroblast
D)Skin cell
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Familial DNA search was used in the case of California's "Grim Sleeper."
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,75 percent of the individuals have a dominant allele for a particular gene (p=0.75)and 25 percent have a recessive allele (q=0.25).The proportion of homozygous recessive individuals in the F<sub>1</sub> generation will be
A)2.5%.
B)6.25%.
C)18.75%. D)0%.
Q3) Tay-Sachs disease affects in 1 in 3,600 Ashkenazim births.The value of q<sup>2</sup> is A)0.1.
B)0.05.
C)0.017.
D)0.0003.
Q4) DNA on a glove left at the crime scene is an example of primary DNA transfer.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 1910,Charles Davenport opened the Eugenics Record Office at Cold Spring Harbor.He believed "feeblemindedness" was
A)not inherited.
B)autosomal dominant.
C)X-linked.
D)autosomal recessive.
Q2) Natural selection has fueled the rise in MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)infection by
A)enabling people to use a greater variety of antibiotic drugs to fight the infection.
B)inactivating a greater variety of antibiotic drugs.
C)enabling certain bacterial variants to survive in the presence of many antibiotic drugs.
D)killing all bacteria exposed to antibiotics,including helpful ones.
Q3) Consanguineous marriages are between men and women who are A)from different cultures.
B)"blood" relatives.
C)carriers of a disorder.
D)from the same town.
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Chapter 16: Human Ancestry and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of hominid that was most likely to include mitochondrial Eve is A)Neanderthals.
B)Australopithecus afarensis.
C)Dryopithecus.
D)Homo sapiens idaltu.
Q2) Comparison of common chromosomal banding patterns between humans and 5 other species are given below.Based on these data,humans are least related to A)gorillas: 99% common chromosome bands.
B)African green monkeys: 95% common chromosome bands.
C)domestic cats: 35% common chromosome bands.
D)mice: 7% common chromosome bands.
Q3) Evolutionary tree diagrams compare
A)anatomical similarities revealed in fossil evidence for several related species.
B)the sizes and shapes of body part in related species.
C)conserved DNA sequences for which the rate of base substitution mutation is known.
D)data derived from radioactive dating of fossils,with the half-life used to estimate time.
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Q1) A vaccine protects by stimulating a person to produce a(n)_____ response when a pathogen is encountered.
A)primary immune
B)secondary immune
C)tertiary immune
D)anaphylactic
Q2) _____ bonds hold together the polypeptide chains that form an antibody.
A)Disulfide
B)Peptide
C)Hydrogen
D)Phosphodiester
Q3) The function of dendritic cells is to signal T cells,starting an immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary function of plasma cells is to
A)secrete antibodies.
B)remember immune responses.
C)secrete cytokines.
D)protect phagocytes.
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Chapter 18: Cancer Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sporadic cancers result from
A)recessive or dominant mutation in a somatic cell.
B)recessive or dominant germline mutation.
C)mutation in a sperm or oocyte.
D)exposure to a cancer-causing virus.
Q2) The cause of p53-related cancers is
A)fetal cells that remain in a child or adult,dividing too frequently.
B)continual expression of the telomerase gene,which keeps cells dividing.
C)deletion of cell cycle checkpoint genes.
D)failure to repair damaged DNA,allowing the cell to continue dividing.
Q3) A more recently developed cancer treatment is
A)stimulating telomerase activity.
B)stimulating cells to return to a stem-like state of specialization.
C)inhibiting kinases based on genetic information.
D)replacing the nuclei in cancer cells.
Q4) In normal differentiated somatic cells,telomerase
A)adds material to the ends of chromosomes with each cell division.
B)is not expressed and telomere tips erode with each division.
C)removes telomere tips with each division.
D)repairs double strand breaks in DNA.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transgenic farm animals have not gained importance as sources of pharmaceuticals because
A)they are too difficult to maintain.
B)they are more susceptible to cancer and other diseases.
C)they produce diluted forms of pharmaceuticals.
D)they carry multiple viral strains.
Q2) Restriction enzymes are useful in creating recombinant DNA molecules because they
A)generate "sticky ends" by cutting at the same sequence in any DNA source.
B)are found only in human cells,where they naturally mend broken DNA strands.
C)are used to encapsulate and transport foreign DNA into cells of the target organism.
D)stimulate DNA amplification so that the desired cells or their products can be scaled up.
Q3) Courts allow patenting complementary DNA (cDNA)because
A)its exact sequence is not in the genome of an organism.
B)it cannot be synthesized in a laboratory.
C)it is present only in adult humans.
D)it represents only the introns of a gene.
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a germline gene therapy?
A)A transgenic plant or animal
B)A bone marrow transplant
C)A disabled cold virus that delivers genes to airway epithelium to treat cystic fibrosis
D)Removing skin cells,genetically altering them,and replacing them
Q2) Which of the following would provide the longest lasting treatment for Leber's congenital amaurosis II?
A)Replacing an enzyme that restores the function of T and B cells
B)Substrate reduction therapy and pharmacological chaperone therapy
C)Injecting adeno-associated virus carrying ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC)into T and B cells
D)Injecting adeno-associated virus carrying a wild type version of the RPE65 gene into affected cells of the retina
Q3) Nondirective genetic counseling
A)does not accept health insurance.
B)does not deal with disorders carried on the sex chromosomes.
C)considers diseases caused by genes that are located throughout the genome.
D)offers options but not opinions.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) Lisa and Jack Nash obtained compatible stem cells that cured their young daughter Molly's Fanconi anemia by
A)allowing Molly to undergo gene therapy on the affected cells.
B)allowing Molly to undergo gene therapy on her germ cells.
C)using umbilical cord stem cells from an unrelated donor.
D)using umbilical cord stem cells from a younger sibling,who was conceived and selected for this purpose.
Q2) A surrogate mother can help couples have a child when the woman does not have a functional
A)uterine tube.
B)vagina.
C)cervix.
D)uterus.
Q3) A woman has a child using intrauterine insemination.The woman is the child's
A)gestational mother only.
B)genetic mother only.
C)gestational and genetic mother.
D)gestational and surrogate mother.
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23
Chapter 22: Genomics
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Q1) In the 1980s and 1990s,positional cloning led to the discovery of genes that A)encode all proteins in the human genome.
B)cause hemophilia,fragile X syndrome,and colorblindness.
C)cause several types of cancers.
D)cause Duchene muscular dystrophy,cystic fibrosis,and Huntington disease.
Q2) The following fragments of DNA correspond to a section of the genome. \[\text { ACTGI \quad GTGTT\quad GACTC \quad TTCAAC\quad ACTGA\quad TGAC }\] The derived sequence is
T
C)A
Q3) According to the genomic analysis of Mycoplasma genitalium,what is the number of essential genes?
A)48,000
B)480
C)265 to 350
D)3
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