Genomics Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Genomics is a field of biological science focused on the comprehensive study of genomes, the complete set of DNA within an organism. This course explores the structure, function, evolution, and mapping of genomes through advanced techniques such as DNA sequencing, genome assembly, and bioinformatics analysis. Students learn about the applications of genomics in medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology, including genetic variation, gene expression, and the ethical, legal, and social implications of genomic research. The course combines theoretical concepts with practical approaches for analyzing and interpreting large-scale genomic data.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 11th Edition by Michael Cummings
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19 Chapters
1140 Verified Questions
1140 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic discoveries made in one organism cannot necessarily be applied to other species.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Define stem cells and briefly discuss stem cell research and its potential for use in treating disease.
Answer: In the embryo,stem cells divide to form about 200 different cell types that become parts of the tissues and organs of the body.In adults,stem cells are a reservoir that provides replacements for cells lost through injury,disease,or wear and tear.The ability to isolate stem cells from embryos and to produce stem cells from normal body cells in the laboratory offers the possibility of using stem cells to treat disorders such as heart disease,diabetes,and other degenerative conditions
Q3) The process in which genes move from one chromosome to another is called
Answer: recombination recombining
Q4) Chemical subunits called amino acids combine to make
Answer: proteins
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hayflick limit describes ____.
A) the size limit to which a cell can grow
B) the number of divisions a cultured cell can undergo
C) the largest number of chromosomes an organism can possess
D) the most cells an organism can have
E) how rapidly DNA replication can occur
Answer: B
Q2) Which biomolecule is most associated with the structure and function of cell membranes?
A) Polysaccharides
B) steroids
C) DNA
D) phospholipids
E) ATP
Answer: D
Q3) There are ____________________ autosomes present in a human sperm cell. Answer: 22 twenty-two twenty two
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes from Generation to Generation
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it unethical to use humans in experimental genetics? Explain your reasoning. Answer: Answers will vary.Students may discuss the physical,mental,and emotional harm that may occur from experiments with unknown outcomes.
Q2) Interpret the pedigree in the accompanying figure by describing each symbol and number.How might the information from this pedigree be used by clinicians and researchers?
Answer: A square symbolizes a male and a circle a female.Each generation is identified by a Roman numeral (I,II,III,and so on),and each individual within a generation is identified by an Arabic number (1,2,3,and so on according to birth order).Pedigrees are often constructed after a family member afflicted with a genetic disorder has been identified.This individual,known as the proband,is indicated on the pedigree by an arrow and the letter P.
A pedigree contains information that can help establish how a trait is inherited and identify those at risk of developing or transmitting the trait; it is also a resource for establishing biological relationships within a family.Analysis of the information in the pedigree using the principles of Mendelian inheritance can determine whether a trait has a dominant or recessive pattern of inheritance.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with Marfan syndrome experience an eyesight problem called ____________________.
Q2) Most of those affected with an autosomal dominant genetic disorder are homozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are ____ basic patterns of Mendelian inheritance.
A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six
E) seven
Q4) Summarize the arguments,both for and against,for the hypothesis that Abraham Lincoln had Marfan syndrome.
Q5) Hemophilia is characterized by ____.
A) defects in the mechanism of blood clotting
B) an extremely low blood iron level
C) jaundice of the eyes and skin
D) muscular weakness and atrophy
E) breathing difficulties
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Chapter 5: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the approach using genomics to identify genes that contribute to the variations in cognitive ability observed in humans.
Q2) A measured heritability of 0.7 means that 70% of the phenotypic variation observed is due to genetic differences within the population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The additive model for polygenic inheritance proposes that the genes controlling a trait are all on one chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mendel's pea plants made good experimental subjects because they ____.
A) exhibit continuous variation
B) exhibit a variety of inheritance patterns
C) exhibit discontinuous variation and complete dominance
D) are sterile
E) have many complex traits that are easy to research
Q5) Dizygotic twins originate from two separate fertilization events.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics - Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define aneuploidy and describe the sex chromosome aneuploidies involved in Turner syndrome,Klinefelter syndrome,and XYY syndrome; list characteristics of each disorder.
Q2) The most common type of polyploidy in humans is ____.
A) trisomy
B) monosomy
C) triploidy
D) tetraploidy
E) haploidy
Q3) A chromosome that has a centrally-placed centromere is called ____________________.
Q4) A chromosome whose centromere is placed very close to,but not at,one end is called a(n)____________________ chromosome.
Q5) Fragile sites appear as ____________________ or ____________________ at specific sites on a chromosome.
Q6) There are no cases of -XX or Y individuals,but X individuals do exist.Propose an explanation for this statistic.
Q7) The karyotype designation for an infant with a deletion in the short arm of chromosome 5 (cri du chat syndrome)is ____________________
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Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain and nervous system of a developing embryo can only be damaged during the very early stages of development.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How is the timing of gamete formation in females different than that in males?
Q3) A zygote is a(n)____.
A) diploid cell
B) haploid cell
C) gamete
D) female gonad
E) male gonad
Q4) Any physical or chemical agent that brings about an increase in congenital malformations is called a(n)____.
A) teratogen
B) hormone
C) ARX factor
D) cytocin
E) trophoblast
Q5) Chromosomal sex of a fetus with the sex chromosomes XXY is almost always
9
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Chapter 8: The Structure - Replication - and Chromosomal
Organization of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) After contracting SARS,about ____ percent of the infected died.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) 100
Q2) Describe the structure of DNA using the accompanying figure as a reference.
Q3) Outline three properties of genes for which the Watson-Crick model offers an explanation.
Q4) SARS symptoms include ____.
A) high fever, headaches, and respiratory problems
B) brittle bones and rash
C) heart arrhythmia, kidney failure, and calcium depletion
D) liver cirrhosis and difficulty swallowing
E) eye pain, loss of vision, and headaches
Q5) Each chromosome contains a constricted region called a(n)____________________ where sister chromatids attach.
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Q6) Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin obtained X-ray diffraction photographs that indicted that DNA has a ____________________ shape with a constant diameter.
Chapter 9: Gene Expression and Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each amino acid has a different side chain,called a(n)____.
A) amino strand
B) carboxyl group
C) R group
D) glucose pentose configuration
E) ribosomal attachment
Q2) Messenger RNA is a(n)____ of the amino acid-coding nucleotide sequence of a gene.
A) exact copy of the DNA template
B) exact copy of the tRNA template
C) double-stranded complementary copy
D) single-stranded complementary copy
E) single-stranded anti-complementary copy
Q3) Discuss the concept and consequences of built-in redundancy as it applies to amino acid sequences,and include an example.
Q4) Transcribed DNA sequences that are removed during mRNA processing are called
Q5) George Beadle and Edward Tatum discovered the key step in showing that genes produce ____________________ through the action of proteins.
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss how only one blocked metabolic pathway,such as the one leading from phenylalanine,has the potential to cause many different disorders.
Q2) Metabolism is the sum of all _____________________ by which cells convert and utilize energy
Q3) An autosomally recessive metabolic disorder in the phenylalanine pathway that was first investigated by Garrod at the beginning of the twentieth century is ____________________.
Q4) The specific chemical compound that is acted on by an enzyme is called a(n)____________________.
Q5) The presence of phenylpyruvic acid in urine is directly linked to ____.
A) heart disease
B) colon cancer
C) intellectual disability
D) spina bifida
E) liver cirrhosis
Q6) Using breast cancer as an example,describe the importance of understanding the interactions of an individual's genotype with therapeutic drugs when treating patients
Q7) Summarize the metabolic process represented in the accompanying diagram. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Genome Alterations - Mutation and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect methods for measuring mutation rates make inferences from levels of genetic variation between and among ____________________.
Q2) Explain why individuals with cystic fibrosis have different levels of severity of the disease.
Q3) People with cystic fibrosis display a single phenotype for the disorder.
A)True B)False
Q4) In the 1970s,children's pajamas were treated with a(n)____________________ called tris-BP.
Q5) Describe how an epigenetic trait differs from a mutated trait.
Q6) Tris-BP was banned after the discovery that the chemical caused cancer in test animals and was ____________________ through the ____________________ by those wearing treated clothing.
Q7) Nucleotide substitutions are mutations that alter the ____________________,but not the ____________________,of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.
Q8) Mutations in ____________________ cells will be passed on by cell division,but cannot be transmitted to future generations.
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Q9) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome results from abnormalities of ____________________.
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)____________________ between chromosome 9 and chromosome 22 in chronic myelogenous leukemia results in a Philadelphia chromosome.
Q2) Outline the three criteria recommended by the American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO)for when cancer tests should be done.
Q3) List three properties that all forms of cancers share and summarize the origin of these properties.
Q4) Many specialized cells,such as white blood cells,____.
A) remain in G0 until stimulated by external signals to reenter the cell cycle and divide
B) remain in S until hormonal signals cause the cell to reenter the cell cycle and divide
C) divide continuously and never transition to G0
D) mutate into other cell types by signals from bone marrow cells
E) skip anaphase in order to avoid the high likelihood of mutation during this phase of mitosis
Q5) Genes that turn off or decrease the rate of cell division are known as ____________________ genes.
Q6) Outline the four characteristics of cancer.
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Page 15
Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasmids are short sequences of DNA used as primers in PCR.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although artificial selection may seem slow and unreliable,____________________ observed that after only a few generations,breeders produced many varieties of pigeons and minks.
Q3) Discuss the benefits of making genome sequencing techniques a routine part of medical care.
Q4) Nuclear transfer is a preferred method of cloning over embryo splitting because it
A) is less technical
B) is more natural
C) results in a larger number of cloned offspring
D) produces both male and female offspring from the same clone
E) uses haploid nuclei
Q5) Growth hormones given to dairy cows would still be necessary to stimulate milk production in a cloned animal.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A human ____________________ can be carried in just over 3,000 YACs.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mouse is a particularly useful model for studying human disease because _____.
A) mice and humans are 100% genetically identical
B) all mice are in essence, clones
C) mice do not feel pain and discomfort
D) mice and humans are the only species whose genomes have been sequenced E) approximately 90% of human disease-associated genes are present in the mouse genome
Q2) The use of recombinant DNA technology to produce commercial products is known as ____________________.
Q3) In the U.S.,the ____________________,a standardized set of thirteen STR alleles,is used to generate DNA profiles for legal cases.
Q4) Transgenic crops are planted in _____ countries,with the amount of land dedicated to such crops _____ every year.
A) more than 50; remaining the same B) more than 25; decreasing C) less than10; increasing D) more than 25; increasing E) just under 25; increasing
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ molecules are responsible for the phenotype of an organism.
Q2) Approximately what percentage of the human genome encodes proteins?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 15
E) 50
Q3) DNA sequences comprising open reading frames (ORFs)correspond to the coding regions of genes called ____________________.
Q4) Some people are unable to properly metabolize the drug Purinethol,which is given to patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia; therefore,such patients must be first tested for the associated genetic variant to determine proper dosage of the drug. This scenario best illustrates the use of _____.
A) pharmacogenomics
B) map-based sequencing
C) positional cloning
D) annotation of DNA sequences
E) comparative genomics
Q5) Genes on the same chromosome are said to show ____________________.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology - Genetic Testingand Gene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a male produces healthy gametes but his female partner can neither produce gametes nor carry a fetus,a(n)____________________ surrogate can be used to help them achieve successful reproduction.
Q2) A decreased risk of epigenetic imprinting disorders,such as Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome,is observed in children conceived following ART.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The three components of the female reproductive system that are required for successful reproduction are the eggs,____________________,and
Q4) The laws related to sperm donation and surrogacy are the same in each state in the US.
A)True B)False
Q5) Gene therapy has not yet cured any patient of his or her genetic disorder. A)True B)False
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Q6) Explain why infertility in women increases with advancing age,and how ART methods can overcome this problem in older women.
Chapter 17: Genes and The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the organisms that normally inhabit our skin help defend us against infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because there are so many HLA allele combinations,it is rare to find unrelated individuals with the same HLA halplotypes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The complement system functions to ____ and ____.
A) mobilize B cells; initiate antibody production
B) help the innate immune system; turn on expression of T-cell receptor protein genes
C) destroy invading cells; provide a physical barrier against pathogens
D) destroy invading cells; guide phagocytes to the infection site
E) destroy viruses; guide phagocytes to the site of inflammation
Q4) Redness,swelling,heat,and pain of an infection are a result of the adaptive immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how a mutant CC-CKR5 allele offers protection from HIV infection.
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the average age of the population increases,the incidence of Alzheimer's disease is also expected to increase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____________________develops from physiological adaptations that change brain function when exposed to certain environmental triggers.
Q3) Why is the most damage to the brains of Huntington disease patients observed in the striatum?
A) The Rhes protein, needed for mutant huntingtin to become toxic, is only produced in the striatum.
B) The huntingtin gene is only expressed in the striatum.
C) The mutant huntingtin protein becomes toxic when bound to the Rhes protein, which is abundant in the striatum.
D) Only the cells of the striatum contain the huntingtin mutation.
E) The CAG expansions are corrected in regions of the brain other than the striatum.
Q4) The gene associated with aggressive behavior in different studies is called
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans differ from each other by 1 in 1000 to 1 in 5000 nucleotides,while chimpanzees differ from each other by 1 in 500 nucleotides.This suggests that _____.
A) humans are a younger species
B) humans are an older species
C) humans descended directly from chimpanzees
D) chimpanzees descended directly from humans
E) chimpanzees and humans have identical proteomes
Q2) The Hardy-Weinberg law can be used to calculate allele and genotype frequencies without genetic testing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The gradient distributions of alleles across continents reflect _____.
A) the delineation of new races
B) genetic drift
C) human migration patterns
D) protective alleles
E) natural selection
Q4) On average,humans differ by _____________________% of their genomic sequences.
Q5) Outline the assumptions made in establishing the Hardy-Weinberg law.
Page 22
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