Genomics
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Genomics is the study of the structure, function, evolution, mapping, and editing of genomes the complete set of DNA within an organism. This course provides a comprehensive overview of key genomic concepts, including genome sequencing technologies, analysis of genetic variation, gene annotation, and comparative genomics. Students will explore practical applications such as personalized medicine, evolutionary biology, and biotechnology, while developing skills in bioinformatics tools and data interpretation. Emphasis will also be placed on ethical, legal, and social issues arising from genomic research.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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26 Chapters
276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cells and Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication occurs in all organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Cells that do not have a nucleus are .
A)prokaryotes
B)eukaryotes
C)not alive
D)animal cells
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following cellular organelles does not contain DNA?
A)nucleus
B)chloroplast
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)mitochondria
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sex-linked genes are found on .
A)the X chromosome only
B)the Y chromosome only
C)either the X or the Y chromosome
D)the autosomes
Answer: C
Q2) A triploid organism would have copies of all genes.
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
Answer: D
Q3) Which statement is false?
A)Individuals who are heterozygous for a defective gene are carriers of the defective allele.
B)Heterozygous individuals have the genetic disorder.
C)Heterozygotes have two different alleles for the same trait.
D)All of the above are false.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: DNA, RNA, and Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) During DNA base pairing,which of the following would be incorrectly paired?
A)guanine:cytosine
B)adenine:thymine
C)purine:purine
D)purine:pyrimindine
Answer: C
Q2) How many hydrogen bonds form between adenine and thymine?
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
Answer: C
Q3) All of the following are characteristics of RNA except .
A)double-stranded
B)uracil
C)single-stranded
D)2' hydroxyl
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Genes, genomes, and DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alu elements represent of the human genome.
A)less than 1%
B)4-5%
C)6-8%
D)more than 10%
Q2) Compared to the other answers listed,which is the least compacted structure?
A)DNA double helix
B)chromatid
C)30 nm fiber
D)nucleosome
Q3) DNA wrapped around histones are called .
A)chromatids
B)nucleosomes
C)heterochromatin
D)300 nm fibers
Q4) A large amount of satellite DNA is found .
A)in euchromatin
B)around the centromeres of chromosomes
C)in loosely packed forms of chromatin
D)in Alu elements.
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Chapter 5: Manipulation of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) FISH allows DNA or RNA to be visualized in its natural location.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What types of labels are added to probes to enable detection during hybridization experiments?
A)fluorescence
B)chemical
C)radioactive
D)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following fragments of DNA would migrate closest to the wells during agarose gel electrophoresis?
A)1000 bp
B)150 bp
C)10,000 bp
D)650 bp
Q4) Which type of blotting uses antibodies to detect proteins on a membrane?
A)Southern blot
B)Northern blot
C)Western blot
D)South-Western blot
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Chapter 6: Polymerase Chain Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the RNA primer during DNA synthesis?
A)DNA polymerase requires a 3' hydroxyl to initiate synthesis.
B)The primer helps the replication machinery find the origin of replication.
C)The primer is required for cleavage of the DNA to generate a loose end.
D)The primer signals DNA polymerase to terminate synthesis.
Q2) Messenger RNA from eukaryotic cells can be specifically amplified using
A)Standard PCR
B)RT-PCR
C)Differential display PCR
D)RACE
Q3) In addition to DNA polymerase,a PCR reaction mixture contains all of the following except .
A)Buffer
B)Primers
C)Deoxynucleotide triphosphates
D)Ligase
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Chapter 7: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Yeast artificial chromosomes must have and in order to function
A)origin of replication;internal resolution sites
B)telomere sequences;centromere sequences
C)multiple cloning sites;genes for nuclear proteins
D)multiple promoters;genes for antibiotic resistance
Q2) The purpose of the centromere sequence in YACs is to .
A)provide a multiple cloning site
B)allow correct partitioning of the plasmid in yeast
C)allow the vector to replicate in the yeast
D)select for the presence of the vector in the host
Q3) Reverse transcriptase generates cDNA from a template.
A)DNA
B)transfer RNA
C)messenger RNA
D)cDNA
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9
Chapter 8: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dideoxy nucleotides are missing a 3' hydroxyl.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are second generation sequencing methods except .
A)454 sequencing
B)Illumina/Solexa sequencing
C)SOLiD/Applied Biosystems method
D)Pyrosequencing
Q3) Nanopore technology is speedy and handles long DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which method is most useful for sequencing short DNA regions from multiple individuals?
A)dideoxy sequencing
B)pyrosequencing
C)primer walking
D)SMRT sequencing
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Chapter 9: Genomics Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes in the family are of particular interest due to their pharmaceuticals.
A)cytochrome P450
B)CYP2D6
C)Glutathione S-transferease D)SNP
Q2) The exon trapping method for determining eukaryotic coding sequences relies on A)flanking splice recognition sites,which are used during RNA processing B)complementary DNA that is produced prior to exon trapping C)both the promoter and polyA)tail recognition sequences D)the presences of restriction enzyme recognition sequences
Q3) In some metagenomic analyses,organisms in the community do not have to be cultured.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The genomes of some plants and a few protozoa have more genes than humans. A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Cell Division and DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is duplicated during mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In replication, is responsible for opening up and unwinding the DNA at
A)DNA polymerase
B)ligase
C)helicase
D)primase
Q3) During replicating,incoming nucleotides are always added to the free preceding nucleotide.
A)3' phosphate
B)5' phosphate
C)3' hydroxyl
D)5' hydroxyl
Q4) G1,S,and G2 are collectively called .
A)the cell cycle
B)interphase
C)cell division
D)cytokinesis
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Chapter 11: Transcription of Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is responsible for transcribing most eukaryotic protein-encoding genes?
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
Q2) The eukaryotic promoter recognized by RNA polymerase II contains three regions.Which of the following is not part of the trio?
A)TATA box
B)upstream elements
C)initiator box
D)Enhancer
Q3) The is the site on the DNA where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.
A)promoter
B)enhancer
C)5' UTR
D)origin
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processing of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The regions of transcript that contain protein coding sequence are called A)introns
B)exons
C)inteins
D)exteins
Q2) Multiple messenger RNAs can be generated from the same gene by selecting A)an alternative promoter when available
B)a different location for the addition of the polyA)tail
C)and splicing different exon cassettes
D)all of the above
Q3) Self-splicing introns,ribosomes,and RNase P are examples of . A)ribozymes
B)proteins
C)RNA processing enzymes
D)structural RNAs
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14
Chapter 13: Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Translation occurs in the of eukaryotes.
A)cytoplasm
B)nucleus
C)lysosomes
D)Golgi complexes
Q2) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A triplet of three nucleotides found on the DNA or mRNA that codes for one amino acid is called a/an .
A)anticodon
B)codon
C)trio
D)peptide
Q4) Which of the following is not associated with tRNA?
A)transfer of amino acids
B)anticodon loop
C)cloverleaf appearance
D)type of RNA translated into protein
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Chapter 14: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in can cause proteins to denature.
A)pH
B)salt concentration
C)temperature
D)all of the above
Q2) Regulatory sites separate from the active site on proteins are called sites.
A)binding
B)allosteric
C)inhibitory
D)competitive
Q3) All of the following are functions of proteins except .
A)defense
B)structural support
C)energy production
D)major plasma membrane component
Q4) Polar amino acids are hydrophilic and would be located on the exterior of proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Proteomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inteins .
A)are protein self-splicing sequences
B)are portions of mRNA that are spliced out of the primary transcript
C)are never translated
D)are protein sequences that are part of functional proteins
Q2) What is the proteome?
A)The total set of proteins in the cell at any given point.
B)The number of genes that are expressed in a specific growth condition.
C)The total set of proteins encoded by the organism's genome.
D)The number of expressed genes.
Q3) A method that uses an antibody to detect a specific protein is called
A)SDS-PAGE
B)Western blot
C)Mass Spectrometry
D)Yeast two hybrid system
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Global regulators .
A)control large numbers of genes in response to a broad,general signals
B)control large numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
C)control small numbers of genes in response to broad,general signals
D)control small numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
Q3) Which of the following is not an inducer of the lac operon?
A)allo-lactose
B)IPTG
C)glucose
D)lactose
Q4) Which of the following is an example of negative regulation?
A)A gene is switched on in the presence of an activator.
B)A gene is de-repressed.
C)A gene is induced.
D)A gene is switched off by a repressor protein.
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18
Chapter 17: Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Housekeeping genes are always .
A)off until needed
B)on
C)induced
D)repressed
Q2) DNA sequences in eukaryotes that are rich in guanine and cytosine are called are usually targets of .
A)inteins;acetylation
B)GC islands;methylation
C)promoters;transcriptional regulation
D)enhancers;mediator binding
Q3) In eukaryotes,negative regulation occurs by .
A)obstructing RNA polymerase II
B)interfering with activators
C)interfering with repressors
D)binding of repressors to operators
Q4) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) RISC proteins recognize small RNA fragments called .
A)Slicer
B)Dicer
C)siRNA
D)miRNA
Q2) Riboswitches .
A)can bind small molecules
B)are useful in translational control
C)are found on the 5' end of the mRNA
D)are all of the above
Q3) RNA interference occurs in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which nuclease is responsible for generating siRNA?
A)Ribonuclease P
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)RISC
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analysis of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNase I protection assays or DNA footprinting is useful for .
A)determining the start of transcription
B)determining the location of a DNA binding sequence
C)preventing contamination of RNA in primer extension samples
D)none of the above
Q2) DNA microarrays are appropriate for investigating the expression of one or a few genes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Microarrays and SAGE have the ability to monitor .
A)large numbers of mRNAs simultaneously
B)small numbers of specific mRNAs
C)proteins expressed under a given condition
D)the binding of a protein to a DNA or RNA molecule
Q4) Deletion analysis allows a researcher to examine the effects of regulatory proteins on gene expression.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Plasmids
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Q1) Plasmids in the same family are incompatible because .
A)they are transferable
B)they produce toxins
C)they carry genes for antibiotic resistance
D)they have similar DNA sequences in the replication genes
Q2) Plasmids are self-replicating extrachromosomal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Ti-plasmid is found in .
A)Escherichia coli
B)yeast
C)Agrobacterium tumefaciens
D)plants
Q4) Bidirectional replication for F-plasmids occurs at the .
A)origin of vegetative replication
B)origin of transfer
C)origin of chromosomal replication
D)linear ends
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Chapter 21: Viruses
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Q1) Viruses hijack host cell replication machinery to produce more viral particles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All viruses are .
A)parasitic
B)saprophytic
C)enveloped
D)bacteriophages
Q3) The largest virus is .
A)herpesvirus
B)poxvirus
C)mimivirus
D)HIV
Q4) Plaques are the result of .
A)bacteria infecting viruses
B)viruses infecting bacteria
C)viruses lysing bacteria
D)lysogens
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Mobile DNA
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Q1) The of Tn21 family of transposons acts as a gene acquisition and expression and has been implicated in the spread of antibiotic resistance.
A)IRS
B)integron
C)replicon
D)inverted repeats
Q2) Where might mobile DNA elements be found?
A)plasmids
B)chromosomes
C)viral genomes
D)all of the above
Q3) What is the purpose of the inverted repeats at the ends of DNA-based transposons?
A)The inverted repeats are recognized by enzymes that move the elements.
B)The inverted repeats are the sites of transfer.
C)The inverted repeats are recognized by restriction enzymes that cut out the transposon.
D)The inverted repeats are magnets for nucleases.
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Chapter 23: Mutations and Repair
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Q1) Spontaneous mutations occur .
A)from errors in replication
B)when organisms grow at high temperatures
C)in the presence of mutagens
D)from ultraviolet radiation
Q2) Mutations occur more frequently in hotspots.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In some repair mechanisms,the parental DNA strand is used as a guide for repairing mistakes made in the newly synthesized DNA strand.The cell is able to distinguish the parental strand from the new strand because immediately following replication,the DNA is .
A)fully methylated
B)still single-stranded
C)hemi-methylated
D)non-methylated
Q4) DNA polymerases often proofread their recently inserted nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Recombination
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Q1) Homologous recombination is .
A)the exchange of DNA between similar sequences
B)the exchange of DNA between dissimilar sequences
C)the formation of a heteroduplex
D)the removal of a holiday junction
Q2) RAD genes are essential for recombination events during both mitosis and meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chi sites are .
A)generated from Holliday junctions
B)inverted repeats
C)binding sites for RecA protein
D)specific sequences in prokaryotic genomes where crossovers occur
Q4) Site specific recombination only occurs for homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Holliday junction only forms during excision.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) Hfr strains have an integrated .
A)F plasmid
B)R plasmid
C)prophage
D)lysogen
Q2) A prophage .
A)only occurs when a viral genome is integrated into the host genome
B)is replicated along with host cell DNA
C)occurs in the lysogenic life cycle of viruses.
D)all of the above
Q3) The uptake of naked DNA from the environment is called .
A)transfection
B)conjugation
C)transduction
D)transformation
Q4) Only the can initiate conjugation.
A)F<sup>-</sup>
B)F<sup>+</sup>
C)Hfr
D)recipient
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Chapter 26: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) Evolution relies upon .
A)mutations made in somatic cells only
B)mutations occurring in gametes
C)mutations that result in altered protein function of somatic cells
D)mutations in mRNA only
Q2) Which of the following helps support the RNA World hypothesis?
A)ribozymes
B)catalytic RNAs
C)genetic information encoded on RNA
D)all of the above
Q3) Which was likely the first molecule of life?
A)DNA
B)RNA
C)protein
D)lipids
Q4) Life likely evolved under .
A)a reducing atmosphere
B)cold conditions
C)oxidizing conditions
D)dehydrating conditions
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