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Genomics and Society explores the rapidly evolving field of genomics and its profound impacts on individuals, communities, and global society. The course examines the scientific principles behind genome analysis, sequencing technologies, and genetic modification while addressing the social, ethical, legal, and policy implications of genomic discoveries. Students will discuss topics such as personalized medicine, genetic privacy, ancestry testing, gene editing (CRISPR), and the use of genomics in public health and agriculture. Through case studies and debates, the course encourages critical thinking about how new genomic knowledge shapes contemporary society and future possibilities.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics and Society 2nd Edition by Ronnee Yashon
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995 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) the nonspecific gonad develops into this structure in human females
Answer: B
Q2) The villi
A) extend into the spaces in the uterine wall.
B) are fingerlike projections.
C) will eventually form part of the placenta.
D) come in contact with the maternal blood.
E) All of these are true.
Answer: E
Q3) Describe the genetic factors required for the development of the male internal and external sex organs.Describe the genetic factors required for the development of the female internal and external sex organs.
Answer: In males,the pathway begins with the action of a gene (SRY)on the Y chromosome,the presence of at least one X chromosome,and expression of genes carried on the other 22 chromosomes.In females,the pathway begins with the presence of two X chromosomes,the absence of Y chromosome genes,and expression of a female-specific set of genes on the X chromosome and the other 22 chromosomes.
Q4) sperm enter the female reproductive tract here
Answer: E
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Q1) Spermatids lack tails.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is the most common reason that an infertile couple would choose surrogacy?
A) The male does not produce sperm.
B) The woman cannot ovulate.
C) The couple would like to choose the sex of their child.
D) The male's sperm lack tails.
E) The woman's uterus is incapable of maintaining a pregnancy.
Answer: E
Q3) An increase in this hormone level is measured by home ovulation tests.
A) chorionic gonadotropin hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) estrogen
D) testosterone
E) None of these are measured by home ovulation tests.
Answer: B
Q4) testosterone is produced here
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polar bodies form
A) only if fertilization occurs.
B) due to unequal cytoplasmic division during oogenesis.
C) only when a nondisjunction event has occurred.
D) due to unequal cytoplasmic division during spermatogenesis.
E) after a woman has reached menopause.
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following trisomies can still lead to live births EXCEPT
A) Trisomy 1
B) Trisomy 13
C) Trisomy 18
D) Trisomy 21
E) Trisomy 8
Answer: A
Q3) The location of this can vary depending on the chromosome.
Answer: B
Q4) Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have XXY sex chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 5
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about the genetic disease cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A) CF demonstrates autosomal recessive inheritance.
B) CF increases the risk of skin cancer.
C) CF patients produce abnormal blood cells.
D) CF causes excessive accumulation of phenylalanine in the blood.
E) CF causes improper metabolism in nerve cells.
Q2) Hemophilia A is a(n)____ disorder.
A) X-linked recessive
B) autosomal dominant
C) autosomal recessive
D) X-linked dominant
E) non-genetic
Q3) Sickle-cell is
A) found commonly in people whose ancestors originate from parts of North America.
B) inherited as a dominant disorder.
C) caused by abnormal hemoglobin molecules.
D) not associated with any known health problems.
E) more common in males than females.
Q4) Why do males show a higher incidence of certain genetic disorders than females?
Page 6
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Q1) How many different amino acids are found in proteins?
A) 4
B) 10
C) 16
D) 20
E) 64
Q2) The signal on the mRNA that causes translation to stop is the A) start codon.
B) termination tRNA.
C) stop codon.
D) start methionine.
E) termination sequence.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about sickle cell anemia?
A) Affected individuals have a wide range of symptoms.
B) It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
C) It can lead to early death if left untreated.
D) It results from a mutation in the gene that encodes beta globin.
E) All of these are correct.
Q4) site of protein synthesis
Q5) carries genetic information from nucleus to cytoplasm
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Q1) Mutations are only
A) changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA.
B) changes in the amino acid sequence of proteins.
C) changes in the nucleotide sequence of RNA.
D) caused by mistakes in DNA replication.
E) caused by environmental agents.
Q2) Methylation within the region of a promoter increases expression of that gene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chemicals present in some pesticides
A) resemble the phosphate groups found in DNA.
B) cause base insertion mutations.
C) change the structure of DNA bases.
D) cause single-nucleotide substitution mutations.
E) cause mutations by binding to the DNA polymerase.
Q4) All mutations are harmful.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the difference between mutations that occur in body cells compared to mutations that occur in germ cells.
8
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Q1) Many people with diabetes must take insulin.Most take
A) natural insulin isolated from humans who overproduce the protein.
B) natural insulin isolated from pigs and cows.
C) synthetic insulin produced through the use of recombinant DNA technology.
D) natural insulin produced in plants.
E) synthetic insulin isolated from transgenic humans.
Q2) Transgenic organisms
A)An animal or plant that carries a gene from another species
B)Important source of organs for transplants
C)An animal model for cancer
D)Proteins that cut DNA in specific places
E)Source for the production of human growth hormone
F)Beta-carotene
G)Carrier molecules used in recombinant DNA technology
H)An animal model for immune deficiency disorders
Q3) Animal models can be used to screen drugs to identify those that improve symptoms of different diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What are the genetic and biochemical basis for PKU? What type of treatment is recommended for individuals diagnosed with the disease? Explain why mandatory screening for PKU exists in every state and is considered to be ethically appropriate,while this is not the case for screening for other genetic conditions.
Q2) PKU
A)Sonar imaging of a fetus
B)Treatments include dialysis
C)Carriers were prevented from joining the United State Air Force
D)Analyzes DNA present in amniotic fluid
E)Procedure where a needle is inserted through the abdominal and uterine wall
F)Leads to death by age 3 or 4
G)Blastomere genetic testing
H)Can be done at 8-10 weeks of pregnancy
I)Treatment involves avoiding phenylalanine in the diet
Q3) Amniocentesis is typically recommended
A) only if both of the parents have a known chromosomal abnormality.
B) if the mother will be 25 years or older when she gives birth.
C) if the parents have already had a child with a chromosomal abnormality.
D) if the father is affected by an X-linked disorder.
E) anytime a couple is expecting a child.
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Q1) PCR is a valuable tool for DNA forensics.It
A) allows the generation of instant DNA profiles from large amounts of DNA.
B) allows the generation of DNA profiles from very small amounts of DNA.
C) is the only tool used to generate DNA profiles.
D) allows small amounts of DNA to be visualized under the microscope.
E) allows large amounts of DNA to be visualized under the microscope.
Q2) Which of the following DNA elements have NOT been used to develop DNA profiles?
A) minisatellites
B) STRs
C) RFLPs
D) telomeres
E) All of these have been used to develop DNA profiles.
Q3) What was the first U.S.court case to challenge the admissibility DNA evidence?
A) Frye v. U.S.
B) People v. Castro
C) Narborough Village Murders
D) Jennifer Thompson-Canino v. Ronald Cotton
E) Margaret Sackler v. William Bern
Q4) DNA profiling has numerous applications.Besides its use providing evidence in criminal cases,list four other applications of this technology.
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Q1) Two genes that are genetically linked to each other can be separated by crossing over.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The field of proteomics involves ____.
A) the large-scale study noncoding DNA.
B) the large-scale study of the structure and function of proteins.
C) the analysis of transposons.
D) the visualization of large amounts of DNA under the microscope.
E) identifying the location of genes on chromosomes.
Q3) What is gene therapy? Describe how gene therapy can be used to correct genetic disorders.
Q4) The more family pedigrees studied,the more accurate the estimate of the distance between two linked genes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The markers used in positional cloning are always genes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are some of the legal and ethical questions associated with genomics?
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Q1) What is the difference between simple traits and complex traits? What are polygenic and multifactorial traits?
Q2) The presence of the same trait in both members of a pair of twins
A)multifactorial trait
B)intelligence quotient
C)concordance
D)bell curve
E)monozygotic twins
F)developmental dyslexia
G)spina bifida
H)folic acid
Q3) Which of the following statements about spina bifida is true?
A) Spina bifida (SB) is not influenced by the environment.
B) Spina bifida does not show any family clustering.
C) A gene associated with the neural tube defects has been identified in mice but no such gene exists in humans.
D) The human X chromosome contains the gene associated with neural tube defects.
E) A couple that has a child with spina bifida has an increased risk of having another child with spina bifida.
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Q1) Philadelphia chromosome
A)Translocation
B)Breast cancer
C)Oncogene
D)Skin cancer
E)Tumor suppressor gene
F)Cervical cancer
G)Lung cancer
Q2) Proteins encoded by the ____ genes turn off or decrease the rate of cell division.
A) tumor suppressor
B) oncogenes
C) proto-oncogenes
D) DNA repair
E) DNA replication genes
Q3) Because males have much less breast tissue than females,males do not get breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is cancer? Why is it considered a complex disease?
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Q1) Schizophrenia is a
A) multifactorial condition that affects behavior.
B) recessive genetic condition that affects behavior.
C) only determined by environmental conditions.
D) disorder that develops due to exposure to toxins.
E) disorder that cannot be treated.
Q2) Bipolar disorder
A)A mutated form of the gene causes serotonin not to break down
B)Cell loss in the brain
C)An area in the chromosome is prone to breakage
D)Some are more aggressive, taller males
E)Lithium treatment
Q3) Mice are often used to study human behavior for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) mice are easy to maintain.
B) mice reproduce rapidly.
C) the behaviors of mice are easy to observe.
D) the genome of a mouse can be genetically manipulated.
E) mice have many genes not found in humans.
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV can be transmitted through A) food.
B) water.
C) casual contact with an infected individual.
D) all of these .
E) none of these.
Q2) When B cells are activated,____ cells are produced. A) antigen-destroying
B) T4 helper
C) memory
D) killer T
E) autoimmune
Q3) What blood type is considered to be the universal donor? Which is the universal recipient? What do these terms mean?
Q4) In terms of blood type,what are the blood types of the offspring that can potentially be produced by a mother who has blood type A and a father who has blood type B? Provide appropriate Punnett squares to illustrate your conclusions.
Q5) Describe the problems that arise from (a)maternal Rh incompatibility and (b)ABO blood type incompatibility?
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Q1) What is a major reason the population studied by Nancy Wexler has such a high frequency of Huntington disease?
A) The population was genetically very diverse.
B) Huntington disease originated in this population.
C) People in the population all ate the same foods.
D) People in the population all shared the same water supply.
E) The population was reproductively isolated.
Q2) Which of the following statements describes the relationship between malaria and sickle cell anemia?
A) People infected with the malaria parasite are more likely to develop sickle cell anemia.
B) The same parasite is responsible for both diseases.
C) There is almost complete overlap in the geographic distributions of the two diseases.
D) People suffering from sickle cell anemia are more likely to contract malaria.
E) There is no overlap between the geographic distributions of the two diseases.
Q3) The frequency of a trait may vary from population to population.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Modern humans have existed for more than 500,000 years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about primates is FALSE?
A) The primate group includes tarsiers.
B) The primates consist of two main groups.
C) Primates have forward-facing eyes.
D) The Old World monkeys are in the prosimian group; the New World monkeys are in anthropoid group.
E) Primates have large brains relative to their body size.
Q3) In The State of Tennessee v.John Thomas Scopes,Scopes was found guilty and served 30 days in jail.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how Y chromosome and mitochondrial SNP haplotypes can be used to trace ancient human migrations.
Q5) Genomic comparisons indicate that Neanderthals and modern humans interbred. A)True
B)False
Q6) What are characteristics shared by all primates?
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Q1) BRCAnalysis®
A)Animal model for deafness
B)Breast cancer genes
C)Fitter family contests
D)Anti-cancer drug
E)Cloned dog
F)Mutant myostatin gene
G)Forced sterilization
H)Removal of breast tissue
I)Nuclear transfer
Q2) Describe the problems that arise from (a)maternal Rh incompatibility and (b)ABO blood type incompatibility?
Q3) In the early part of the 20 century,the U.S.Eugenics Office ran contests to pick families with the "best genetics".What was the basis for this program?
A) forced sterilization
B) negative eugenics
C) national security
D) positive eugenics
E) Nazi doctrine
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Q1) Golgi apparatus
Q2) Human chromosomes
A) bind to the ribosomes in the production of proteins.
B) are found in the nucleoli.
C) are present in 46 pairs in all cells.
D) are assembled on ribosomes.
E) carry genetic information.
Q3) Which part of the cell contains chromatin?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) cytoplasm
C) plasma membrane
D) lysosomes
E) nucleus
Q4) nucleus
Q5) The Golgi apparatus is responsible for energy production within the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The HLA markers are present in the cytoplasm of the cell.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All of the following describe functions of DNA polymerase EXCEPT
A) produces DNA molecules that contain one old strand and one new strand.
B) adds complementary base pairs to the growing strand.
C) links together nucleotides.
D) detects errors in the replication process and corrects the mistake.
E) produces RNA molecules.
Q2) Which of the following is a pyrimidine?
A) uracil
B) adenine
C) guanine
D) ribose
E) deoxyribose
Q3) The DNA model proposed by Watson and Crick offered a molecular explanation for mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of Rosalind Franklin's X-ray diffraction photos was crucial for Watson and Crick to develop their model of DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All of the following have been associated with viral infections EXCEPT
A) liver cancer.
B) cervical cancer.
C) Kaposi sarcoma
D) skin cancer.
E) Burkitt's lymphoma.
Q2) In general,naturally occurring environmental agents do not play a role in causing cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ is a drug prescribed in the treatment of estrogen-sensitive breast cancers.
A) Endoxifen
B) Phenylthiocarbamide
C) Tamoxifen
D) Polyvinyl chloride
E) 5-HTT
Q4) Rheumatoid Arthritis is considered an autoimmune disease.
A)True
B)False
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