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Genomics and Society explores the impact of advances in genomic science on individuals, communities, and broader societal frameworks. The course examines the ethical, legal, and social implications of genome sequencing, gene editing, personalized medicine, and genetic privacy. Students will analyze how genomic information influences healthcare, policy decisions, and cultural perceptions, as well as debates surrounding genetic discrimination, patenting of genetic information, and bioethics. Through case studies and discussions, learners will develop a nuanced understanding of the ways in which genomics reshapes human identity, societal norms, and the future of medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics and Society 2nd Edition by
Ronnee Yashon
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20 Chapters
995 Verified Questions
995 Flashcards
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65 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which trimester(s)does the most rapid fetal growth take place?
A) first trimester
B) second trimester
C) third trimester
D) There is equal fetal growth in all trimesters.
E) It varies depending on each individual pregnancy.
Answer: C
Q2) An individual who is (45,X)would be phenotypically female.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) implantation will occur here
Answer: D
Q4) The _____ will eventually form the fetus.
A) inner cell mass of the blastocyst
B) outer layer of cells of the blastocyst
C) internal cavity of the blastocyst
D) outer layer of chorion
E) inner layer of placenta
Answer: A

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Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Ovaries contain several hundred follicles.
B) If fertilization does not occur, the endometrium is shed.
C) Secondary oocytes are released from follicles during ovulation.
D) Oogonia begin meiosis after birth.
E) At birth a female has a lifetime supply of developing eggs.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of the male reproductive system?
A) testes
B) urethra
C) epididymis
D) cervix
E) vas deferens
Answer: D
Q3) Under what circumstances might a couple decide to use a paid surrogate stranger?
Answer: The most common reason to use a surrogate would be if the woman does not have a uterus or if the uterus does not function properly.Often a relative or friend volunteers to carry the baby for an infertile couple and give the baby to them after birth.If this is not the case,the couple may opt to contract a paid stranger to act as the surrogate.
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Q1) The location of this can vary depending on the chromosome. Answer: B
Q2) The condition in which there is only a single copy of an autosome in a diploid cell is known as
A) monosomy.
B) trisomy.
C) diploidy.
D) polyploidy.
E) haploidy.
Answer: A
Q3) Sister chromatids.
Answer: D
Q4) Which of the following chromosomes is the smallest in size?
A) chromosome 22
B) chromosome 1
C) X chromosome
D) chromosome 12
E) chromosome 2
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is true about the genetic disease familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
A) FH is a condition characterized by very high levels of cholesterol in the blood.
B) FH is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
C) FH is a form of dwarfism.
D) FH results from the accumulation of a protein called huntingtin.
E) FH is inherited as a X-linked recessive trait.
Q2) Which of the following is true about the genetic disease cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A) CF demonstrates autosomal recessive inheritance.
B) CF increases the risk of skin cancer.
C) CF patients produce abnormal blood cells.
D) CF causes excessive accumulation of phenylalanine in the blood.
E) CF causes improper metabolism in nerve cells.
Q3) Why might an insurance company or possible employer want access to an individual's genetic information? Do you feel that there are good reasons for an insurance company or employer to have access? What safeguards are in place to prevent this access?
Q4) Why do males show a higher incidence of certain genetic disorders than females?
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Q1) codon
Q2) carboxyl group
Q3) Explain how genes control traits.Explain how genes are involved in genetic disorders.
Q4) Hemoglobin is made up of
A) four identical protein chains.
B) two different protein chains.
C) four different protein chains.
D) three identical protein chains.
E) none of these.
Q5) Gene regulation is important because
A) all genes have to be expressed in all cells.
B) all the cells in the body have to express the same genes at the same time.
C) genes are constantly changing due to mutation.
D) different genes need to be expressed in different cells.
E) no two cells in the body will express the same genes.
Q6) Changing how tightly the DNA is wound does not affect gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q7) carries genetic information from nucleus to cytoplasm
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Q1) All mutations are harmful.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Epigenetic modifications alter the regulation of gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Methylation within the region of a promoter increases expression of that gene.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Genetic imprinting
A) is due to DNA mutations.
B) affects all genes.
C) assures that both the maternal and paternal copies of each gene are expressed.
D) is due to epigenetic changes.
E) has not been seen in any genetic disorder.
Q5) Cite examples of how nucleotide repeats can cause genetic disorders.How does the number of repeats relate to the severity of the disorder?
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Q1) Embryonic stem cells can only form a limited number of cell types.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Currently,the benefits of transgenic crops include all of the following EXCEPT
A) resistance to insects.
B) production of human proteins in large quantities.
C) raising the increased nutritional value of crops.
D) resistance to viral or fungal diseases.
E) turning modification of weeds into crops.
Q3) What advantages has biotechnology provided over previous methods to produce genetically modified crops?
Q4) Distinguish between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells.Make sure to include information on the source of each cell,potential to form different cell types,and their current and potential uses.
Q5) Gene therapy
A) clinical trials have all been successful.
B) requires the use of embryonic stem cells.
C) can be accomplished using adult stem cells.
D) attempts to provide patients with normal copies of mutant genes.
E) can only to be used to treat cancer patients.
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Q1) Tay-Sachs
A)Sonar imaging of a fetus
B)Treatments include dialysis
C)Carriers were prevented from joining the United State Air Force
D)Analyzes DNA present in amniotic fluid
E)Procedure where a needle is inserted through the abdominal and uterine wall
F)Leads to death by age 3 or 4
G)Blastomere genetic testing
H)Can be done at 8-10 weeks of pregnancy
I)Treatment involves avoiding phenylalanine in the diet
Q2) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)
A) can be used to detect genetic abnormalities before the oocyte is fertilized.
B) can be used to detect genetic abnormalities before the embryo is implanted in the mother.
C) requires analysis of all of the blastomeres in the early embryo.
D) takes place after in vitro fertilization.
E) depends on direct microscopic analysis of embryonic cells.
Q3) Genetic testing can be done on fetuses,newborns,children,and adults.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All STRs are located on the X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) mtDNA
A)useful for tracking maternal ancestry
B)passed only from fathers to sons
C)information stored in CODIS
D)a series of specific DNA markers
E)repeated sequences of 10-100 base pairs in length
F)DNA differences that are only one base pair long
G)method to make many copies of a segment of DNA
H)analysis using restriction enzymes
Q3) What was the landmark U.S.court case to determine whether scientific evidence should be admissible as "good science"?
A) Frye v. U.S.
B) People v. Castro
C) Narborough Village Murders
D) Jennifer Thompson-Canino v. Ronald Cotton
E) Margaret Sackler v. William Bern
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Q1) All of an organism's genetic information is contained in its
A) DNA profile.
B) genome.
C) mtDNA.
D) proteins.
E) exome.
Q2) Crossing over
A)Technique used to determine the location of a gene
B)Particular genes are often inherited jointly
C)Provides clues to the location of genes
D)A collection of DNA sequences that represents all regions of the genome
E)DNA sequences that are useful for identifying the positions of genes
F)Repetitive DNA with the ability to replicate and move around the genome
G)Map units of linkage maps
H)Repetitive sequences that are thought to have played an important role in human evolution
I)Genetic exchange between chromosomes
J)Repetitive sequences comprising about 17% of the genome
Q3) Describe how an Alu sequence insertion may have played a role in human evolution.
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Q1) Height does not follow a bell-shaped curve population distribution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are four basic types of spina bifida.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the case of complex traits,
A) all of the genes involved are present on the same chromosome.
B) at least three genes are involved.
C) the phenotype is determined strictly by environmental factors.
D) there can be a wide range of phenotypes.
E) the trait is never influenced by environmental factors.
Q4) Scientists studying the genes controlling intelligence have
A) studied humans.
B) used animal models.
C) used recombinant DNA techniques.
D) found that Drosophila has biochemical pathways that are also found in humans.
E) All of these are true.
Q5) What is the difference between simple traits and complex traits? What are polygenic and multifactorial traits?
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Q1) Chromosomal translocations can lead to some forms of leukemia and myeloma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cancer is
A) a single disease that only affects a few different cell types.
B) characterized by uncontrolled cell growth.
C) always caused by a viral infection.
D) always caused by a bacterial infection.
E) All of these describe cancer.
Q3) What is the normal function of a tumor suppressor gene?
A) It helps cells maintain the cytoplasm
B) It prevents protein assembly
C) It suppresses mutational events
D) It activates cellular division
E) It halts cellular division
Q4) Because males have much less breast tissue than females,males do not get breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is cancer? Why is it considered a complex disease?
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Q1) Which of the following human traits has the lowest concordance rate in identical twins?
A) eye color
B) blood type
C) diabetes
D) schizophrenia
E) alcoholism in males
Q2) Dizygotic twins
A) have identical genetic sequences.
B) share about half of their genes.
C) must be the same sex.
D) exhibit genetic differences from each other caused by environmental influences after fertilization.
E) always show higher concordance values than do identical twins.
Q3) Studying behavior in animals does not provide information about human behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q4) MAOA deficiency leads to overproduction of serotonin.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Can a woman with blood type A have a child with blood type O?
A) Yes, but only if the father has type O blood.
B) No, this is not possible genetically.
C) No, to have a child with type O blood, the mother must also have type O blood.
D) Yes, but only if the mother is IAIA and the father is IAIO.
E) Yes, but the mother must be IAIO.
Q2) What are some possible reasons for the increasing numbers of children and adults with peanut allergies?
Q3) What is unusual about people who are naturally resistant to HIV infection?
A) They are all homozygous for a mutant allele of the CC-CKR5 gene.
B) They are all homozygous for a mutant allele of the HLA complex gene.
C) They are all homozygous for a mutant allele of the Rh gene.
D) They do not have any T4 helper cells.
E) They are all heterozygous for a mutant allele of the CC-CKR5 gene.
Q4) Briefly explain how HIV drugs work.What is the usual approach to the use of HIV drugs for an HIV infected patient?
Q5) Describe the problems that arise from (a)maternal Rh incompatibility and (b)ABO blood type incompatibility?
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Q1) What are the ethical concerns for collecting genetic information on an entire population? Should everyone be required to submit a sample,or should it be more selective?
Q2) Huntington disease is an example of a genetic condition that is inherited in a dominant fashion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Heterozygote advantage
A)Used to estimate carrier frequency
B)Lung health problems
C)Percentage of heterozygotes
D)Often provides resistance to some infectious disease
E)Triplet repeats
F)Transmitted by mosquitoes
G)Red blood cells are altered
H)Artificial selection
I)Disclosure of evidence
Q4) The frequency of a trait may vary from population to population.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Direct ancestor of modern humans
A)Ardipithecus
B)Australopithecus
C)Paranthropus
D)Homo habilis
E)Homo erectus
F)Homo neanderthalensis
G)Homo floresiensis
H)Homo sapiens
Q2) The out-of-Africa hypothesis of human origins proposes that proposes that Homo sapiens originated from
A) Homo habilis after H. habilis migrated from Africa.
B) Homo erectus after H. erectus migrated from Africa.
C) Homo habilis before H. habilis migrated from Africa.
D) Homo erectus before H. erectus migrated from Africa.
E) Homo neanderthalensis in Europe.
Q3) In The State of Tennessee v.John Thomas Scopes,Scopes was found guilty and served 30 days in jail.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In the U.S.,the ____ movement began by applying Darwin and Wallace's theory of natural selection to humans.
A) selective breeding
B) national security
C) natural selection
D) evolutionary
E) eugenics
Q2) Presently,the analysis of fetal cells extracted from the mother's blood to test for Down syndrome is very accurate,with almost 0% false positive results.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many copies of the mutant myostatin gene is/are necessary for the whippets to develop into a "bully" whippet?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 0
Q4) What roles do T helper cells and B cells play in our immune response?
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Q1) Which cell will contain only 23 chromosomes?
A) sperm cell
B) stem cell
C) somatic cell
D) germ cell
E) zygote
Q2) The lysosomes
A) contain digestive enzymes.
B) are involved in energy production.
C) contain chromatin.
D) are the sites of protein synthesis.
E) are not known to be involved in any genetic disorders.
Q3) Golgi apparatus
Q4) What is the function of mitochondria?
A) sites of protein production
B) synthesizes plasma membrane lipids
C) organelle recycling
D) energy production for the cell
E) sorts and distributes proteins
Q5) nucleus
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Q1) A single DNA nucleotide consists of all of the following components EXCEPT
A) a phosphate group.
B) deoxyribose.
C) a nitrogenous base.
D) uracil.
E) none of these.
Q2) One of Rosalind Franklin's X-ray diffraction photos was crucial for Watson and Crick to develop their model of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How can UV light exposure cause DNA mutations?
A) The UV light disrupts normal base pairing of the DNA at the site of the damage.
B) The UV light disrupts the DNA repair systems in the cell.
C) The UV light changes the DNA polymerase so it makes more mistakes.
D) The UV light causes breaks in the DNA strands.
E) The UV light separates the two strands of the double helix.
Q4) Nucleotides are made of four components.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Being a carrier of the sickle-cell allele can be beneficial for some people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Multifactorial traits are affected by
A) only genetics.
B) only environmental factors.
C) both genetics and the environment.
D) the prenatal environment.
E) all of these.
Q3) All of the following environmental factors have been implicated in cancer EXCEPT A) viral infection.
B) exposure to X-rays.
C) exposure to polyvinyl chloride.
D) exposure to UV light.
E) exposure to PTC.
Q4) The 5-HTT gene complex proteins may determine who will develop an autoimmune disease.
A)True
B)False

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