Genomic Nursing Review Questions
Course Introduction
Genomic Nursing explores the integration of genomic information into nursing practice, emphasizing the critical role nurses play in applying genetic and genomic knowledge to patient care. The course covers foundational concepts in genomics, the ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic information, and practical skills such as family history assessment, risk identification, and genetic counseling. Students will learn how to interpret genomic data, collaborate with interdisciplinary teams, and provide personalized care, ensuring they are prepared to support patients in decision-making related to genetic health conditions across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 1st Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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18 Chapters
307 Verified Questions
307 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3775
Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75308
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the expected expressed blood types of children born to a mother who is B/O for blood type and a father who is A/B for blood type?
A)25% A,25% B,25% O,25% AB
B)25% A,50% B,0% O,25% AB
C)50% A,25% B,25% O,0% AB
D)50% A,25% B,0% O,25% AB
Answer: B
Q2) At what phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes visible as separate structures?
A)G<sub>1</sub>
B)G<sub>2</sub>
C)S
D)M
Answer: D
Q3) What is the purpose of phosphorous in a DNA strand?
A)Linking the nucleotides into a strand
B)Holding complementary strands together
C)Ensuring that a purine is always paired with a pyrimidine
D)Preventing the separation of double-stranded DNA into single-stranded DNA
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A strand of recently transcribed messenger RNA contains the following components:
1)exon
2)intron
3)intron
4)exon
5)intron
Which sequence represents the mature messenger RNA?
A)1,4
B)2,3,5
C)2,3,4
D)1,2,3,4,5
Answer: A
Q2) Which feature or characteristic is most critical for protein function or activity?
A)The number of amino acids
B)The sequence of amino acids
C)Deletion of all active exons
D)Transcription occurring after translation
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Genetic Influences on Cell Growth, cell
Differentiation, and Gametogenesis
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meiosis II of oocytes is completed at which developmental period?
A)At the ninth prenatal week
B)During puberty
C)At ovulation
D)At fertilization
Answer: D
Q2) Which feature or characteristic of early embryonic cells is unique in comparison with normal differentiated cells?
A)Diploidy
B)Pluripotency
C)Controlled cell division
D)Mitosis resulting in four new daughter cells
Answer: B
Q3) Which stage of cell division is present in mitosis but is missing in meiosis?
A)G<sub>1</sub>
B)S
C)G<sub>2</sub>
D)M
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the X chromosome is true?
A)Most of the X chromosome genes encode proteins that have no role in female sexual development.
B)Heterozygous females are more severely affected by X-linked dominant disorders than heterozygous males.
C)When dominant alleles are present on the X chromosome,they are expressed in a recessive manner in the hemizygous state.
D)When males have the unusual condition of two Y chromosomes and are missing the X chromosome,all physiologic function remains normal.
Q2) If there are 10 possible alleles for the single gene trait of nose shape,how many alleles can a person with euploid chromosomes inherit from his or her biological parents?
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Chapter 5: Chromosomal and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best explanation of a child having the physical phenotype of Down syndrome but having a totally normal karyotype on chromosomal analysis of blood?
A)Mosaicism of trisomy 21 in various tissues
B)Inaccurate technique for chromosomal analysis
C)Uniparental disomy for somatic cells but not for germ cells
D)Selective chromosome loss during meiosis II of gametogenesis
Q2) What is the risk for a man with a 47,XYY karyotype to produce a child with a 47,XYY karyotype?
A)100%
B)50%
C)25%
D)0%
Q3) Which clinical feature is a common finding for infants with trisomy 21,trisomy 18,and trisomy 13?
A)Rocker bottom feet
B)Single palmar crease
C)Small,close-set eyes
D)Cleft lip (with or without cleft palate)
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Chapter 6: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marjory tells a nurse that she has three aunts with cancer.The two on her father's side were diagnosed with breast and ovarian cancers at ages 42 and 36.She also has one aunt on her mother's side who was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 70.Marjory asks if she should have genetic testing.What should the nurse tell her?
A)"Your family history indicates a high risk and you should definitely have genetic testing."
B)"Because no men in your family are affected it is not inherited cancer,so you don't need mammograms or any special screening practices."
C)"Because your aunts were older when they got breast cancer it was probably sporadic and you should just have regular mammograms like everyone else."
D)"Your family history may indicate an increased risk for breast cancer,and a genetic counselor could help determine whether you could benefit from genetic testing."
Q2) Why is a pedigree considered an "unstable" product?
A)The person collecting the information may not be a genetics professional.
B)Some family members may have lied about their reproductive history.
C)The memories of older family members may be inaccurate.
D)The health of living family members continues to evolve.
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Chapter 7: Congenital Anomalies, basic Dysmorphology, and Genetic Assessment
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best description of a drug prescribed to control acne that also causes severe birth defects when it is taken during pregnancy?
A)Pleiotropic
B)Teratogenic
C)Carcinogenic
D)Geneticomimetic
Q2) Which term is used to describe an anomaly caused by a physical or mechanical force that prevents the proper growth of a structure that would have developed normally if the force was not present?
A)Dysplasia
B)Disruption
C)Deformation
D)Malformation
Q3) Which ear location is considered "low set"?
A)The earlobes are aligned with the highest point of the upper lip.
B)The earlobes are aligned with the highest point of the bottom lip.
C)The roots of the ears are aligned with the outer canthus of the eyes.
D)The roots of the ears are aligned an inch below the outer canthus of the eyes.
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Chapter 8: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of Gaucher disease?
A)Ashkenazi Jews
B)Asian Americans
C)American Indians
D)Individuals of Mediterranean descent
Q2) What is the expected outcome of pregnancy for women with phenylketonuria when the blood levels of phenylalanine are high throughout the pregnancy?
A)Most births are postmature
B)High incidence of infertility
C)Infant develops phenylketonuria
D)High incidence of cardiovascular birth defects
Q3) A son with osteogenesis imperfecta is born to parents with no family history of the disease.What is the most likely explanation for the son's disorder?
A)The son is not biologically related to the father.
B)The son is not biologically related to the mother.
C)The gamete of one parent had a spontaneous mutation.
D)The son's DNA underwent a spontaneous mutation during the second trimester of pregnancy.
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Chapter 9: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which result of genetic/genomic variation has the most support as a cause of asthma?
A)Decreased resistance to infectious microorganisms
B)Early childhood exposures to inhalation irritants (air pollution)
C)Increased inflammatory responses to environmental triggers
D)Mutations of frontal lobe genes controlling attention-getting behavior
Q2) Which type of gene could be considered a "candidate gene" for mutations that increase the genetic input to asthma development?
A)One that controls the expression of hemoglobin levels
B)One that regulates the number of alveoli a person develops
C)One that regulates the sensitivity of bronchiolar smooth muscle
D)One that is responsible for the metabolism and elimination of nicotine
Q3) What is the most likely explanation for the variability in expression of disease severity for cystic fibrosis?
A)The ethnicity of the patient
B)The specific CFTR gene mutation inherited
C)The presence of other nongenetic lung or pancreatic problems
D)The length of trinucleotide repeat sequences in the first exon of the CFTR gene
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11
Chapter 10: Common Adult-Onset Genetic Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition or factor most strongly supports a genetic basis for development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A)Type 2 diabetes occurring in two cousins before age 30 years
B)The disease developing in a person whose parents also have type 2 diabetes
C)The incidence of disease concordance is higher in dizygotic twins than in monozygotic twins
D)The fact that type 2 diabetes is more prevalent in one city than it is in another similar size city
Q2) What can be interpreted about type 2 diabetes mellitus in monozygotic twins when it affects only one twin 70% of the time and affects both twins 30% of the time?
A)The trait is recessive.
B)Mutation repair is incompletely penetrant.
C)Nongenetic factors can influence expression.
D)Homologous genes can undergo chromatid exchanges.
Q3) Which genetic disorder is associated with an increased risk for type 2 diabetes?
A)Achondroplasia
B)Down syndrome
C)Huntington disease
D)Hereditary hemochromatosis
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75298
Sample Questions
Q1) Which physical finding on a 30-year-old man suggests the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia?
A)Lipomas
B)Xanthomas
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Hemangiomas
Q2) Which statement about atrial fibrillation is correct?
A)It is the most common genetic cardiac disorder worldwide.
B)A variety of different genes contribute to its expression.
C)It is found exclusively in adults over 60 years old.
D)When severe,it leads to long QT syndrome.
Q3) Which variable in a person with coronary artery disease increases the likelihood of a strong genetic influence in its expression?
A)The problem is severe before age 50 years.
B)The disorder is not present in the person's dizygotic twin.
C)The affected person has eaten a vegetarian diet for the past 5 years.
D)The disorder is present in about 5% of the person's maternal older male family members.
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13
Chapter 12: The Genetics of Cancer
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Juliet tells a nurse that she has three aunts (two on her father's side,ages 42 and 56,and one on her mother's side,age 62)who were diagnosed with breast cancer.She asks if she should have genetic testing.What should the nurse tell her?
A)"Your family history indicates a high risk and you should definitely have genetic testing."
B)"Because no men in your family are affected,it is not inherited cancer so you don't need mammograms or any special screening practices."
C)"Because your aunts were older when they got breast cancer,it was probably sporadic and you should just have regular mammograms like everyone else."
D)"Your family history may indicate an increased risk for breast cancer and a genetic counselor could help determine whether you could benefit from genetic testing."
Q2) Which cancer type is associated with a 9;22 translocation t(9;22)?
A)Acute promyelocytic leukemia
B)Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C)Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D)Chronic myelogenous leukemia
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Chapter 13: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition provides the greatest support for a strong genetic contribution to autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)?
A)Concordance among dizygotic twins is 10%.
B)Males are affected four times more frequently than females.
C)People with some neurologic disorders also have features of ASDs.
D)ASDs are more likely to occur in children of parents who are over 35 at time of conception.
Q2) What is meant by the phrase "behavioral genetics"?
A)Identification of the single gene that corresponds to a specific undesired behavior
B)An area of research aimed at controlling behavior by genetic manipulation
C)The study of the behavior of genes in diverse settings
D)The examination of gene variants that influence behaviors
Q3) What is the heritability estimate for addiction to alcohol in both males and females?
A)10% to 20%
B)20% to 40%
C)50% to 60%
D)60% to 80%
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)most likely to be used?
A)To find a gene associated with a particular disease
B)To determine whether a stillborn infant has trisomy 13
C)To determine the carrier status of a child whose sister has cystic fibrosis
D)To establish a diagnosis for a possible adult-onset possible single gene disorder
Q2) Which tissue is most likely to provide an adequate DNA sample for genetic testing?
A)Distal ends of hair shafts
B)Mature red blood cells
C)Nasal epithelial cells
D)A mummy's tooth
Q3) Which type of genetic testing examines a person's chromosomes for variations in number or structure?
A)Cytogenetic testing
B)Pre-implantation testing
C)Predictive testing
D)Electropherogram testing
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Chapter 15: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is identified as an ultra-rapid metabolizer for drugs that are prepared for elimination by CYP2D6.What effect will this have on the patient's ability to benefit from any active drug that is metabolized by this enzyme?
A)Intended responses increase while side effects decrease.
B)Intended responses decrease while side effects increase.
C)Both intended responses and side effects increase.
D)Both intended responses and side effects decrease.
Q2) How do genetic/genomic issues influence individual variation of the response to a specific drug?
A)Polymorphisms of genes encoding metabolizing enzymes
B)Age-related loss of alleles within the cells lining the intestinal tract
C)Single gene disorders that reduce the function of the kidneys or the liver
D)Genetic-based behavior problems that promote poor adherence to prescribed drug regimens
Q3) Which organ has the greatest concentration of cytochrome P (CYP)450 enzymes?
A)Stomach
B)Kidney
C)Brain
D)Liver
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do genetic counseling programs include extensive courses on laboratory methods in genetics?
A)To serve as a backup genetics technician in small laboratories
B)To perform standard karyotyping on routine blood specimens
C)To help patients understand testing procedures and results
D)To be able to draw blood proficiently and safely
Q2) The patient who has been found to have a mutation in gene allele that greatly increases her risk for a serious health problem has asked a generalist nurse to be present when she discloses this information to her family.What is the nurse's role in this situation?
A)Primary health-care provider
B)Genetic counselor
C)Patient advocate
D)Patient support
Q3) Which genetics professional has the defined responsibility for overseeing the work in a cytogenetic laboratory?
A)Clinical laboratory geneticist
B)Genetic laboratory technician
C)Cytogenetics technician
D)Medical geneticist
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Chapter
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be told to the patient who has been found to have a genetic mutation that increases the risk for colon cancer and says he does not want any of his family to know about this result?
A)"It is required by law that you inform your siblings and your children about this result so that they also can be tested and monitored for colon cancer."
B)"It is not necessary to tell your siblings because they are adults,but you should tell your children so they can be tested before they decide to have children of their own."
C)"It is not required that you tell anyone about this result;however,because your siblings and children may also be at risk for colon cancer,you should think about how this information might help them."
D)"It is your decision to determine with whom,if anyone,you share this test result;however,if you do not tell any of your family members and they get colon cancer,you would be responsible for their developing the disease."
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to consider population genetics?
A)Natural selection can increase genetic diversity.
B)Accurate assessment of a person's ethnicity can be identified from DNA.
C)Disease risk can vary as a result of the geographic origin of one's ancestors.
D)Knowing ethnicity allows accurate prediction of Huntington disease risk.
Q2) Which practice is most likely to result in a change in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium of a population or geographic area?
A)Random mating from within the established population
B)Geographic isolation of the established population
C)Assimilation of immigrants into the existing population
D)Preponderance of autosomal dominant traits in the existing population
Q3) The Black Death was a pandemic spreading across Europe between 1348 and 1350.Estimates state that 30% to 60% of Europe's population died from the Black Death.If we look at Europe's population before the pandemic and compare it to the population several generations later,what are we likely to find?
A)More genetic diversity in later generations
B)Less genetic diversity in later generations
C)Less genetic diversity in earlier generations
D)The same degree of genetic diversity in later as in earlier generations
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Page 20