Genetics
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Genetics is the study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics. This course explores fundamental principles including Mendelian inheritance, molecular genetics, gene expression, genetic mapping, and population genetics. Students will gain insight into DNA structure and function, gene regulation, genetic mutations, and the application of genetics in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and case studies, students will develop critical thinking skills needed to understand genetic mechanisms and their impact on individuals and societies.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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29 Chapters
705 Verified Questions
705 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) While there are many ways to compare biochemical similarities in organisms,the molecular tree of life is based predominantly on similarities in what biological molecule?
A)DNA
B)proteins
C)ribosomal RNA
D)transfer RNA
E)lipids of cell membranes
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following best describes homeostasis?
A)a non-equilibrium,non-steady state
B)a non-equilibrium steady state
C)an equilibrium-controlled,non-steady state
D)an equilibrium-controlled steady state
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) The molecule pyruvic acid is found at the crossroads of several biochemical pathways.Pyruvic acid is also known as 2-oxopropanoic acid.Based upon this name,draw the molecule.
Answer: 11ea8a11_436d_60c5_8b44_bfd5f6b258f9_TB4872_00
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment
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Q1) Which of the following best explains the hydrogen bonding that occurs in water?
A)the average number of H-bonds formed by one water molecule is the same in liquid and solid water,the only difference is the duration of the H-bond
B)the number of H-bonds formed by one water molecule is greater in liquid water than in solid water
C)the structure of liquid water is best described as flickering clusters of H-bonds due to the relative short duration of individual H-bonds
D)each water molecule is capable of forming 8 H-bonds: 2 from each lone pair of electrons and 2 from each hydrogen
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would likely form micelles in an aqueous solution?
A)hexane
B)glucose
C)glutamic acid
D)dodecanoic acid
E)none of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' for the oxidation of succinate to fumarate,a step in the citric acid cycle.
FAD + 2H<sup>+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) FADH<sub>2</sub> ES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = - 0.22 V fumarate + 2H<sup>+</sup> + 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) succinate
ES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = + 0.03 V
Answer: ES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = - 0.25 V \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = -nFES1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0' = -(2)(96.5 kJ/V/mol)(-0.25 V)= 48.3 kJ/mol
Q2) Which of the following reactions would be a non-spontaneous process?
A)complete oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide and water
B)formation of phosphoenolpyruvate from pyruvate and P<sub>i</sub>
C)hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and P<sub>i</sub>
D)the coupled reaction of phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP \(\to\) pyruvate + ATP
E)all of the above
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes the structure of a nucleotide?
A)adenine is bound via a link between N-7 and C-1 of ribose
B)phosphates are always bound to C-2 of ribose
C)cytosine is bound via a link between the amine on C-4 and C-1 of ribose
D)guanine is bound via a link between N-9 and C-1 of ribose
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a major difference between B-DNA and A-DNA?
A)B-DNA has a right-handed helix,A-DNA has a left-handed helix
B)B-DNA has 10 residues per helix turn while A-DNA has 9
C)B-DNA base pairs are stacked almost parallel to one another while A-DNA base pairs are significantly tilted with respect to each other
D)the major groove of A-DNA is much larger than that in B-DNA
E)none of the above
Q3) Draw the structure of cytosine and thymine,then show the most common tautomer of each.
Q4) Draw the two forms of a phosphodiester bond that can occur under physiological pH.If the pK<sub>a</sub> for this conversion is 6.2,what form predominates in the lysosome where the pH is about 5?
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of
Protein Structure
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Q1) Which of the following pairs of amino acids contains both an aliphatic and an aromatic amino acid?
A)Thr and Tyr
B)Val and Gln
C)Phe and Ile
D)Ser and Cys
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following pairs of amino acids represents a conservation of the type of amino acid when considering the sequence of a protein from different species?
A)Asp and Asn
B)Lys and His
C)Leu and Val
D)Gly and Ile
E)Phe and Trp
Q3) What is the pI for the following peptide: Ala-Glu-Val-Asp-Lys-Leu
Q4) Draw each of the structures of aspartic acid that predominate at pH 1,3,7,and 11.
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7
Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Which of the following structural proteins is correctly paired with the modified amino acid or cross-link that is an integral part of that protein?
A)collagen: 5-hydroxylysine
B)elastin: hydroxyproline
C)\(\alpha\)-keratin: cross link formed by oxidation of lysine,then aldol condensation
D)collagen: desmosine
E)fibroin: cross-link formed by dehydration of serine residues
Q2) Which of the following types of secondary structure has a non-integer value of residues per turn?
A)antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet
B)parallel \(\beta\)-sheet
C)\(\alpha\)-helix
D)3<sub>10</sub> helix
E)polyproline II helix
Q3) Show the most likely interaction that would occur between a serine residue and a glutamine residue.
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Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is a homotropic effector of hemoglobin-oxygen binding?
A)O<sub>2</sub>
B)H<sup>+</sup>
C)CO<sub>2</sub>
D)Cl<sup>-</sup>
E)2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG)
Q2) The ability of some bacteria to resist the cytotoxic effects of macrophages is most likely due to which of the following?
A)they have high levels of flavohemoglobin that allows for the destruction of nitric oxide,a potent cytotoxic compound produced by macrophages
B)they possess a protein called cytoglobin that causes macrophages to undergo apoptosis
C)they have high levels of a myoglobin-like protein that tightly binds oxygen,preventing proper activity of the macrophage
D)they possess the protein neuroglobin which enables them to specifically target nerve cells and thus evade macrophages
E)none of the above
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following is the best description of how actin and myosin work in cooperation to allow muscle contraction?
A)myosin head groups push against actin filaments to lengthen the sarcomere
B)myosin head groups walk along the actin filament to shorten the sarcomere
C)myosin head groups interact with actin only when the sarcomere is fully lengthened
D)all myosin head groups move along the actin filament simultaneously to shorten the sarcomere
E)none of the above
Q2) Which form of myosin is found in striated muscle?
A)I
B)II
C)IV
D)VI
E)all of the above
Q3) In a typical cell,the use of proton gradient to power ATP synthesis requires about 3 protons for each ATP.Based on this,what is the energy expenditure,in ATP/minute,of a typical flagellum if it is running at 120 revolutions per second and requires 1000 protons to make one revolution?
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Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars,saccharides,glycans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following phosphate esters of monosaccharides,which has the most spontaneous \(\Delta\)GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0´ of hydrolysis?
A)\(\alpha\)-D-glucose-6-phosphate
B)\(\beta\)-D-glucose-6-phosphate
C)\(\beta\)-D-glucose-1-phosphate
D)\(\alpha\)-D-fructose-6-phosphate
E)D-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Q2) Gluconic acid is derived from ________ while glucuronic acid is derived from
A)glucose;gulose
B)gulose;glucose
C)glucose;glucose
D)glucose;galactose
E)galactose;glucose
Q3) Which of the following is a diastereomer of D-mannose?
A)D-gulose
B)D-altrose
C)D-idose
D)D-talose
E)all of the above
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Chapter 10: Lipids,membranes and Cellular Transport
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Q1) A flippase is an enzyme that moves lipids from one side of a lipid bilayer to another in order to maintain the concentrations of specific lipids on each side of the bilayer.Which of the following can be said regarding the reaction of the flippase enzyme?
A)it works against a concentration gradient and requires ATP
B)it works against a concentration gradient but does not require ATP
C)it works with a concentration gradient and requires ATP
D)it works with a concentration gradient but does not require ATP
E)none of the above
Q2) The movement of potassium ions across a membrane aided by valinomycin is an example of _______________.
A)facilitated diffusion by transport through a pore
B)facilitated diffusion by transport using a carrier molecule
C)facilitated diffusion by use of a permease
D)primary active transport since valinomycin is a sodium-potassium ATPase
E)secondary active transport since valinomycin only moves with the aid of the sodium ion gradient
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Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts
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Q1) What are the expected changes in kinetics in the presence of a competitive inhibitor?
A)V<sub>max</sub> decreases,K<sub>M</sub> appears to decrease
B)V<sub>max</sub> does not change,K<sub>M</sub> appears to decrease C)V<sub>max</sub> decreases,K<sub>M</sub> appears to increase
D)V<sub>max</sub> does not change,K<sub>M</sub> appears to increase
E)V<sub>max</sub> decreases,K<sub>M</sub> does not change
Q2) Both ATP and CTP are allosteric regulators of the enzyme aspartate transcarbamoylase.Which of the following correctly identifies the activities of these two regulators?
A)ATP: activator;CTP: activator
B)ATP: activator;CTP: inhibitor
C)ATP: inhibitor;CTP: activator
D)ATP: inhibitor;CTP: inhibitor
E)none of the above
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13
Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following represents a correct compartmentation of a biochemical process with its cellular location?
A)fatty acid oxidation: endoplasmic reticulum
B)RNA synthesis: Golgi complex
C)citric acid cycle: mitochondria
D)gluconeogenesis: lysosome
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following pairs of pathways,if active at the same time,would be considered a futile cycle?
A)gluconeogenesis and citric acid cycle
B)fatty acid \(\beta\)-oxidation and glycolysis
C)fatty acid synthesis and glycolysis
D)fatty acid synthesis and citric acid cycle
E)glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
Q3) Complete oxidation of glucose by burning in a calorimeter gives a \(\Delta\)G°´ of -2870 kJ/mol.If we assume this to be the maximum energy that can be extracted from glucose,what is the percent of energy that is captured in a cell given that about 32 ATP can be made from a single molecule of glucose? \(\Delta\)G°´ for ATP hydrolysis is -30.5 kJ/mol while \(\Delta\)G for ATP hydrolysis in a cell is about -51 kJ/mol.
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Page 14
Chapter
Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Under conditions of strenuous exercise,gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in the _______ using _______ formed in the skeletal muscle
A)kidney;alanine
B)muscle;glycerol
C)liver;propionate
D)kidney;acetyl-CoA
E)liver;lactate
Q2) Which of the following enzymes is used by the gluconeogenic pathway but not the glycolytic pathway?
A)pyruvate kinase
B)phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
C)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
D)triose phosphate isomerase
E)hexokinase
Q3) Which isoform of hexokinase is found in the vertebrate liver?
A)hexokinase I
B)hexokinase II
C)hexokinase III
D)hexokinase IV
E)all of the above
Page 15
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle
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Q1) What role does the coenzyme A portion of acetyl-CoA play in the reaction catalyzed by citrate synthase?
A)the CoA group causes the enzyme to close around the substrates,enabling catalysis
B)lack of resonance in the thioester makes the methyl carbon of the acetyl group more acidic,allowing proton abstraction to readily occur
C)CoA makes the carbonyl carbon highly susceptible to nucleophilic attack
D)hydrolysis of the thioester makes the reaction essentially irreversible
E)all of the above
Q2) __________ activates __________,thereby inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase.
A)NADH;pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
B)Ca<sup>2+</sup>;pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
C)NAD<sup>+</sup>;pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
D)ATP;pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
E)pyruvate;pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism
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Q1) A(n)_______ incorporates oxygen from O<sub>2</sub> into its products while a(n)_______ uses another oxidizing agent to accomplish the oxidation of its substrate.
A)oxidase;dioxygenase
B)dehydrogenase;oxygenase
C)oxygenase;oxidase
D)dehydrogenase;oxidase
E)dioxygenase;oxygenase
Q2) Which amino acid is complexed to iron-sulfur clusters to enable them to associate with proteins?
A)methionine
B)serine
C)lysine
D)tyrosine
E)cysteine
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18
Chapter 16: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Under what conditions does the cyclic electron flow of photosystem I occur?
A)high NADPH,low ATP
B)low NADPH,high ATP
C)low NADPH,low ATP
D)high NADPH,high ATP
E)under conditions when light is not intense enough to excite PSII
Q2) Which of the following would have an inhibitory effect upon rubisco?
A)Mg<sup>2+</sup>
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)H<sup>+</sup>
D)reduced thioredoxin
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following best describes photosynthesis in purple photosynthetic bacteria?
A)a reaction center resembling PSI transfers electrons to plastocyanin
B)a reaction center resembling PSII transfers electrons to plastoquinone
C)water is split by the reaction center that resembles PSII
D)NADPH is generated using electrons from a protein resembling ferredoxin
E)the proton gradient is used for both ATP synthesis and NADPH generation
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty
Acids,triacylglycerols,and Lipoproteins
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Q1) What enzyme activities are found in the mitochondrial trifunctional protein that metabolizes long chain (LC)fatty acids?
A)LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase,LC-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-thiolase
B)LC-acyl-CoA synthetase,LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase
C)LC-carnitine acyltransferase II,LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase
D)LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-enoyl-CoA hydratase,LC-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase
E)LC-acyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase,LC-thiolase
Q2) Which of the following lists the enzymes (in order)required to transport a molecule of acetyl-CoA from the mitochondrion to the cytosol while returning the "acetyl-CoA acceptor" back to the mitochondrion?
A)citrate synthase,citrate lyase,pyruvate carboxylase
B)citrate synthase,citrate lyase,malate dehydrogenase,pyruvate carboxylase
C)citrate synthase,citrate lyase,malate dehydrogenase,pyruvate carboxylase,malic enzyme
D)citrate synthase,citrate lyase,malate dehydrogenase
E)citrate synthase,citrate lyase,malate dehydrogenase,malic enzyme
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates
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Q1) If a group of transgenic mice that overexpress SIRT1 was fed as much food as the mice desired to eat,what would be the consequences?
A)shortened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular disease
B)normal lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
C)normal lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
D)lengthened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
E)lengthened lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
Q2) Which of the following is commonly stored as an energy reserve by the heart?
A)glycogen
B)creatine phosphate
C)triacylglycerols
D)ketone bodies
E)lactate
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Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, steroids,
isoprenoids, and Eicosanoids
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Q1) Which of the following is accomplished in one enzyme catalyzed reaction?
A)progesterone to androstenedione
B)17-hydroxyprogesterone to cortisol
C)progesterone to aldosterone
D)androstenedione to testosterone
E)androstenedione to estradiol
Q2) Which of the following phospholipids is produced in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes?
A)phosphatidylglycerol
B)phosphatidylserine
C)phosphatidylethanolamine
D)phosphatidylinositol
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following amino acids is critical for choline and phosphatidylcholine synthesis?
A)serine
B)\(\beta\)-alanine
C)homocysteine
D)methionine
E)homoserine
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I: Principles
of Biosynthesis, utilization, and Turnover
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Q1) Which of the following is seen in the transaminase mechanism?
A)aldimine formed between pyridoxal and lysine residue
B)Schiff base
C)pyridoxamine phosphate that reacts only with an \(\alpha\)-ketoacid
D)a carbanion that is resonance stabilized as a quinonoid intermediate
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following reactions is highly active in the liver when large amounts of amino acids are moving from extrahepatic tissue to the liver?
A)conversion of glutamate to glutamine
B)oxidation of glutamate by glutamate dehydrogenase
C)reduction of \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate by glutamate dehydrogenase
D)transamination of glutamate and pyruvate to \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate and alanine
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following amino acids is exclusively ketogenic?
A)phenylalanine
B)tyrosine
C)isoleucine
D)arginine
E)leucine
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds Ii:
Amino Acids, porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters
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Q1) Which of the following molecules uses chorismate as a precursor?
A)p-aminobenzoic acid
B)coenzyme Q
C)phenylalanine
D)tryptophan
E)all of the above
Q2) Which amino acids are transaminated by the branched-chain amino acid aminotransferase?
A)valine,isoleucine and leucine
B)proline,valine and alanine
C)leucine,isoleucine and phenylalanine
D)leucine,isoleucine and proline
E)lysine,valine and leucine
Q3) The regeneration of methionine from homocysteine relies upon the conversion of _________ to __________ as a source of carbon.
A)alanine;pyruvate
B)phenylalanine;tyrosine
C)cystathionine;cysteine
D)proline;glutamate
E)serine;glycine
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following coenzymes contains an adenylate group?
A)cobalamin
B)tetrahydrofolate
C)thiamine pyrophosphate
D)pyridoxal phosphate
E)coenzyme A
Q2) While endonucleases cleave nucleic acids into smaller oligonucleotides,__________ are responsible for cleaving the oligonucleotides into nucleotides.
A)phosphodiesterases
B)nucleotidase
C)nucleoside kinases
D)phosphorylases
E)phosphoribosyl transferases
Q3) Which of the following describes the coenzyme involved with thymidylate synthase?
A)5-methyl-THF serves as the methyl donor
B)10-methyl-THF serves as the methyl donor
C)5,10-methylene-THF serves as both methylene donor and reducing agent
D)5,10-methenyl-THF serves as both methylene donor and reducing agent
E)S-adenosylmethionine serves as the methyl donor
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Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction
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Q1) InsP<sub>3</sub> binds to _______ channels in the endoplasmic reticulum while DAG activates ___________.
A)Na<sup>+</sup>;protein kinase A
B)Na<sup>+</sup>;protein kinase C
C)Ca<sup>2+</sup>;protein kinase A
D)Ca<sup>2+</sup>;protein kinase C
E)none of the above
Q2) What is the primary target of releasing factors from the hypothalamus?
A)thyroid
B)adrenal medulla
C)adrenal cortex
D)posterior pituitary
E)anterior pituitary
Q3) Insulin activates glycogen synthase while glucagon inhibits glycogen synthase.Explain the intracellular mechanisms that are used to bring about this activity.
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Chapter 24: Genes,genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) What structure is responsible for linking the centromeres to the spindle fibers during mitosis?
A)metaphase plate
B)nucleosome
C)kinetochore
D)centromere scaffold
E)none of the above
Q2) What term is used to describe a collection of cloned genomic fragments?
A)sequence
B)repository
C)fragmented genome
D)library
E)none of the above
Q3) What is the typical percentage of lysine + arginine in histone proteins?
A)<5%
B)5-10%
C)10-20%
D)20-35%
E)>35%
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Page 27
Chapter 25: Dna Replication
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Q1) Which of the following explains the result of type I topoisomerase activity on underwound DNA,considering that no energy (ATP)is used in the reaction?
A)the linking number is decreased by 1
B)the linking number is increased by 1
C)the linking number remains the same but the twist decreases by 1
D)the linking number remains the same but the twist increases by 1
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the subunits of DNA polymerase III is responsible for the high processivity of the enzyme?
A)\(\beta\)
B)\(\gamma\)
C)\(\delta\)
D)\(\delta\)'
E)\(\varepsilon\)
Q3) For the following sequence,indicate the RNA primer that would be needed to start synthesis of the Okazaki fragment.
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Chapter 26: Dna Restructuring:
Repair,recombination,rearrangement,amplification
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Q1) What is the correct order of enzyme activities required for nucleotide excision repair?
A)exonuclease,helicase,polymerase,ligase
B)exinuclease,helicase,polymerase,ligase
C)exonuclease,polymerase,ligase,helicase
D)exinuclease,polymerase,ligase,helicase
E)exonuclease,ligase,polymerase,helicase
Q2) Methylation of guanine to produce O<sup>6</sup>-methylguanine (mG)results in what change to DNA?
A)mG frequently pairs with thymine resulting in a GC \(\to\) AT mutation
B)mG loses its methoxy group resulting in hydrogen bonding with adenine and a bulge in the double helix
C)mG is prone to deamination and eventually,depurination
D)repair of mG adducts uses a radical mechanism that has the potential to further damage adjacent bases,particularly thymine
E)none of the above
Q3) Show the common base pair seen between 8-oxoguanine and adenine.
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29
Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and
Post-Transcriptional Processing
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is required for conversion from the closed-promoter complex to open-promoter complex?
A)ATP binding
B)ATP hydrolysis
C)GTP binding
D)GTP hydrolysis
E)DNA bending
Q2) Draw a transcription bubble,clearly labeling the proteins and nucleic acids involved in the process.
Q3) Phosphorylation of the Rpb1 subunit of pol II causes what to occur?
A)binding to histone proteins
B)hydrogen bonding with guanine residues near the start of transcription
C)dissociation from the promoter
D)transcription termination
E)none of the above
Q4) The figure below shows a newly transcribed mRNA still associated with the template DNA.Draw the stem-loop structure that often forms during termination.
Page 30
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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational
Protein Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins destined for extracellular transport produce an N-terminal signal sequence.What binds to this sequence for endoplasmic reticulum association?
A)signal recognition particle
B)ribosome receptor protein
C)Sec61 docking protein
D)SNARE protein
E)none of the above
Q2) In most cases,the first codon in prokaryotic mRNA codes for ________ while the first codon in eukaryotic mRNA codes for ________.
A)methionine;N-formylmethionine
B)N-formylmethionine;methionine
C)proline;N-formylproline
D)N-formylproline;proline
E)none of the above
Q3) Translate the following mRNA into a peptide using the standard genetic code: 5'-AUGCGGAUCCAUGUACAACUGGACGCAGUACCGUAACGCGAU-3'
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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA methylation in eukaryotes plays a role in ____________.
A)methyl-directed mismatch repair
B)protection of restriction sites
C)chromatin remodeling
D)cancerous cell growth
E)gene silencing
Q2) Show how glutamine interacts with an A-T base pair as seen in the cI and Cro repressors.
Q3) What elements are contained within the promoter of the lactose operon?
A)operator and CRP site
B)operator and repressor
C)CRP site and repressor
D)operator,CRP site and repressor
E)none of the above
Q4) What is thought to occur when CRP binds to DNA?
A)formation of a hairpin that prevents progression of RNA polymerase
B)bending of DNA to facilitate RNA polymerase binding
C)blocking of promoter regions to prevent binding of RNA polymerase
D)forms non-covalent interactions with RNA polymerase to bind it to DNA
E)none of the above
Page 32
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