Genetics
Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive introduction to the principles of genetics, exploring the mechanisms of heredity, gene structure and function, genetic variation, and the transmission of genetic information across generations. Topics include classical Mendelian genetics, molecular genetics, population genetics, and the role of genes in development and disease. Students will also engage with current advances in genetic technology, ethical considerations, and practical applications of genetics in research and medicine. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and case studies, learners will gain a strong foundation for further studies in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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29 Chapters
705 Verified Questions
705 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to 1926,the source of biological catalysis was postulated to be possessed by "ferments" which today are called _______.
A)proteins
B)nucleic acids
C)enzymes
D)polysaccharides
E)membranes
Answer: C
Q2) Since the earth is approximately 4.5 billion years old,which of the following is true regarding life on this planet?
A)life forms that arose 3.8 billion years ago were able to synthesize the building blocks of life from non-organic molecules
B)the earliest organisms on this planet were anaerobic
C)the oxygen in the earth's atmosphere was originally trapped in ice and thus unavailable for living organisms
D)all multi-cellular anaerobic organisms died out as oxygen became more plentiful
E)none of the above
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since pK<sub>a</sub> = -log K<sub>a</sub>,which of the following is a correct statement?
A)acetic acid (pK<sub>a</sub> = 4.7)is stronger than lactic acid, (pK<sub>a</sub> = 3.9)
B)lactic acid, (pK<sub>a</sub> = 3.9)is weaker than all forms of phosphoric acid, (pK<sub>a</sub> = 2.1,6.9 and 12.4)
C)since the pK<sub>a</sub> for conversion of the ammonium ion to ammonia is 9.25,ammonia is a weaker base then the acetate ion D)for carbonic acid with pK<sub>a</sub> values of 6.3 and 10.3,the bicarbonate ion is a stronger base than the carbonate ion E)none of the above
Answer: E
Q2) Imidazole is a commonly used buffer in biochemistry labs.With a pK<sub>a</sub> of 7.0,what would be the ratio of base to acid at pH 7.4?
Answer: 2.5 11ea8a11_436e_4b29_8b44_234f570e4c48_TB4872_00
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4
Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following reactions would be a non-spontaneous process?
A)complete oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide and water
B)formation of phosphoenolpyruvate from pyruvate and P<sub>i</sub>
C)hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and P<sub>i</sub>
D)the coupled reaction of phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP \(\to\) pyruvate + ATP
E)all of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following would be considered a closed system?
A)a human living alone on a small island
B)the planet Earth
C)a fish living in a fish bowl
D)a bacteria living in the large intestine
E)a bacteria living in a Petri dish
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Watson-Crick DNA model,how many base pairs are found in one turn of the helix?
A)4
B)6
C)8
D)10
E)12
Q2) Where are G-quadruplexes most commonly found?
A)transcription termination sites
B)origin of replication
C)the ends of hairpin loops
D)telomeres
E)none of the above
Q3) Replication of DNA is best considered __________.
A)conservative
B)semiconservative
C)dispersive
D)complementary
E)none of the above
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of Protein Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given the following peptide,what pair of protease enzymes would be able to produce three smaller peptides?
Gly-Ser-Ala-His-Phe-Pro-Asn-Ala-Val-Glu-Cys-Ala-Ser
A)chymotrypsin and thrombin
B)trypsin and chymotrypsin
C)thermolysin and chymotrypsin
D)trypsin and thermolysin
E)none of the above
Q2) Draw each of the structures of aspartic acid that predominate at pH 1,3,7,and 11.
Q3) At a pH of 5,all amino acids have at least ____ charged group(s)and at most,_____ charged group(s).
A)0;1
B)1;1
C)1;2
D)2;2
E)2;3
Q4) What is the pI for the following peptide: Ala-Glu-Val-Asp-Lys-Leu
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of interaction occurs between the \(\beta\)-sheets of fibroin?
A)charge-dipole interaction
B)dipole-dipole interaction
C)dipole-induced dipole interaction
D)van der Waals interaction
E)hydrogen bonding
Q2) In a typical Ramachandran plot,_____ is plotted vs _____ to illustrate _______.
A)\(\varPhi\);\(\varPsi\);dependence of \(\varPsi\) upon \(\varPhi\)
B)\(\varPsi\);\(\varPhi\);dependence of \(\varPhi\) upon \(\varPsi\)
C)\(\varPhi\);\(\varPsi\);allowable combinations of \(\varPsi\) and \(\varPhi\)
D)\(\varPsi\);\(\varPhi\);allowable combinations of \(\varPsi\) and \(\varPhi\)
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following would contribute to tertiary structure?
A)charge-charge interaction between lysine and aspartic acid
B)disulfide bond
C)hydrogen bond between serine hydroxyl group and amide of glutamine
D)hydrophobic interaction between leucine and valine
E)all of the above
Q4) Show the most likely interaction that would occur between a serine residue and a glutamine residue.
8
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Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods could be used to produce a F<sub>ab</sub> fragment from an IgG?
A)treatment with reducing agent,isolation of the light chain,removal of reducing agent
B)treatment with reducing agent,isolation of the heavy chain,removal of reducing agent
C)treatment with papain,separation of the F<sub>ab</sub> fragment from the rest of the heavy chain
D)treatment with papain,separation of the F<sub>ab</sub> fragment from the rest of the light chain
E)none of the above
Q2) Which immunoglobulin is the only one to occur in a dimeric form?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
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9
Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the 9 + 2 array seen in the axoneme?
A)2 central microtubules ringed by 9 microtubule doublets
B)2 central microtubule doublets ringed by 9 microtubules
C)9 central microtubules with 2 microtubules attached to each central microtubule
D)9 central microtubules with 2 microtubule doublets attached to each central microtubule
E)none of the above
Q2) Microtubules are made from which of the following proteins?
A)actin
B)myosin
C)tubulin
D)cytoplasmic dynein
E)kinesin
Q3) Which of the following proteins is found in a bacterial flagellum?
A)actin
B)myosin
C)flagellin
D)dynein
E)all of the above
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10
Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars,saccharides,glycans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following formulas would be a carbohydrate A)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>5</sub> B)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>6</sub> C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O<sub>6</sub> D)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>3</sub> E)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
Q2) How many carbon atoms are found in the smallest molecules that are classified as carbohydrates?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) The source of nitrogen for the synthesis of glucosamine-6-phosphate from fructose-6-phosphate is the amino acid ___________.
A)aspartate
B)asparagine
C)glutamate
D)glutamine
E)lysine
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Chapter 10: Lipids,membranes and Cellular Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not specifically cause a membrane to be more rigid or fluid,but rather causes the T<sub>m</sub> to occur over a greater range?
A)increasing the content of unsaturated fatty acids
B)raising the temperature
C)increasing the cholesterol content
D)decreasing the phosphatidylcholine content while increasing the phosphatidylethanolamine content
E)all of the above
Q2) When comparing the sequences of a peripheral membrane protein with an integral membrane protein,which of the following amino acids would most likely be present in a higher percentage in the integral membrane protein?
A)aspartic acid
B)leucine
C)histidine
D)serine
E)none of the above
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Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts
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Sample Questions
Q1) The steady state assumption in enzyme kinetics:
A)insures that the product of an enzymatic reaction will always be formed
B)explains why enzymes are effective catalysts
C)states that the formation of ES is equal to its breakdown
D)is based upon the fact that the maximum velocity of an enzyme is very high
E)none of the above
Q2) In a Lineweaver-Burke plot,what does the slope represent?
A)K<sub>M</sub>
B)V<sub>max</sub>
C)V<sub>max</sub>/K<sub>M</sub>
D)K<sub>M</sub>/V<sub>max</sub>
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following explains why enzymes are extremely effective catalysts?
A)an enzyme stabilizes the transition state
B)enzymes bind very tightly to substrates
C)enzymes release products very rapidly
D)an enzyme can convert a normally endergonic reaction into an exergonic reaction
E)an enzyme lowers the energy of activation only for the forward reaction
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Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of a hemiacetal when glucose undergoes cyclization represents what type of reaction?
A)nucleophilic substitution
B)nucleophilic addition
C)carbonyl condensation
D)elimination
E)oxidation
Q2) Of the following,which would have the most reduced state of carbon,and therefore,would yield the largest amount of energy per gram?
A)glucose
B)glycogen
C)alanine
D)stearic acid
E)all of the above would have identical energy yields
Q3) Which of the following would be considered a biosynthetic pathway?
A)glycolysis
B)glycogen synthesis
C)fatty acid \(\beta\)-oxidation
D)citric acid cycle
E)electron transport
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Chapter
Phosphate Pathway
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reaction catalyzed by triose phosphate isomerase is most similar in mechanism to which of the following glycolytic enzymes?
A)glucose-6-phosphate isomerase
B)fructose-1,6-bisphosphate aldolase
C)phosphoglycerate mutase
D)enolase
E)pyruvate kinase
Q2) Assuming that gluconeogenesis was active in a mammalian liver,under what conditions would PEPCK have more activity in the mitochondria than in the cytosol?
A)the activity of pyruvate carboxylase was very low
B)high levels of malate were being transported out of the mitochondria
C)lactate was serving as the primary carbon source for gluconeogenesis
D)glycerol was serving as the primary carbon source for gluconeogenesis
E)none of the above
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15
Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is responsible for the oxidation of the hydroxyethyl group from pyruvate decarboxylation to an acetyl group?
A)pyruvate dehydrogenase
B)dihydrolipoamide transacetylase
C)dihydrolipoamide dehydrogenase
D)pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase
E)pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase
Q2) Which of the following reactions is commonly used to replenish intermediates of the citric acid cycle?
A)citrate \(\to\) oxaloacetate + acetyl CoA
B)oxaloacetate \(\to\) aspartate
C)glutamate \(\to\) \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate
D)malate \(\to\) pyruvate
E)all of the above
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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pathways takes place primarily within the inner mitochondrial membrane?
A)fatty acid \(\beta\)-oxidation
B)electron transport
C)glycolysis
D)citric acid cycle
E)pentose phosphate pathway
Q2) Which of the following acts as an uncoupler of the mitochondrial proton gradient due to its action as an ionophore?
A)valinomycin
B)nigericin
C)trifluorocarbonylcyanide phenylhydrazone
D)2,4-dinitrophenol
E)cyanide
Q3) In addition to iron,what metal is found in certain cytochromes?
A)manganese
B)copper
C)chromium
D)cobalt
E)zinc
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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) For every 12 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate produced by rubisco,_____ are converted to hexoses while _____ are recycled to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.
A)2;10
B)4;8
C)6;6
D)8;4
E)10;2
Q2) The regeneration phase of the dark reactions are best considered in terms of regenerating 6 molecules of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate,a process that requires 6 ATP.Considering the number of photons required for production of ATP in the light reactions,on average,how many photons must be absorbed for each molecule of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate regenerated?
A)1.5
B)3
C)4.5
D)6
E)9
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Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty
Acids,triacylglycerols,and Lipoproteins
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Q1) A(n)___________ is converted to a(n)_____________ by loss of triacylglycerols.
A)chylomicron;very low density lipoprotein
B)low density lipoprotein;high density lipoprotein
C)very low density lipoprotein;intermediate density lipoprotein
D)low density lipoprotein;very low density lipoprotein
E)intermediate density lipoprotein;very low density lipoprotein
Q2) Which of the following lipoproteins distributes dietary lipids?
A)chylomicron
B)very low density lipoprotein
C)intermediate density lipoprotein
D)low density lipoprotein
E)high density lipoprotein
Q3) Individuals with diets high in coconut oil consume large amounts of lauric (12:0).What are the \(\beta\)-oxidation products of lauric acid?
A)6 acetyl-CoA,6 NADH,6 FADH<sub>2</sub>,1 ATP used for activation
B)6 acetyl-CoA,5 NADH,5 FADH<sub>2</sub>,1 ATP used for activation
C)6 acetyl-CoA,6 NADH,6 FADH<sub>2</sub>,2 ATP used for activation
D)6 acetyl-CoA,5 NADH,5 FADH<sub>2</sub>,2 ATP used for activation
E)none of the above
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Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates
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Q1) What is the general reaction type catalyzed by most of the sirtuins?
A)deadenylation
B)deacetylation
C)dehydrogenation
D)deamination
E)dehydration
Q2) If a group of transgenic mice that overexpress SIRT1 was fed as much food as the mice desired to eat,what would be the consequences?
A)shortened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular disease
B)normal lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
C)normal lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
D)lengthened lifespan with increased incidence of age-related diseases
E)lengthened lifespan with no increased incidence of age-related diseases
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20
Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, steroids, isoprenoids,
and Eicosanoids
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Q1) Which of the following forms of vitamin A is covalently attached to a lysine residue of the protein opsin to form the complex called rhodopsin?
A)all-trans-retinal
B)11-cis-retinal
C)all-trans-retinoic acid
D)all-trans-retinol
E)\(\beta\)-carotene
Q2) Show the reaction catalyzed by 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutrayl-CoA reductase.
Q3) The biosynthesis of cardiolipin involves the reaction of phosphatidylglycerol with a molecule of ___________.
A)phosphatidylglycerol
B)phosphatidylserine
C)phosphatidylethanolamine
D)glycerol
E)a fatty acyl-CoA
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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:
Principles of Biosynthesis, utilization, and Turnover
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Q1) The conversion of nitrogen to ammonia can be accomplished by _________ while the conversion of nitrate to ammonia can be accomplished by _________.
A)plants;diazotrophs
B)diazotrophs;plants
C)diazotrophs;invertebrates
D)denitrifying bacteria;bacteria
E)denitrifying bacteria;plants
Q2) Which of the following amino acids is exclusively ketogenic?
A)phenylalanine
B)tyrosine
C)isoleucine
D)arginine
E)leucine
Q3) Which of the following represents a correct flow of electrons for nitrogen fixation?
A)ferredoxin \(\to\) Fe protein \(\to\) MoFe protein \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
B)Fe protein \(\to\) MoFe protein \(\to\) ferredoxin \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
C)MoFe protein \(\to\) Fe protein \(\to\) ferredoxin \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
D)ferredoxin \(\to\) MoFe protein \(\to\) Fe protein \(\to\) N<sub>2</sub>
E)none of the above
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds Ii:
Amino Acids, porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids is derived from a glycolytic intermediate?
A)aspartate
B)threonine
C)proline
D)arginine
E)serine
Q2) The regeneration of methionine from homocysteine relies upon the conversion of _________ to __________ as a source of carbon.
A)alanine;pyruvate
B)phenylalanine;tyrosine
C)cystathionine;cysteine
D)proline;glutamate
E)serine;glycine
Q3) Which of the following is a role of spermine and spermidine,the polyamines derived from glutamate?
A)stabilization of tRNA duplex structure
B)neutralization of DNA negative charge
C)stabilization of double stranded DNA
D)stabilization of bacterial membranes
E)all of the above
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following best explains the initial steps for the synthesis of deoxynucleotides?
A)begins with reduction of the ribose residue in PRPP
B)deoxy PRPP is formed from deoxyribose-5-phosphate
C)formed by reduction of ribonucleotide counterparts
D)formed by oxidation of ribonucleotide counterparts
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following coenzymes contains an adenylate group?
A)cobalamin
B)tetrahydrofolate
C)thiamine pyrophosphate
D)pyridoxal phosphate
E)coenzyme A
Q3) Which of the following is a product of xanthine dehydrogenase?
A)hypoxanthine
B)uric acid
C)guanine
D)xanthosine
E)allantoin
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24
Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction
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Q1) The complex of zinc and cysteine residues seen in the structure of steroid hormone receptors is referred to as a(an)______________ structural motif.
A)zinc loop
B)zinc helix
C)antiparallel zinc sheet
D)zinc finger
E)zinc turn
Q2) A G protein is inactive when the _____ subunit is bound to __________.
A)\(\alpha\);GMP
B)\(\alpha\);GDP
C)\(\beta\);GMP
D)\(\beta\);GDP
E)\(\beta\)/\(\gamma\);GMP
Q3) What is the primary target of releasing factors from the hypothalamus?
A)thyroid
B)adrenal medulla
C)adrenal cortex
D)posterior pituitary
E)anterior pituitary
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Chapter 24: Genes,genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) What proteins,responsible for specific protein kinase activation,are major control elements in the cell cycle?
A)Rb proteins
B)cyclins
C)p53
D)cohesins
E)nonhistone chromosomal proteins
Q2) A pseudogene is a ___________.
A)gene that codes for a non-functional protein
B)nonexpressed gene
C)mutated gene
D)gene with multiple promoter regions that causes the start of transcription to be mistaken
E)none of the above
Q3) What is the typical percentage of lysine + arginine in histone proteins?
A)<5%
B)5-10%
C)10-20%
D)20-35%
E)>35%
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Chapter 25: Dna Replication
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Q1) Which of the following describes the correct sequence of enzyme activity upon the lagging strand?
A)primase,DNA ligase,DNA polymerase I,DNA polymerase III
B)primase,DNA polymerase I,DNA polymerase III,DNA ligase
C)DNA polymerase III,primase,DNA polymerase I,DNA ligase
D)primase,DNA ligase,DNA polymerase III,DNA polymerase I
E)primase,DNA polymerase III,DNA polymerase I,DNA ligase
Q2) Which of the following is an 11-base consensus sequence that makes up the autonomously replicating sequence present in yeast DNA that is a requirement for the start of replication?
A)5'-GTGCGTGCGTG-3'
B)5'-CCTCCTGGTGG-3'
C)5'-AAGCGCGCGCC-3'
D)5'-GGTGGACCTCC-3'
E)5'-TTTTATATTTT-3'
Q3) For the following sequence,indicate the RNA primer that would be needed to start synthesis of the Okazaki fragment.
5'-A-A-C-T-A-G-A-C-C-A-G-A-3'
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Chapter 26: Dna Restructuring:
Repair,recombination,rearrangement,amplification
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Q1) One mechanism to introduce greater diversity into antibody sequences is somatic hypermutation.What enzyme is responsible for somatic hypermutation in the DNA sequences that code for antibodies?
A)deoxyadenosine deaminase
B)deoxycytidine deaminase
C)deoxyadenosine transaminase
D)purine-pyrimidine transposase
E)none of the above
Q2) In order for lysogeny to occur,the enzyme ______________ must insert the phage DNA into a specific site in the bacterial chromosome.
A)ligase
B)lysogenase
C)helicase
D)integrase
E)none of the above
Q3) Show the common base pair seen between 8-oxoguanine and adenine.
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Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and Post-Transcriptional Processing
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Q1) Which subunit of E.coli RNA polymerase is responsible for the RNA polymerization reaction?
A)\(\alpha\)
B)\(\beta\)
C)\(\beta\)'
D) \(\sigma\)
E)\(\omega\)
Q2) Rifampicin is known to inhibit RNA synthesis in E.coli.Once the first ten nucleotides have been incorporated,rifampicin does not inhibit RNA synthesis.Which of the following best explains how rifampicin functions?
A)rifampicin binds only to the core enzyme when bound to DNA but can bind to the holoenzyme when not bound to DNA
B)rifampicin can bind to RNA polymerase when the polymerase is not bound to DNA but cannot bind when the polymerase is bound to DNA
C)rifampicin only inhibits when the \(\alpha\) subunit is bound to the core enzyme
D)rifampicin is able to bind to the nucleotide binding site at any time
E)none of the above
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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational
Protein Processing
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prokaryotic proteins that are destined for secretion often contain a sequence of ________ amino acids at the ___ -terminus of the protein
A)hydrophilic;N
B)hydrophobic;N
C)hydrophilic;C
D)hydrophobic;C
E)none of the above
Q2) What is a polyribosome?
A)ribosomes that synthesize different subunits of the same protein
B)several ribosomes all attached to the same mRNA
C)ribosomes that are covalently bonded to each other in a polymer fashion
D)a ribosome that only produces proteins that will be excreted by the cell
E)none of the above
Q3) What site is occupied by the tRNA<sup>fMet</sup> during intitiation?
A)A site
B)P site
C)E site
D)binds first to A site then moves to P site
E)binds first to P site then moves to E site
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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA damage that requires RecA to bind to a DNA gap activates proteolysis of _____,which then activates the transcription of genes within the SOS regulon.
A)cI
B)Cro
C)LexA
D)uvrA
E)uvrB
Q2) In a histone protein,what modification to lysine marks the nucleosome as a transcription target?
A)phosphorylation
B)methylation
C)ubiquitylation
D)ADP-ribosylation
E)acetylation
Q3) Design an antisense RNA that prevents the start of translation for any mRNA in an E.coli cell.
Q4) Show how glutamine interacts with an A-T base pair as seen in the cI and Cro repressors.
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