Genetics
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Genetics is the scientific study of genes, heredity, and genetic variation in living organisms. This course explores the molecular structure and function of genes, gene expression and regulation, Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance patterns, genetic mapping, and population genetics. Students will examine how genetic information is passed from one generation to the next and how genetic variation contributes to phenotypic diversity and evolution. The course also addresses modern genetic technologies and applications, such as genetic engineering, gene therapy, and genomics, as well as the ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic research.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings
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19 Chapters
1035 Verified Questions
1035 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the properties of genes is that they can "recombine." This refers to their ability to ____.
A) be transmitted from parents to children
B) move from one chromosome to another
C) be turned on and off
D) undergo changes
E) break into pieces and then reassemble
Answer: B
Q2) The decline of the eugenics movement in the U.S. in the early 20th century resulted from ____.
A) its misuse for social and political purposes by the Nazis
B) the lack of knowledge of the cell theory
C) the lack of understanding of natural selection
D) the idea that most human traits are controlled by single genes
E) all of these
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hayflick limit describes ____.
A) the size limit to which a cell can grow
B) the number of divisions a cultured cell can undergo
C) the largest number of chromosomes an organism can possess
D) the most cells an organism can have
E) how rapidly DNA replication occurs
Answer: B
Q2) In meiosis, when do cells become haploid?
A) After telophase I
B) After telophase II
C) During anaphase I
D) During anaphase II
E) After prophase II
Answer: A
Q3) Mitotic divisions reduce the number of chromosomes found in daughter cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) There are __________ autosomes present in a human egg.
Answer: 22
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes From Generation to Generation
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joshua has O type blood and the Bombay phenotype. His partner, Alice, has AB blood and does not have the Bombay phenotype, but her mother does. What are the possible blood types of the children of Joshua and Alice?
A) A, B, and O
B) A and O
C) B and O
D) All O
E) A and B
Answer: A
Q2) A person with genotype L L has the phenotype (blood type) M.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) In Mendel's crosses, pure-breeding individuals were always in the ____________________ generation.
Answer: P
Q4) The separation of members of a gene pair into the gametes is called ____________________.
Answer: segregation
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a pedigree of several generations shows only females affected by a particular trait, what can be ruled out?
A) Autosomal recessive inheritance
B) X-linked dominant inheritance
C) Y-linked inheritance
D) X-linked recessive inheritance
E) None of these can be ruled out
Q2) If a man and his wife are both homozygous for a disease-causing recessive gene, then ____________________ of their children will be affected.
Q3) A defective form of the protein dystrophin is involved in the diseases __________ and ________.
Q4) Mendel's laws apply to all sexually reproducing organisms. Therefore, the basic methods of genetic analysis in humans and other organisms is the same. A)True
B)False
Q5) The phenotypes of a trait controlled by the same gene are not always identical. A)True B)False
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Chapter 5: Complex Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most evidence indicates that skin color is controlled by how many gene pairs?
A) One
B) Two to three
C) Three to four
D) Five to seven
E) More than twelve
Q2) Using a large poster board, construct a Punnet Square involving three genes for skin color. One of the parents is completely dominant for all three genes and the other parent is completely recessive for all three genes. Then construct a graph of the number of offspring (y-axis) versus phenotype (skin color from lightest to darkest on the x-axis).
Q3) While monozygotic twins share the same genome, their fingerprints are not identical. Why is this so?
Q4) Mendel's experiments with pea plants yielded useful results because A) pea plants exhibit continuous variation.
B) pea plants exhibit a variety of inheritance patterns.
C) pea plants show discontinuous variation and complete dominance.
D) pea plants are sterile.
E) more than one of these are correct.
Q5) The hormone leptin is produced in ____________________ cells.
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics: Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with the chromosome constitution ____________________ were once considered more genetically predisposed to committing violent crime than those with a normal chromosome constitution.
Q2) What would be the karyotypic designation of a female with trisomy for the X chromosome? ____________________
Q3) Fragile sites are chromosome locations that
A) show an increased number of chromosome bands.
B) show a decreased number of chromosome bands.
C) are all associated with a specific defective phenotype.
D) indicate that carriers are mentally retarded.
E) are inherited in a codominant fashion.
Q4) When making a karyotype, what is the effect of placing lymphocytes in a low-salt solution?
A) It makes the chromosomes more visible.
B) It initiates cell division.
C) It stops the cells in metaphase.
D) It helps separate the chromosomes.
E) It causes the cells to swell.
Page 8
Q5) Who are translocation carriers and in what sense are they high-risk individuals?
Q6) _______ describes a chromosome that has a centrally-placed centromere.
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by lack of normal ____________________ in the skin.
Q2) At around ___ weeks of fetal life, genes are activated that initiate sexual differentiation.
A) 9
B) 12
C) 15
D) 21
E) 25
Q3) Think about this: It has been proven absolutely that a certain chemical can never pass through the placenta from the mother's circulation into the fetus's circulation. Is it still possible for this chemical to be a teratogen? Why or why not?
Q4) ____________________ equalizes the dosage of functional genes carried on the X chromosome in males and females.
Q5) With all that you now know about sex determination and sex differentiation, can you satisfactorily define "male" and "female"?
Q6) Meiosis I in females is completed at ____________.
Q7) Compare and contrast gametogenesis in males and females.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: DNA Structure and Chromosomal Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the chemical composition and structure of DNA.
Q2) Cytosine and thymine are the two types of bases found in DNA known as ______________________.
Q3) In the structure of DNA, the total amount of ____________________ and ____________________ equals the total amount of ____________________ and ____________________.
Q4) To make a DNA vaccine against SARS, what type of genes were used?
A) Human genes
B) E.coli genes
C) Chimpanzee genes
D) SARS viral genes
E) H1N1 viral genes
Q5) A ____________________ is made up of a sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base.
Q6) DNA is made up of a linear array of ____________________.
Q7) The 3' end of DNA or RNA ends with a phosphate group.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
Q8) What are the properties of genes that must be accounted for in proposing DNA or any other molecule as a carrier of genetic information?
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression: From Genes to Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many codons do not code for any amino acid?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Q2) After RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence and causes the adjacent double-strand DNA to unwind, only one strand can be used as the template for RNA formation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cap on the 3' end of mRNA helps attach the mRNA to the ribosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In translation, unlike DNA replication, the base-pairing rule is not required.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Outline the role of RNA in the synthesis of polypeptides.
Q6) The RNA molecule involved in both transcription and translation is
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the nature of the genetic mutation that causes lactose intolerance?
A) It is a dominant mutation that prevents lactase production.
B) It is a dominant mutation that causes a decline in adult lactase levels.
C) It is a recessive mutation that prevents lactase production.
D) It is a recessive mutation that causes a decline in adult lactase levels.
E) It is an X-linked mutation that prevents lactase production.
Q2) In most cases, mutations in metabolic pathways produce a recessive trait. Suggest how a mutation in a metabolic pathway might produce a dominant condition.
Q3) There are no mandatory screening programs for genetic defects such as PKU and galactosemia in newborns.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The existence of differential drug sensitivity serves to reinforce the idea that
A) many people carry genetic defects.
B) each individual is biologically and biochemically unique.
C) drugs need to be more closely regulated.
D) metabolic blocks are a widespread phenomenon.
E) none of these is reinforced.
Q5) Garrod called enzyme defects ____________________.
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Chapter 11: Mutation: the Source of Genetic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the DNA mutation in fragile-X syndrome and how it changes from generation to generation.
Q2) A purine or pyrimidine that differs in chemical structure from a purine or pyrimidine normally found in DNA or RNA is called a _____________.
Q3) Frameshift mutations include nucleotide substitutions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In diseases like xeroderma pigmentosum, why is it that mutations in several different genes can produce the same phenotypic effect?
Q5) Which of the following does NOT affect the mutation rate of a gene?
A) The size of the gene.
B) The number of GC pairs versus AT pairs.
C) Whether the gene is on a maternal or paternal chromosome.
D) The number of trinucleotide sequences.
E) All of these affect the mutation rate of a gene.
Q6) A radiation dose of 400 rem, if untreated, causes death within 60 days of about ____________________ percent of people exposed to it.
Q7) Describe three ways that DNA mutations can alter the protein product.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The percentage of cancers associated with an inherited predisposition is approximately _________.
A) 5 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 15 percent
D) 50 percent
E) 75 percent
Q2) Products of tumor-suppressor genes act at control points in the cell cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss what tumor-suppressor genes do and give an example of a disorder where these tumor-suppressor genes may be missing.
Q4) Mutation of the APC gene has been identified as the first step toward development of
A) breast cancer.
B) familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP).
C) hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer (HNPCC).
D) retinoblastoma.
E) acute myeloblastic leukemia.
Q5) ____________________ genes normally suppress cell divisions.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22011
Sample Questions
Q1) A restriction enzyme is most comparable to a ___________.
A) screwdriver
B) hammer
C) pair of scissors
D) fork
E) ruler
Q2) For what purpose do bacteria use restriction enzymes?
A) They are used in plasmid exchanges to fuse plasmid DNA.
B) They are used to restrict important nutrients from leaving the bacterial cell.
C) They are used to resist infections by viruses.
D) They are used to cut up and recycle mRNA transcripts.
E) They are used to attach amino acids to tRNA molecules.
Q3) The vectors most commonly used in recombinant DNA technology are ____________.
Q4) A fragment cut out of DNA and a plasmid cut open for insertion of the fragment must both have been cut with the same type of restriction enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In recombinant DNA technology, _________ are used to cut DNA at specific sites.
Page 16
Q6) Explain the technologies used in cloning domestic animals.
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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53 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human protein used to treat Pompe disease is collected from the ____________________ of transgenic rabbits
Q2) Summarize the various different uses for transgenic animals and plants.
Q3) Which one of the following statements best summarizes the use of transgenic crops over the last 10 years?
A) It has increased significantly in both industrialized and developing nations.
B) It has increased significantly, but only in industrialized nations that have the expertise.
C) It has increased significantly, but only in developing nations where regulations are loose or non-existent.
D) It has barely increased at all because of technical difficulties and safety concerns. E) It has fallen due to technical difficulties and safety concerns.
Q4) Animal genes cannot function in plants. A)True B)False
Q5) Monarch butterflies are a beloved species. They feed almost exclusively on milkweed. Why are people concerned about monarchs feeding on milkweed growing near fields in which Bt crops are grown?
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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49 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22013
Sample Questions
Q1) The number of genes in the human genome is estimated to be between
A) 20,000 and 25,000.
B) 50,000 and 75,000.
C) 150,000 and 200,000.
D) 5,000 and 10,000.
E) 80,000 and 100,000.
Q2) Which of the following methods uses gene cloning and genomic libraries?
A) Whole genome sequencing
B) Map-based sequencing
C) DNA base sequencing
D) More than one of these
E) None of these
Q3) The goal of pharmacogenetics is to identify genes related to human diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Overall, genes are unevenly distributed along their chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Genes on the same chromosome are said to show ______________.
Q6) A set of SNPs close together on a chromosome is called a _______________.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology, Genetic Testing, and Gene Therapy
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first successful outcome of gene therapy was in a case of a young girl suffering from ____________________ who was supplied with copies of the ADR gene.
Q2) The retrovirus to be used as a vector in gene therapy is first made harmless by removal of ____________________.
Q3) Knowledge about the sex of an unborn fetus is a byproduct of prenatal testing. Because such information might be used as the basis for elective abortion for sex selection, should information about the sex of an unborn child be withheld from the parents unless it is medically relevant?
Q4) What are the goals of heterozygote screening? Explain why sickle cell anemia and Tay-Sachs screening programs are good examples of this type of screening.
Q5) What are the problems and benefits associated with presymptomatic testing for late-onset disorders such as Huntington disease?
Q6) The most direct way to detect Down Syndrome in a fetus is by ___________.
Q7) Gene therapy done to sperm or egg cells, or the cells that produce them, is called ____________________ gene therapy.
Q8) The condition of having no sperm in the semen is called _____________.
Q9) Describe two prenatal tests for genetic disorders.
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Chapter 17: Genes and the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the human body can you find T cells?
A) Bone marrow
B) Blood
C) Thymus glands
D) Spleen
E) All of these
Q2) People with failing organs may be saved by transplants, xenotransplants, or artificial organs, all of which are being researched and have different advantages and disadvantages. Make a group list of these advantages and disadvantages to help decide whether one of these three techniques should be given research priority.
Q3) The quick response of the immune system to a second infection is due to
A) activation of macrophage cells.
B) suppression of suppressor cells.
C) T and B memory cells.
D) high levels of antigen.
E) new cytotoxic T cells.
Q4) Many of the medications available for people with allergies are antihistamines.
Describe the symptoms of a typical pollen allergy and explain how the antihistamine works to provide relief.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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51 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22016
Sample Questions
Q1) Give evidence that might prove that human personality could be partially inherited.
Q2) For which of the following diseases would animal models likely yield the most information?
A) Alcoholism
B) Schizophrenia
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Huntington disease
E) PKU
Q3) It is difficult to decide whether many behaviors should be considered abnormal behaviors or just variants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the function of a normal MAOA protein?
A) It breaks down neurotransmitters.
B) It carries neurotransmitters across synapses.
C) It is a neurotransmitter.
D) It is an enzyme essential in the formation of certain neurotransmitters.
E) It is an enzyme responsible for the construction of neurotransmitter receptors.
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the effect of genetic drift on evolution? How does the founder effect work to cause change in allele frequency?
Q2) If .04 percent (.0004) of the people in a population have sickle cell anemia, the percent of heterozygotes in the population must be ____________________.
Q3) If natural selection is real, why do lethal recessive disorders still exist in populations?
A) Recessive disorders most frequently do not manifest until later in life, after the individual has reproduced.
B) Recessive alleles remain hidden in carriers who are not affected by the disorder.
C) There may be an advantage to individuals who are heterozygous.
D) Recessive disorders most frequently do not manifest until later in life, after the individual has reproduced; and recessive alleles remain hidden in carriers who are not affected by the disorder.
E) Recessive alleles remain hidden in carriers who are not affected by the disorder; and there may be an advantage to individuals who are heterozygous.
Q4) Genetically, humans and chimpanzees are _________ percent the same.
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