Genetics
Question Bank
Course
Introduction
Genetics explores the principles of heredity and variation in living organisms, focusing on the structure and function of genes at molecular, cellular, and organismal levels. The course covers Mendelian genetics, DNA replication, gene expression and regulation, genetic mutations, and patterns of inheritance. It also introduces modern topics such as genetic engineering, genomics, and the ethical considerations of genetic technology, providing students with a foundational understanding of how genetic information is transmitted and manipulated within and across generations.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 8th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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2
Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding biomolecules is false?
A) They contain predominantly ionic bonds.
B) They contain predominantly nonmetallic elements.
C) Carbon is the key element.
D) Specific stereoisomers are essential in most cases.
Answer: A
Q2) Which organelle does not contain DNA?
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondrion
C) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
D) Chloroplast
E) All of these organelles contain DNA
Answer: C
Q3) The genetic code
A) determines the order of sugars in a polysaccharide
B) has no effect on the sequence of amino acids in proteins
C) is the means by which the "blueprint" for living organisms is passed from one generation to the next
D) cannot be understood by currently available experimental methods
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Water: the Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution at pH 7 contains a weak acid, HA. The pK<sub>a</sub> of the acid is 6.5. What is the ratio of [A ]:[HA]?
A) 1:3
B) 1:1
C) 3:1
D) 10:1
Answer: C
Q2) Is water an acid or a base?
A) Water is an acid.
B) Water is a base.
C) Water is both an acid and a base.
D) Water is neither an acid nor a base.
Answer: C
Q3) When does a weak acid buffer best?
A) From one pH unit below its pK<sub>a</sub> to its pK<sub>a</sub>.
B) From its pK<sub>a</sub> to one pH unit above its pK<sub>a</sub>.
C) Within one pH unit of its pK<sub>a</sub>, both above and below.
D) Weak acids do not make good buffers at all.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the charge on the tetrapeptide lys-lys-his-glu at pH 7?
A) 0
B) +1
C) +2
D) 1
Answer: B
Q2) Which amino acid takes on a negative charge when the R-group loses a proton?
A) Glutamic Acid
B) Histidine
C) Glutamine
D) Tyrosine
E) Glutamic Acid and Tyrosine
Answer: E
Q3) At its isolectric pH, glycine will have
A) both of its ionizable functional groups dissociated.
B) neither of its ionizable functional groups dissociated.
C) only its carboxyl group dissociated.
D) only its amino group dissociated.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) X-ray crystallography is used to determine protein structure because
A) it can be done on dilute solutions
B) it requires no calculations
C) the positions of all atoms can be found by this method
D) all of these
Q2) What would happen to hemoglobin if the BPG were removed?
A) It would not bind oxygen
B) It would dissociate into monomers
C) its oxygen binding curve would resemble that of myoglobin
D) all of the choices
Q3) The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin differs from the oxygen-binding behavior of myoglobin because
A) oxygen binding to hemoglobin is cooperative.
B) oxygen binding to myoglobin is cooperative.
C) hemoglobin is not an allosteric protein.
D) the oxygen-binding curve of hemoglobin is hyperbolic.
Q4) As an animal ages, the amount of cross-linking of collagen in tissue
A) tends to decrease.
B) tends to increase.
C) tends to remain unchanged.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally speaking, sequence techniques have become so sensitive that if you are able to isolate the protein on a gel, there is enough of it to get a significant amount of its sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Methods for breaking proteins into smaller peptides include all of the following except:
A) Digestion with chymotrypsin
B) Cyanogen Bromide treatment
C) Digestion with Trypsin
D) Edmann degradation
E) All of the above create short peptides suitable for sequencing
Q3) The most efficient method for determining the sequence of a short peptide is:
A) Edman degradation
B) Trypsin digestion
C) Chymotrypsin digestion
D) Cyanogen bromide digestion
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Competitive inhibitors have this effect:
A) Modifying the K<sub>M</sub> value.
B) Changing the value for V<sub>max</sub>.
C) Interfering with substrate binding.
D) This type of inhibitor both changes the K<sub>M</sub> and interferes with substrate binding.
E) All of these are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is not true?
A) In thermodynamics, spontaneous does not mean instantaneous or even fast.
B) If a reaction is spontaneous then it has a negative G.
C) Speed of a reaction is a kinetic parameter, not a thermodynamic one.
D) A reaction with a positive G<sup>0</sup> can never happen
Q3) The substrate will only bind to the enzyme when the shapes fit together rigidly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What effect does a catalyst have on the G° of a reaction?
A) A catalyst lowers the G°.
B) A catalyst raises the G°.
C) A catalyst has no effect on the G°.
D) It depend on the specific catalyst.
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concerted and sequential models for the behavior of allosteric enzymes differ in A) the conformational change in the enzyme in one model and not in the other.
B) the number of predicted binding sites on the enzyme.
C) the manner in which changes in quaternary structure take place.
D) the response of the enzyme to changes in temperature.
Q2) The sequential model for allosteric enzymes was proposed by:
A) Koshland
B) Pauling
C) Pasteur
D) Monod, Wyman and Changeux
E) All of these
Q3) The critical serine residue in the active site of chymotrypsin functions as A) a nucleophile.
B) an electrophile.
C) a base.
D) a methyl donor.
E) none of these
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Exhibit 8A. Protein #2 would most likely function as a:
A) Carrier
B) Channel
C) Cell identity
D) Receptor
E) You cannot tell from the diagram.
Q2) There are likely to be huge stores of lipid vitamins in healthy animals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true?
A) All fatty acids have an even number of carbons
B) Most fatty acids have an odd number of carbons
C) Fatty acids are equally likely to have an even number of carbons as they are an odd number
D) Fatty acids with an odd number of carbons are more rare than those with an even number
E) none of these
Q4) Cholesterol is particularly important as a component of animal membranes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups is not found in nucleosides?
A) Phosphates
B) Purines
C) Pyrimidines
D) Sugars
E) All of these are found in nucleosides
Q2) The three dimensional structure of nucleic acids can include all except:
A) Supercoiling
B) Base stacking
C) Hairpin loops
D) Circular molecules
E) All of these can be included in the three dimensional structure
Q3) Deoxyadenylate (dA) is a:
A) purine base
B) pyrimidine base
C) purine based nucleoside
D) purine based nucleotide
E) pyrimidine based nucleotide
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of eukaryotic, but not prokaryotic, DNA replication?
A) Topoisomerases are required.
B) A primer is needed on the lagging strand only.
C) Histone biosynthesis must take place.
D) There is only one origin of replication.
Q2) The universal features of DNA replication include all the following, except:
A) Release of PP<sub>i</sub> from a nucleoside triphosphate.
B) Synthesis from the 5' end to the 3' end.
C) Base pairing of A to T and G to C.
D) Use of a primer.
E) All of these describe DNA synthesis.
Q3) Which of the activities of DNA Polymerase I is most important in its role of proofreading?
A) Polymerase activity.
B) Ability to nick intact double stranded DNA.
C) 5' 3' exonuclease.
D) 3' 5' exonuclease.
E) None of these is used for proofreading.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Non-coding RNAs are known to:
A) bind to mRNA targeting them for destruction
B) bind to mRNA preventing their translation
C) promote RNA silencing
D) all of these
Q2) Which of the following is true about riboswitches:
A) They have a molecule sensing domain called an aptamer
B) There are known pathogens that use riboswitches as part of their mechanism
C) They respond to specific molecules and control translation in a way that is often similar to transcription attenuation
D) They contain a sensing domain and a decision making domain
E) All of these
Q3) How do the core enzyme and the holoenzyme of RNA polymerase differ in E. coli?
A) The holoenzyme includes the sigma ( ) subunit, the core enzyme does not.
B) The core enzyme includes the sigma ( ) subunit, the holoenzyme does not.
C) The holoenzyme transcribes from an RNA template, the core enzyme from a DNA template.
D) The core enzyme transcribes from an RNA template, the holoenzyme from a DNA template.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum number of amino acids that can be specified by a codon consisting of a sequence of two bases?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 20
Q2) Which of following best describes the two-step process for adding amino acids to tRNAs AA = amino acid, P<sub>i</sub> = phosphate, PP<sub>i</sub> = pyrophosphate
A) AA + ATP AA P + ADP; AA P + tRNA AA tRNA + P<sub>i</sub>
B) AA + ATP AA AMP + PP<sub>i</sub>; AA AMP + tRNA AA tRNA + AMP
C) tRNA + ATP tRNA P + ADP; tRNA P + AA AA tRNA + P<sub>i</sub>
D) tRNA + ATP tRNA AMP + PP<sub>i</sub>; tRNA AMP + AA AA tRNA + AMP
Q3) The protein which marks proteins for degradation is called:
A) Chaperonin
B) Ubiquitin
C) Proteasomin
D) Apoptosin
E) None of these names is correct.
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Q1) Antibiotic-resistance genes in vectors are often used as selectable markers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are methods used to determine where the DNA bands are located on an electrophoresis gel?
A) Radioactivity
B) Fluorescence
C) Dyes which bind to DNA
D) Luminescence
E) All of these can visualize the DNA
Q3) The presence of bacterial or viral clones is detected experimentally by A) the presence of colonies or plaques on a suitably prepared Petri dish.
B) gel electrophoresis.
C) analytical ultracentrifugation.
D) x-ray crystallography.
Q4) A multiple cloning site is also known as:
A) a polylinker
B) an origin of replication
C) a restriction enzyme site
D) a selectable marker
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following genes in normal cells can be related to oncogenes?
A) Cyclins, which regulate the timing of cell division.
B) Tumor suppressing proteins.
C) Hormone receptors on the surface of the cell.
D) Protein kinases, which regulate the activity of cellular proteins.
E) Oncogenes include examples of all of these.
Q2) Colds are commonly caused by
A) SV40.
B) retroviruses.
C) coronaviruses.
D) rhinoviruses.
Q3) Herceptin is a
A) protein found in liver cancer
B) drug designed to fight a specific type of breast cancer
C) drug that inhibits autoimmune diseases
D) none of these
Q4) Antibodies have two binding sites to react with antigens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and Electron
Transfer in Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a part of FAD?
A) Ribitol
B) isoalloxazine
C) adenine
D) ribose
E) nicotinamide
Q2) Metabolism takes place in stages
A) because enzymes cannot catalyze the process efficiently
B) and allows for efficient production and use of energy
C) because large free energy changes cannot occur in living organisms
D) to use highly unreactive compounds
Q3) The production of larger molecules from smaller ones is called A) metabolism.
B) catabolism.
C) anabolism.
D) none of these
Q4) The number of degrees of freedom a molecule has is related to the numbers of resonant structures it has.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between cellobiose and maltose is:
A) one contains glucose and the other fructose
B) they contain different monosaccharides
C) they both contain glucose units but are connected together at different carbons
D) one has an á linkage and the other a â linkage
E) there is no difference between the two
Q2) The blue color in a well-known test for the presence of starches is due to
A) the formation of crosslinks between molecules of starch, caused by the addition of Cu<sup>2+</sup>
B) the reaction of the silver-ammonia complex ion with the hydroxyl groups of the starch
C) the formation of a complex between iodine and amylose
D) none of these
Q3) When monosaccharides are bonded together
A) one H<sub>2</sub>O molecule is lost for each new link formed.
B) oligosaccharides are formed by combining a few monosaccharides.
C) polysaccharides are formed by combining many monosaccharides.
D) all of these
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about phosphofructokinase?
A) It is made of a single polypeptide chain
B) It is found in the muscle only
C) It is made up of four subunits, potentially of two different types
D) A person who lacks the M subunit does not have the glycolytic pathway
Q2) What is the net ATP yield per glucose during glycolysis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
Q3) Which of the following enzymes of glycolysis is not involved in regulation of the pathway?
A) Hexokinase
B) Phosphofructokinase
C) Aldolase
D) Pyruvate kinase
E) All of these proteins regulate glycolysis.
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) The regulatory enzymes in gluconeogenesis are
A) hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase
B) glucose-6-kinase, aldolase, and enolase
C) glucose-6-phosphatase, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, pyruvate carboxylase, and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
D) pyruvate carboxylase, aldolase, and phosphofructokinase
Q2) The compound uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPG) plays a role in
A) glycogen breakdown.
B) glycogen synthesis.
C) glycolysis.
D) gluconeogenesis.
E) none of these
Q3) High concentrations of fructose-2,6-bisphopshate
A) stimulate glycolysis and inhibit gluconeogenesis.
B) inhibit glycolysis and stimulate gluconeogenesis.
C) stimulate both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.
D) inhibit both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.
E) none of these
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) The only difference between succinate and fumarate is the geometry around their double bonds, one contains a cis double bond and the other contains a trans double bond.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 19A. Which intermediate releases CO<sub>2</sub> concurrent with oxidation?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) Both 1 and 3
E) Both 2 and 3
Q3) There is a cyclic reaction in which pyruvate becomes oxaloacetate. The oxaloacetate is converted to malate and then back to pyruvate. This cycle is important because:
A) There is no net use or fixation of CO<sub>2</sub> in this cycle.
B) NADH is converted to NADPH in this cycle.
C) There is no net oxidation or reduction in this cycle.
D) NADPH is converted to NADH in this cycle.
E) This is actually a wasteful pathway with no practical use.
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Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Creatine supplements work best for long distance exercise, rather than for quick spurts of energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the net yield of ATP per glucose molecule that passes through all of aerobic respiration (glucose CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O)?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 30 32, dependent on the shuttle system used.
Q3) Electron flow in the mitochondria follows this pathway:
A) Complex I complex II complex III complex IV.
B) Complex IV complex III complex II complex I.
C) Complex I complex III complex IV.
D) Complex II complex III complex IV.
E) Both complex I III IV and complex II III IV.
Q4) The pH of the mitochondrial matrix is ____ the pH of the intermembrane space.
A) higher than
B) lower than
C) the same as
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) The conversion of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA involves which of these cofactors?
A) thiamine pyrophosphate
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C) NAD
D) biotin
Q2) Palmitic acid, with 16 carbons, requires 8 cycles of -oxidation to produce 8 acetyl-CoA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What effect do high concentrations of ketone bodies have on blood pH?
A) They tend to lower blood pH.
B) They tend to increase blood pH.
C) They have no effect on blood pH.
Q4) Which of the following is true concerning phospholipases?
A) Many snake venoms contain phospholipases
B) Phospholipase D is a component in some spider venoms
C) Phospholipases in snake venoms can lead to the lysing of blood cells
D) All of these
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) It is believed that the ratio of cyclic electron transport to Z-scheme photosynthesis changes in response to metabolic demands. If a plant were actively engaged in a large amount of reductive biosynthesis, requiring NADPH, how would it alter these processes compared to a plant just performing the Calvin cycle to produce glucose?
A) More cyclic photophosphorylation, less Z-scheme.
B) More Z-scheme photosynthesis, less cyclic photophosphorylation.
C) No significant difference.
D) Impossible to predict from the information provided.
Q2) Of the two photosynthetic pathways, Calvin Cycle or Hatch-Slack Pathway, only the Calvin Cycle uses the pentose phosphate pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where does the actual CO<sub>2</sub> fixation process takes place?
A) the stroma.
B) the thylakoid space.
C) the intermembrane space.
D) the cytosol.
E) none of these
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24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) Which of the following compounds does not serve as an intermediate for the entry of amino acid carbon chains into the major metabolic pathways?
A) Alpha-ketoglutarate.
B) Pyruvate.
C) Glyceraldehyde.
D) Acetyl CoA.
E) All of these are entry points for amino acid catabolism.
Q2) There is a curious diversity of nature for the two sulfur containing amino acids. Methionine is made from cysteine in bacteria, but cysteine is made from methionine in mammals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ultimate end products of xanthine catabolsim are:
A) two pyrimidines
B) urea and glyoxylate
C) uric acid
D) allantoin
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) Between meals, the blood glucose levels are regulated mostly by A) glycogen phosphorylase
B) insulin
C) glucagon
D) epinephrine
E) insulin and glucagon
F) none of these
Q2) Insulin exerts its effects through
A) cyclic AMP.
B) calcium ions.
C) tyrosine kinases.
D) direct action on DNA-binding proteins.
E) none of these
Q3) Epinephrine is an example of a hormone which uses calcium ion as a key part of its intracellular effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Many hormones come in pairs, which have opposing metabolic activity.
A)True
B)False
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