Genetics
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Genetics is the scientific study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics. This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of classical and molecular genetics, including the structure and function of genes, patterns of inheritance, genetic mapping, and the molecular mechanisms underlying gene expression and regulation. Through a combination of lectures, discussions, and laboratory exercises, students will explore topics such as Mendelian genetics, chromosomal abnormalities, genetic mutations, and the role of genetics in evolution and medicine, preparing them for advanced studies and applications in biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Beckers World of the Cell 8th Edition by Jeff Hardin
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Preview of the Cell
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Q1) All of the following biochemical techniques have allowed us to understand cell structure and function except
A)light microscopy.
B)ultracentrifugation.
C)chromatography.
D)electrophoresis.
E)mass spectrometry.
Answer: A
Q2) A scientific ________ must be so thoroughly confirmed that virtually no doubt remains about its accuracy.
Answer: law
Q3) Which type of microscopy enhances and amplifies slight changes in the phase of transmitted light?
A)differential interference contrast microscopy
B)digital video microscopy
C)fluorescence microscopy
D)phase-contrast microscopy
E)both choices A and D
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of hydrocarbons?
A)Octane is a hydrocarbon.
B)Hydrocarbons are insoluble in water.
C)Many hydrocarbons are used in living systems.
D)Only hydrogen atoms are used to complete the valence requirements of carbon.
E)Phospholipids have hydrocarbon tails.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following was not considered part of the "alphabet of biochemistry" by George Wald?
A)the 20 amino acids
B)the 5 nucleotide bases
C)two sugars
D)three lipids
E)seven proteins
Answer: E
Q3) A selectively ________ membrane is one that allows some molecules to pass through but not others.
Answer: permeable
Q4) In order to facilitate polymerization,monomers must be ________.
Answer: activated
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Chapter 3: The Macromolecules of the Cell
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Q1) The term amphipathic describes the characteristic of some molecules that have
A)two polar regions
B)only a single polar region
C)both a polar and a nonpolar region
D)no polar regions
E)two nonpolar regions
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is not a polymer of numerous monomer units?
A)lipids
B)proteins
C)nucleic acids
D)carbohydrates
E)starch
Answer: A
Q3) Because of their structure,trans fats resemble ________ fatty acids in shape and are produced artificially during the manufacture of shortening and margarine.
Answer: saturated Inquiry
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cells and Organelles
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Q1) Photosynthesis is to the chloroplast as ________ is to the mitochondrion.
Q2) When the size of a cell increases,the surface area/volume ratio
A)decreases initially and then begins to increase.
B)remains the same.
C)decreases.
D)increases initially and then begins to decrease.
E)increases.
Q3) In your own words and with your own examples,explain fully how cells are limited in size and how some cells have modifications that allow them to be larger or more adapted to a particular function in spite of these limitations.
Q4) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of A)lipids.
B)polysaccharides.
C)proteins.
D)DNA.
E)all of the above
Q5) The matrix is to the mitochondrion as the ________ is to the chloroplast.
Q6) ________ are infectious proteins that are responsible for several animal diseases,including scrapie and mad cow disease.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Bioenergetics: the Flow of Energy in the Cell
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Q1) The melting of ice is an example of a(n)___________ process.
Q2) Which of the following is a heterotroph?
A)grass
B)a tree
C)a mushroom
D)a geranium
E)a cyanobacterium
Q3) In a reversible reaction at equilibrium,the concentration of R (the reactant)is 3.0 mol/L and the concentration of P (the product)is 0.9 mol/L.At 25°C,what would be the Keq?
A)1.5
B)0.3
C)1.0
D)3.0
E)37.5
Q4) In every physical or chemical change,energy cannot be created nor destroyed.This is the ________ law of thermodynamics.
Q5) In your own words,describe how energy flows through an ecosystem and how this contributes to a continuous increase in enthalpy.
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Chapter 6: Enzymes: the Catalysts of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a prosthetic group?
A)a zinc ion
B)a glycine residue
C)a polypeptide chain
D)a nickel catalyst
E)carboxypeptidase A
Q2) Which of the following does accurately describe the Lineweaver-Burk plot?
A)It is a double-reciprocal plot.
B)The y intercept is equal to 1/Vmax.
C)The x intercept is -1/Km.
D)It is a linear plot.
E)Its slope is the same as the Eadie-Hofstee plot.
Q3) An enzyme influences the structure of which of the following?
A)substrate
B)product
C)transition state
D)cofactor
E)intermediate
Q4) Nonprotein catalysts are known as ________.
Q5) ________ inhibitors bind reversibly at the active site of an enzyme.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Membranes: Their Structure, function, and Chemistry
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Q1) Which of the following is a sterol-like lipid associated with the cell membrane of prokaryotes?
A)stearate
B)phytosterol
C)linoleate
D)palmitate
E)hopanoids
Q2) The presence of trans fats in membranes ________ the transition temperature and ________ membrane fluidity.
Q3) Many integral membrane proteins have not been analyzed by X-ray crystallography.
However,transmembrane segments can be inferred using computer analysis of the amino
Acid sequence of the protein.This technique is known as
A)homeoviscous adaptation.
B)lipid analysis.
C)lipid rafting.
D)hydropathic analysis.
E)SDS-PAGE.
9
Q4) The shifting of membrane fluidity from a gel-like to a more liquid state is known as
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Chapter 8: Transport Across Membranes: Overcoming the
Permeability
Barrier
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Q1) What is the G for the inward transport of sucrose?
A)+1.774 kcal/mol; an endergonic reaction
B)+1.774 kcal/mol; an exergonic reaction
C)-1.774 kcal/mol; an endergonic reaction
D)-1.774 kcal/mol; an exergonic reaction
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of active transport?
A)sensitive to metabolic poisons
B)exclusively move one molecule at a time in a unidirectional manner
C)can be coupled with passive transport to generate the energy necessary for active transport
D)can work as symports or antiports
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of facilitated diffusion?
A)GLUT1 glucose transporter
B)anion exchange protein
C)aquaporins
D)channel proteins
E)oxygen transport
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Q4) In the capillaries of the lungs,O diffuses ________ and is bound to ________.
Chapter 9: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
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Q1) An energy-liberating pathway is considered to be A)metabolic.
B)anabolic.
C)catabolic.
D)hydrogenation.
E)all of the above
Q2) Reduction is defined as the addition of ________.In biological systems,these are usually accompanied by protons in a process called ________.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the special "high-energy" bond of ATP?
A)phosphoester
B)phosphoanhydride
C)hydrogen
D)ionic
E)hydrogenation
Q4) The negatively charged phosphates of ATP influence one another by A)relative hydration.
B)charge repulsion.
C)resonance hybridization.
D)dehydrogenation.
E)all of the above
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Chapter 10: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Aerobic
Respiration
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Q1) The condition known as ketosis is characterized by
A)depleted ketobody levels
B)depleted CoA levels
C)fat oxidation to CO .
D)increases in blood pH
E)both choices A and D
Q2) Pyruvate dehydrogenase is regulated by all of the following except
A)NADH.
B)ATP.
C)AMP.
D)acetyl CoA.
E)CO .
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the major transport systems of the inner mitochondrial membrane?
A)sodium-potassium pump
B)dicarboxylate carriers
C)tricarboxylate carriers
D)pyruvate carrier cotransport
E)ATP-ADP carrier exchange
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Q4) Respiration includes glycolysis,the ________,electron transport,and ________.
Chapter 11: Phototrophic Energy Metabolism: Photosynthesis
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Q1) When atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations decrease,the ________ cycle gives C plants an advantage over C when it comes to fixation.
Q2) ________ (CAM)plants open their stomata only at night to minimize water loss.
Q3) Photoheterotrophs are best described as organisms that obtain energy to make ATP
A)from organic compounds but use sunlight to produce carbon sources.
B)and organic compounds from sunlight.
C)from sunlight but cannot make organic compounds from CO .
D)from some forms of chemicals.
E)from organic compounds.
Q4) Diatoms have both chorophyll a and chlorophyll ________.
Q5) Which of the following is not an accessory pigment used to absorb photons that cannot be captured by chlorophyll?
A)beta-carotene
B)a phycobilin
C)lutein
D)phycochlorophyll
E)phycocyanin
Q6) Why do tree leaves turn colors in autumn?
Page 13
Q7) The light-dependent generation of NADPH is referred to as ________.
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Chapter 12: The Endomembrane System and Peroxisomes
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Q1) All of the following statements about cellular trafficking are true except
A)COPII-coated vesicles move materials from ER to Golgi.
B)COPI-coated vesicles move materials from Golgi to the secretory vesicle.
C)movement may be mediated by microtubules.
D)v-SNAREs occur in vesicles; t-SNAREs occur on target sites.
E)tethering proteins mediate docking between target and vesicle.
Q2) ________ act as proton pumps and keep the internal proton concentration of lysosomes high.
Q3) During receptor-mediated endocytosis,the ultimate fate of the vesicle and/or its contents include(s)
A)transcytosis.
B)transport to late endosome for digestion.
C)recycling of receptors.
D)only choices B and C
E)choices A, B, and C
Q4) Distinguish among the following: endocytosis,pinocytosis,and phagocytosis.
Q5) If you were wanting to synthesize a particular protein in plants that allowed it to accumulate within the plant vacuole,how would you design your chimeric protein to concentrate within this vacuole? What features of the plant vacuole are unique?
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Chapter 13: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Ielectrical and Synaptic Signaling in Neurons
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Q1) Refer to the graph above.At the same time that the stimulus was introduced,a drug that specifically inhibits sodium channels was added to the system.The effect this would have is that the membrane would
A)not depolarize.
B)depolarize for the first impulse but not for a second one.
C)not be able to repolarize.
D)repolarize, but would not for a second impulse.
E)none of the above
Q2) The resting potential of a particular nerve cell is -66 mV.Depolarization of the membrane will shift the membrane potential toward
A)-90 mV.
B)-66 mV.
C)0 mV.
D)There will be no change.
E)There is not enough information to tell.
Q3) ________ receptors act more slowly because they act in a(n)________ manner.
Q4) The ________ receptor is a ligand-gated channel that carries chloride ions.
Q5) At rest,a cell has a ________ charge inside of the cell and a ________ charge outside of the cell.
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Iimessengers and Receptors
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Q1) Desensitization of a cell to a ligand may involve all of the following except
A)destruction of the ligand.
B)a lessened response to the ligand.
C)receptor down-regulation.
D)receptor-mediated endocytosis.
E)lowered affinity of a receptor for the ligand.
Q2) All of the following are second messengers,except
A)cyclic adenosine monophosphate.
B)inositol trisphosphate.
C)diacylglycerol.
D)epinephrine.
E)calcium ions.
Q3) Which hormone is not an amino acid derivative?
A)histamine
B)norepinephrine
C)prostaglandin
D)epinephrine
E)thyroxine
Q4) A type of programmed cell death associated with DNA fragmentation and caspases is known as ________.
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Chapter 15: Cytoskeletal Systems
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Q1) Activation of the ________ G-protein results in the formation of focal adhesions and stress fibers.
Q2) All of the following are roles of microfilaments except
A)mitotic spindle formation.
B)muscle cell contraction.
C)amoeboid movement.
D)cytoplasmic streaming.
E)cell migration.
Q3) What is the importance of proteins that precisely control when and where cytoskeletal elements form and depolymerize? Make sure to give examples in your explanations.
Q4) The structure,function,and assembly of microtubules are regulated by ________ proteins (MAPs).
Q5) ________ are proteins that promote depolymerization of extant microtubules at the ends.
Q6) The ________ model is used to describe the simultaneous polymerization and depolymerization of microtubules.
Q7) Activation of the ________ G-protein results in the extension of lamellipodia.
Page 17
Q8) A unique feature of ________ is that they are tissue specific.
Q9) Cytochalasins prevent addition of monomers to pre-existing ________.
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Chapter 16: Cellular Movement: Motility and Contractility
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Q1) All of the following diseases are classified as ciliopathies except
A)Kartagener's triad.
B)BardetBieldl syndrome.
C)MeckelGruber syndrome.
D)Griscelli's disease.
E)polycystic kidney disease.
Q2) The ________ account for 1015% of microtubules.
Q3) You identify a protein that may play a role in microtubule-based transport.Propose a series of experiments that would aid you in confirming your assessment that this protein has a role in microtubule-based transport.
Q4) Troponin is a complex of three polypeptide chains called ________,________,and ________.
Q5) ________ is a directional movement in response to a graded chemical stimulus.
Q6) Tubulin subunits are added to growing cilia or flagella by ________.
Q7) The microtubule-associated protein ________ provides motion toward the minus end of the microtubule.
Q8) Mutations in myosin VII result in an autosomal recessive disorder called ________ ,which is characterized by congenital profound hearing loss,problems in the vestibular system,and retinitis pigmentosum.
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Chapter
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Q1) Polarized cells are characterized by A)random orientation within a tissue.
B)a polar flagellum.
C)random orientation within an organ.
D)distinct apical and basolateral sides.
E)both choices B and D
Q2) The protein invasin is associated with A)Yersinia psuedotuberculosis.
B)the construction of an integrin network in bacteria. C)plasmodemata.
D)tight-junction ridge formation.
E)lubrication of joints.
Q3) The insoluble layer of aromatic alcohols that are primarily found in woody tissues are the A)annulus.
B)cadherins.
C)proteoglycans.
D)lignins.
E)pectins.
Q4) A(n)________ is the ring of cytoplasm lining the plasmodesmata.
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Chapter 18: The Structural Basis of Cellular Information:
DNA, chromosomes, and the Nucleus
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Q1) You are given two samples of DNA,one from Clostridium perfringens and the other from Mycobacterium tuberculosis.Unfortunately,the labels on the tubes of DNA were accidently removed,and you do not know which DNA sample belongs to which organism.As you were doing some work with Escherichia coli in the lab,you also have some of its DNA available as well.The %G+C values for each of the organisms is known (C.perfringens,27%; M.tuberculosis,67%; E.coli,50%).Based upon this information,how could you quickly determine the source of the DNA for your two samples?
Q2) Common SNPs may be important in causing ________ in humans or in ________ of disorders.
Q3) With regard to DNA packaging,prokaryotic chromosomes
A)are devoid of histone or histone-like proteins.
B)are, in general, positively supercoiled.
C)have no higher-level structure, such as looped domains.
D)use RNA to contribute to chromosomal packaging.
E)none of the above
Q4) ________ is the name given to DNA characterization based upon digestion of DNA with specific restriction enzymes.
Q5) The name given to double-stranded DNA that is twisted upon itself is ________.
Q6) Recognition sites of restriction enzymes are ________.
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Chapter 19: The Cell Cycle, DNA Replication, and Mitosis
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Q1) A mutant strain of yeast possesses a mutation in the nda2 gene,resulting in no production of 1 tubulin.As a result,these cells would most likely
A)not duplicate their chromosomes.
B)not enter M phase.
C)not enter S phase.
D)keep the nuclear membrane intact.
E)have little or no spindle formation.
Q2) The region of the centromere contains repeated DNA sequences known as ________.
Q3) All of the following are associated with replicons except
A)origin of replication.
B)single-strand binding proteins.
C)initiator proteins.
D)minichromosome maintenance proteins.
E)helicase loaders.
Q4) What is the ploidy of an organism that is 7n,where n = 5?
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Chapter 20: Sexual Reproduction, meiosis, and Genetic
Recombination
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Q1) Fungi produce spores by which of the following processes?
A)binary fission
B)mitosis
C)meiosis
D)gene conversion
E)cloning
Q2) During bacterial conjugation,interrupted matings yielded the following information: leu 10 minutes,arg 8 minutes,str 15 minutes,and amp 12 minutes.Based on this information,the order of the genes,beginning at the origin,is
A)amp-arg-leu-str.
B)str-amp-leu-arg.
C)leu-arg-str-amp.
D)arg-amp-leu-str.
E)arg-leu-amp-str.
Q3) Homologous chromosomes are held together in the A)synaptonemal complex.
B)centromere.
C)kinetochore.
D)nucleus.
E)MTOC.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Gene Expression: Ithe Genetic Code and Transcription
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Q1) A mutation that results in the addition or deletion of a single nucleotide that radically changes the amino acid sequence of the resulting polypeptide is known as a ________ mutation.
Q2) ________-driven promoters are comprised of an Inr sequence and a TATA box with or without an associated BRE.
Q3) Which of the following is not a reason for the importance of mRNA processing in eukaryotes?
A)longevity in the cytoplasm
B)coupling of transcription and translation
C)presence of a nuclear membrane
D)turnover in the cytoplasm
E)removal of introns
Q4) If you were designing a method to specifically inhibit prokaryotic transcription,but not eukaryotic transcription,interfering with which of the following would work best?
A)an intercalating agent
B)recognition of the promoter region
C)DNase activity
D)RNA polymerase II activity
E)ribosomal binding
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Gene Expression: Iiprotein Synthesis and Sorting
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Q1) The mRNA is translated in the 3' to 5' direction in A)prokaryotes.
B)eukaryotes.
C)archaea.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) The anticodon base ________ is able to bind U,C,or A,allowing for wobble in the anticodon region during translation.
Q3) ________ is a rare,intramolecular posttranslational process that allows for self-catalytic removal of specific amino acid sequences.
Q4) The appropriate folding of a newly translated protein is essential,and chronic misfolding often leads to disease,especially in vertebrates.This misfolding,particularly in the case of prion diseases,may be due to a defect in A)the enzyme foldase.
B)insertion of proper amino acids during translation.
C)proteosome function.
D)chaperone activity.
E)translocase.
Q5) ________ degrades mRNAs that contain no stop codons.
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Chapter 23: The Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Genes that are expressed only when needed are A) unregulated.
B)mutations.
C)inducible.
D)constitutive.
E)anabolic.
Q2) A transcriptional regulator that decreases transcription of a gene from a vast distance is known as a(n) A)enhancer.
B)upstream control element.
C)regulator.
D)nonsense mutation.
E)silencer.
Q3) How can you determine the type of regulatory control associated with a newly identified bacterial protein?
Q4) In the lactose operon,a P mutant would have a mutation in the ________ region of the operon.
Q5) Although Dolly the cloned sheep and her nucleus donor are clones,they do not contain the same ________ DNA.
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Chapter 24: Cancer Cells
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Q1) Some compounds are themselves not carcinogens,but their metabolic activity on the compound produces intermediates that are carcinogenic. This process is known as A)precarcinogenesis.
B)carcinogen activation.
C)metabolic carcinogenesis.
D)plasminogen activation.
E)DNA mutagenesis.
Q2) With regard to cancer cells in the process of metastasis to secondary sites,which of the following statements is not correct?
A)If they enter via lymphatics, cancer cells may multiply in regional lymph nodes.
B)Many cells from the primary mass may enter circulation.
C)The population of cancer cells in the bloodstream is monoclonal.
D)Very few cancer cells survive the bloodstream.
E)The population of cancer cells is heterogeneous.
Q3) How does the tumor microenvironment influence the growth,invasion,and metastasis of tumor cells? Design an experiment that allows you to test your hypothesis.
Q4) How does genetic instability arise,and how might you test your hypothesis?
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