Genetics
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Genetics is the study of heredity and variation in living organisms, focusing on how traits are passed from one generation to the next through genes. This course explores the fundamental principles of genetic inheritance, molecular genetics, gene expression, and genetic technologies. Students will examine the structure and function of DNA, patterns of inheritance, mutation, genetic mapping, and the role of genetics in evolution and human health. Emphasis is placed on both classical Mendelian genetics and modern molecular approaches, preparing students to understand the genetic basis of biological processes and contemporary issues in biotechnology, medicine, and society.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 11th Edition by Michael Cummings
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Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clones are genetically identical molecules,cells,or organisms,all derived from a(n)____________________.
Answer: single ancestor single individual
Q2) Discuss how and why the investigative method of molecular genetics has had the greatest impact on human genetics over the last several decades.
Answer: Molecular genetics uses recombinant DNA technology to identify,isolate,and produce millions of copies of genes (clones)that can be studied in the laboratory.These methods have greatly advanced our knowledge of how genes are organized and how they work at the molecular level.
Q3) The nucleotide sequence encoded in a gene defines the ____ that make up proteins.
A) phosphate groups
B) polypeptides
C) ribosomes
D) haplotypes
E) amino acids
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crossing over is partially responsible for our genetic diversity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A cell in G0 state ____.
A) is actively growing before cell division begins
B) has a cleavage furrow and the cytoplasm is beginning to divide
C) is actively replicating chromosomes
D) is in cytokinesis
E) has entered a resting stage and is not actively dividing Answer: E
Q3) Random assortment occurs between chromatids of homologous chromosome pairs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) In mitosis,chromatids separate and move to the center of the cell during
Answer: metaphase
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes from Generation to Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain Mendel's conclusion that traits passed from parents to offspring are not blended,but are instead inherited as if they are separate units.
Answer: Mendel based his conclusion on several observations.Only one of the parental traits was present in the offspring (F1).The trait not present in the offspring (F1)reappeared in about 25% of the second offspring generation (F2).In all crosses,it did not matter which parental plant contributed the pollen; the results were always the same.He,therefore,concluded that traits remained unchanged,even though they might not be expressed in a specific generation.Instead,he concluded that traits were inherited as if they were separate units that did not blend together.
Q2) Chi-square tests are used to determine whether a cross has been correctly constructed and analyzed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) In humans,the gene for blood type has ____________________ (number)alleles and the A and B alleles are ____________________.
Answer: three; codominant
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chance of a child having albinism when both of his parents are heterozygous for the disorder is ____ percent.
A) 0
B) 25
C) 33
D) 50
E) 75
Q2) The gene responsible for Marfan syndrome encodes a protein associated with ____.
A) heart muscle
B) connective tissue
C) fat tissue
D) red blood cells
E) nervous tissue
Q3) The frequency of heterozygotes for cystic fibrosis shows ethnic variations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain why color-blindness is much more common in males than in females.
Q5) If both parents are homozygous for a disease-causing recessive gene,____________________ of their children will be affected.
Q6) OMIM is an acronym that stands for ____________.
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Chapter 5: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) Phenotypic variation among individuals with the same genotype is known as genetic variance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dizygotic twins originate from two separate fertilization events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An expanded definition of intelligence that goes beyond IQ is called ____________________ and includes verbal and spatial abilities,memory,speed of perception,and reasoning.
Q4) Genetic testing for complex traits ____.
A) does not supply enough information to make it useful
B) reveals the phenotype of the organism
C) reveals the effects of the environment on the genome
D) reveals how many genes are involved in producing the trait
E) cannot exactly define risks
Q5) Animal models such as the ____________________ and ____________________ are being studied to identify single genes that control aspects of learning,memory,and spatial perception.
Page 7
Q6) Mutations of some genes for human height result in ____________________.
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics - Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of polyploidy in humans is ____.
A) trisomy
B) monosomy
C) triploidy
D) tetraploidy
E) haploidy
Q2) About ____ percent of children with Down syndrome are severely intellectually disabled.
A) five
B) ten
C) twenty-five
D) thirty
E) forty
Q3) The major physical symptom associated with Klinefelter syndrome is ____.
A) facial deformation
B) fertility problems
C) short stature
D) intellectual disability
E) heart abnormalities
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Q4) There are ____________________ chromosomes in a human tetraploid cell.
Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Q1) Describe the Lyon hypothesis.
Q2) In 2012,the International Olympic Committee began using tests that measure the levels and the body's response to the male hormone ____________________ as a means of distinguishing females from males when sex was questionable.
Q3) Sex-influenced traits are expressed ____.
A) aftafter the formation of a Barr body
B) more in males than in females
C) as a result of hormone differences between males and females
D) only in males
E) only in females
Q4) The lower neck of the uterus opening into the vagina is the ____________________.
Q5) Females outnumber males in the tertiary sex ratio because genetic and ____________________ factors cause higher death rates among males.
Q6) Teratogenic effects of alcohol only occur during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain how X inactivation can result in female mosaicism and give examples.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Structure - Replication - and Chromosomal
Organization of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Purines and pyrimidines are two classes of organic bases found in ____.
A) sugars
B) phosphates
C) fats
D) carbohydrates
E) nucleic acids
Q2) DNA contains two identical polynucleotide chains.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of chemical bond that holds together adenine and thymine in the middle of a DNA molecule is a(n)________________ bond.
Q4) In many organisms,____________________ functions to transfer genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
Q5) The interphase nucleus has an internal structure in which each chromosome occupies a distinct region called a chromosome territory.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) Describe one experimental process used to manufacture a DNA vaccine for the SARS virus.
Chapter 9: Gene Expression and Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Outline the series of steps that transfers genetic information from the linear sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule into the linear sequence of amino acids in a protein.
Q2) Peptide bonds form between ____.
A) two amino groups
B) two carboxyl groups
C) a carboxyl group and an R group
D) an amino group and a carboxyl group
E) an amino group and an R group
Q3) One gene is able to encode information for different forms of a protein via ____.
A) alternative splicing
B) primary splicing
C) secondary splicing
D) mRNA mutations
E) tRNA mutations
Q4) The primary structure of a protein is the ____________________ in a polypeptide chain.
Q5) A proteome is the set of ____________________ present in a particular cell at a specific time under a particular set of conditions.
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Q1) In the early years of the twentieth century,____ proposed that some genetic disorders and abnormalities of metabolism are related.
A) Sir Archibald Garrod
B) Francis Crick
C) Linus Pauling
D) Linda Bartoshuk
E) Gregor Mendel
Q2) The hemoglobin molecule ____.
A) transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells of the body
B) prevents sickle cell anemia when present in high enough concentrations in the blood
C) is involved in amino acid metabolism
D) acts as a cell surface receptor
E) is controlled by a single gene
Q3) Hemoglobin is a(n)____________________-containing protein in red blood cells.
Q4) In most human populations,lactase levels are highest soon after birth and drop off in middle-to-late childhood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Genome Alterations - Mutation and Epigenetics
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Q1) What occurs in a missense mutation?
A) All of the amino acids beyond the mutation point are changed.
B) A nucleotide is added to the DNA.
C) A nucleotide is deleted from the DNA.
D) A single amino acid is substituted for another in a protein.
E) The protein is always completely nonfunctional.
Q2) A form of mutation associated with the expansion in copy number of a nucleotide triplet in or near a gene is called a(n)____________________.
Q3) Mutations are changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA that ____.
A) do not occur in the germ cells
B) do not occur in the somatic cells
C) are always chemically induced
D) are always spontaneous
E) can be passed on to daughter cells
Q4) Summarize some factors known to influence mutation rates of genes.
Q5) Explain what might occur when purine or pyrimidine bases in nucleotides undergo tautomeric shifts.
Q6) PBDEs have not been linked directly to cancer in test animals.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Q1) Leukemia is a type of cancer that involves the uncontrolled division of ____________________ cells.
Q2) Progressive chromosomal changes as cancer develops are related to the loss of the ability to repair ____________________ in cancer cells.
Q3) Outline the four characteristics of cancer.
Q4) A proto-oncogene ____.
A) always becomes cancerous
B) causes cancer
C) encodes tumor-suppressing proteins
D) repairs DNA
E) regulates cell division
Q5) In rapidly dividing cells,expression of BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes is the highest during the ____.
A) mitosis to cytokinesis transition
B) G1/S transition and into S phase
C) G2/mitosis transition
D) S/G2 transition
E) metaphase to anaphase transition
Q6) Mutant forms of proto-oncogenes are called ____________________.
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the mid-1970s a group of scientists asked the National Academy of Sciences to appoint a panel to assess the risks of recombinant DNA technology and the need to control its associated research.Summarize the most important lesson learned from this event.
Q2) A DNA microarray is ____.
A) used for gel electrophoresis
B) used identifying fragments of genes using a labeled probe
C) linked to self-replicating vectors to create recombinant DNA molecules
D) a series of long mRNA sequences placed on a solid support and has several uses
E) a series of short nucleotide sequences placed on a solid support and has several uses
Q3) The ability to isolate and produce many copies of specific ____________________ molecules had a great impact on many areas of genetic research.
Q4) Growth hormones given to dairy cows would still be necessary to stimulate milk production in a cloned animal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the steps in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before clotting factors from recombinant DNA became available,more than half of hemophiliacs in the U.S.acquired HIV from injection of clotting factors obtained from donated blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Transgenic crops are planted in _____ countries,with the amount of land dedicated to such crops _____ every year.
A) more than 50; remaining the same B) more than 25; decreasing C) less than10; increasing D) more than 25; increasing E) just under 25; increasing
Q3) What were the results of DNA profiling on the remains of the last czar of Russia (Czar Nicholas Romanov II)and his family?
A) The daughter, Anastasia, was not among the family members.
B) Both the son and one of the daughters were missing from the remains.
C) None of the remains were those of the czar or his family.
D) The czar himself was not among those whose remains were found.
E) The czar and all of his family were accounted for in the remains.
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advent of recombinant DNA technology made the sequencing of genomes possible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss how the advent of recombinant DNA technology improved upon historical genetics research methods and revolutionized genetic mapping techniques.
Q3) The Ethical,Legal,and Social Issues program seeks to deal with issues related to privacy,fairness,discrimination,and reproductive decisions that emerge due to the availability of genomic information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Individuals suffering from Crohn disease or irritable bowel syndrome may benefit from ____________________.
Q5) Which of the following sequences indicates the promoter region of a gene?
A) CAAT
B) UAAG
C) CTTT
D) ACAT
E) TAAC
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology - Genetic Testingand Gene Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The method of gene therapy that would result in the transferred gene being passed onto offspring is known as ____________________.
Q2) Genetic counselors gather medical and family histories in order to construct a(n)____________________,which will enable them to establish the inheritance of a genetic trait in a family.
Q3) Discuss the ethical issues - both for and against - associated with PGD selection of savior babies.
Q4) Explain why infertility in women increases with advancing age,and how ART methods can overcome this problem in older women.
Q5) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)requires in vitro fertilization to be performed before embryo transfer into the oviduct.
A)True B)False
Q6) Babies who are born following PGD to select for a tissue match to an ailing sibling are referred to as ____________________.
Q7) In women,blocked oviducts can result from sexually transmitted diseases.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 17: Genes and The Immune System
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Q1) The chemical defense system that complements the immune system and supplements the inflammatory response is known as the ____________________ system.
Q2) When the immune systems no longer distinguishes between self and nonself,_____ can result.
A) autoimmunity
B) anaphylaxis
C) viral infections
D) minor allergic reactions
E) enhanced immune response
Q3) Suppose an Rh- mother gives birth to an Rh- baby. Is there a danger of hemolytic disease of the newborn developing during a subsequent pregnancy? Why or why not?
Q4) Pathogens are engulfed by ____________________ during the first stage of an inflammatory response and by ____________________ during the last stage of the response.
Q5) Antigens displayed on the surface of antigen-presenting cells and viral-infected cells are bound to specific classes of ____________________ molecules.
Q6) A protein that interacts with an antibody is called a(n)____________________.
Q7) How can so many antibody molecules be made in a relatively short period of time?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) Alzheimer disease has two forms: the early onset _____________________ form with a strong pattern of familial inheritance,and the late onset _____________________ form.
Q2) Explain how genetic mutations that cause neurodegenerative disorders such as Huntington disease and Alzheimer disease can also cause abnormal behavior.
Q3) Drugs,such as cocaine and nicotine,mimic the action of neurotransmitters. A)True B)False
Q4) Learned behaviors are defined as behaviors with which we are born. A)True B)False
Q5) Suppose Stephen Mobley,who was convicted and executed for the murder of John Collins,carried the variant of the MAOA gene that has been associated with violent behavior. If you were on the jury that convicted and sentenced Mobley,would this information have influenced your view of his guilt or innocence? Would it have changed your opinion of his sentence? Why or why not?
Q6) Someone who steps on a sharp nail will quickly lift their foot away. This quick reaction is known as a(n)_____________________.
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagram the evolutionary relationships between Neanderthals and chimpanzees based on genomic data.
Q2) The availability of genomic data has allowed scientists to construct more accurate phylogenetic trees than those based on fossil evidence alone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the Hardy-Weinberg law,the genotype frequencies of dominant homozygotes,heterozygotes,and recessive homozygotes are represented by p2,q2,and 2pq,respectively,where p is the frequency of the dominant allele and q is the frequency of the recessive allele. Explain how this formula was derived.
Q4) The frequency of a certain genotype in a population is called _____________________.
Q5) The Hardy-Weinberg law can be used to calculate allele and genotype frequencies without genetic testing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation,_____________________ represents the dominant allele,while _____________________ represents the recessive allele.
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