Genetics in Nursing Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Genetics in Nursing explores the fundamental principles of genetics and their application in nursing practice. This course emphasizes the role of genetic factors in health and disease, providing students with the knowledge needed to assess genetic risk, support genetic counseling, and incorporate genetic considerations into patient care. Students will examine the ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic information, develop competency in genetic assessment and documentation, and learn to communicate effectively with patients and families about genetic conditions. By integrating theory with practical scenarios, the course prepares future nurses to play an essential role in delivering personalized, evidence-based care in the era of genomic medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 1st Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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18 Chapters
307 Verified Questions
307 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3775 Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What activity occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?
A)The cell undergoes cytokinesis.
B)Activity stops and the cell "sleeps."
C)All DNA is completely replicated.
D)Chromosomes separate causing nucleokinesis.
Answer: C
Q2) How does the proteome differ from the genome?
A)The proteome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.
B)The genome changes in response to intracellular and extracellular signals.
C)The proteome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells,whereas the genome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.
D)The genome is stable in somatic cells and unstable in germ cells,whereas the proteome is stable in both somatic cells and germ cells.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does an "anticodon" participate in protein synthesis?
A)Splicing out the introns to form a functional and mature messenger RNA
B)Identifying which DNA strand is the "sense" strand to transcribe into RNA
C)Ensuring the appropriate tRNA places the correct amino acid into the protein
D)Interpreting the correct "stop" triplet or codon that signals for translation termination
Answer: C
Q2) Which statement about the introns within one gene is correct?
A)These small pieces of DNA form microRNAs that regulate gene expression.
B)They are part of the desert DNA composing the noncoding regions.
C)When expressed,they induce post-translational modifications.
D)The introns of one gene may be the exons of another gene.
Answer: D
Q3) Which statement about single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)is true?
A)SNPs can change an exon sequence into an intron sequence.
B)SNPs can change an intron sequence into an exon sequence.
C)SNPs are generally responsible for frameshift mutations.
D)SNPs are generally responsible for point mutations.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Genetic Influences on Cell Growth, cell
Differentiation, and Gametogenesis
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which response is the immediate and direct result of fertilization?
A)Gamete chromosome reduction to the haploid number
B)Rapid proliferation of acrosomal and coronal cells
C)Primary sex determination of the zygote
D)Nuclear condensation
Answer: C
Q2) Which cell division process sequences are normal for meiosis for gametogenesis?
A)Two rounds of DNA synthesis each followed by a separate round of meiotic cell division
B)Two rounds of DNA synthesis followed by two progressive rounds of meiotic cell division
C)A single round of DNA synthesis followed by two separate rounds of meiotic cell division
D)A single round of DNA synthesis first preceded by one round of meiotic cell division and then followed by a final round of meiotic cell division
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are dizygotic twins less likely to show concordance for a monogenic trait than monozygotic twins?
A)Dizygotic twins share fewer allele sequences in common than monozygotic twins.
B)It is possible for dizygotic twins to have different fathers and monozygotic twins always have the same father.
C)Gene expression in monozygotic twins is less influenced by environmental factors than that of dizygotic twins.
D)Because of their identical appearance,monozygotic twins are more likely to be raised together and share a common environment than are dizygotic twins.
Q2) A man whose parents both have brown hair claims that his red beard was inherited from his maternal uncle.Why is this claim incorrect?
A)The Y chromosome has no role in scalp,facial,or body hair color.
B)Genetic traits are transmitted in only a direct vertical direction.
C)Females cannot transmit facial hair color to their sons.
D)Hair color is a polygenic trait,not a single gene trait.
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6
Chapter 5: Chromosomal and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best explanation of a child having the physical phenotype of Down syndrome but having a totally normal karyotype on chromosomal analysis of blood?
A)Mosaicism of trisomy 21 in various tissues
B)Inaccurate technique for chromosomal analysis
C)Uniparental disomy for somatic cells but not for germ cells
D)Selective chromosome loss during meiosis II of gametogenesis
Q2) Which single physical feature is most often associated with a 47,XXX karyotype?
A)Infertility
B)Large breasts
C)Female pattern baldness
D)Height greater than siblings
Q3) Which cancer type has an increased incidence among children with WAGR syndrome?
A)Acute leukemia
B)Brain tumors
C)Colorectal cancer
D)Nephroblastoma
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are twins indicated on a pedigree?
A)The two gender symbols are placed on top of each other.
B)Each of the gender symbols is surrounded by an inward-facing set of brackets.
C)The vertical lines to each twin begin at the same point on parents' horizontal mating line.
D)The one born first has a vertical line connected to the parents' horizontal mating line;the twin born second has a vertical line extending down from the first twin's gender symbol.
Q2) Which issue is considered a "red flag" for the need for referral to a genetics professional?
A)A family history of both breast and colon cancer
B)Myocardial infarction in several parents or grandparents older than 64 years of age
C)The presence of brothers and sisters who do not resemble any known family member
D)The presence of neurodevelopmental disorders in one or more members of the kindred
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Chapter 7: Congenital Anomalies, basic Dysmorphology, and
Genetic Assessment
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16 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of problems are more likely to be caused by a chromosomal abnormality?
A)Single structural anomalies
B)Deformations
C)Syndromes
D)Dysplasias
Q2) Which condition in a newborn should be described as a deformation if it is the only abnormal finding?
A)A unilateral club foot
B)A sealed (imperforate)anus
C)The absence of a thyroid gland
D)The presence of six toes on each foot
Q3) What is the best action to take when you observe the presence of a smooth philtrum on a young child?
A)Obtain a genetics referral as soon as possible.
B)Assess for the presence of any other dysmorphic features.
C)Document the finding in the medical record as the only action.
D)Gently explain to the parents that this finding is cause for concern.
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Chapter 8: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the pathologic basis of Fabry disease?
A)Increased degradation of globotriaosylceramide
B)Increased accumulation of globotriaosylceramide
C)Deficiency in the number of liver lysosomes
D)Excessive number of liver lysosomes
Q2) Why does a newborn with a genetic enzyme deficiency have a normal phenotype at birth?
A)Metabolism during prenatal life is too slow to require full enzyme activity.
B)The deficient enzyme's activity was performed by maternal enzymes before birth.
C)During the fetal phase of life,the newborn was not exposed to the protein that the enzyme is responsible for degrading.
D)Although the newborn cannot synthesize the enzyme after birth,the initially stored enzyme performs its functions until the level is fully depleted.
Q3) Which action or behavior is considered an "executive function?"
A)Hopping on one foot
B)Learning the names of animals
C)Deciding what to give as a present
D)Counting the number of objects in a picture
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10
Chapter 9: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor has the greatest influence in the development of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A)Inheritance of the HLA-DR or HLA-DQ tissue types
B)Sedentary lifestyle coupled with childhood obesity
C)Mutation in the gene for pancreas development
D)Advanced maternal age at conception
Q2) Which phenotypic feature associated with achondroplasia has variable expression?
A)Disproportionally short extremities
B)Larger than average head size
C)Prominent forehead
D)Hydrocephaly
Q3) Which relative of a patient who has cystic fibrosis has the correct risk for being a cystic fibrosis carrier?
A)Sister 0%
B)Mother 50%
C)Father 100%
D)Brother 100%
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11
Chapter 10: Common Adult-Onset Genetic Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 31-year-old man has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)as a result of being homozygous for the ZZ mutation of the alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT)gene alleles.His wife has been tested and does not have a mutation of her AAT gene alleles.The man is worried that his three children may eventually develop COPD.What is your best response?
A)"Because your wife does not have the mutation and neither of your parents have the disease,your children will not be affected."
B)"Because your wife is not affected nor is a carrier,your children will have normal levels of AAT and their risk is the same as for the general population."
C)"Because you have the mutations and your wife does not,your son will be at an increased risk for developing COPD but your daughter will only be a carrier."
D)"Because your children will each have only one mutated gene allele,their risk for COPD is primarily dependent on chronic environmental exposure to inhalation irritants."
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Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Disorders
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physical finding on a 30-year-old man suggests the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia?
A)Lipomas
B)Xanthomas
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Hemangiomas
Q2) What do the known monogenic disorders that result in the expression of hypertension have in common?
A)An error in the ability of vascular smooth muscle to contract
B)An error in the ability of vascular smooth muscle to relax
C)Excessive kidney reabsorption of sodium
D)Excessive kidney excretion of potassium
Q3) Which lethal cardiac arrhythmia can occur as a complication of long QT syndrome?
A)Atrial node reentry tachycardia
B)Prolonged atrial fibrillation
C)Mitral valve prolapse
D)Torsade de Pointes
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13
Chapter 12: The Genetics of Cancer
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding the biology of cancer is always true?
A)Cancer cells arise from normal cells.
B)Testicular cancer is strongly associated with excessive masturbation.
C)When cancer cells are exposed to air,their growth rate becomes uncontrolled.
D)The biggest risk factor for cancer development is having a first-degree relative with cancer.
Q2) How are malignant tumors different from benign tumors?
A)Malignant tumors grow by expansion,and benign tumors grow by invasion.
B)Malignant tumors lose plasma membranes,and benign tumors continue to produce them.
C)Benign tumors retain parental cell functions,and malignant tumors lose parental cell functions.
D)Benign tumors have totally normal features,and malignant tumors have totally abnormal features.
Q3) What percentage of common cancers appears to be hereditary?
A)1% to 3%
B)5% to 15%
C)20% to 25%
D)About 35%
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the heritability estimate for addiction to alcohol in both males and females?
A)10% to 20%
B)20% to 40%
C)50% to 60%
D)60% to 80%
Q2) What is meant by the phrase "behavioral genetics"?
A)Identification of the single gene that corresponds to a specific undesired behavior
B)An area of research aimed at controlling behavior by genetic manipulation
C)The study of the behavior of genes in diverse settings
D)The examination of gene variants that influence behaviors
Q3) Why is pharmacogenetics/pharmacogenomics of particular interest in treating patients with psychiatric/mental health problems?
A)Psychiatric medications may be effective in only a small group of patients.
B)Genetics restricts patients to only one drug in each classification.
C)Most psychiatric illnesses are single gene disorders with predictable drug responses.
D)Psychotropic medications have few side effects.
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Chapter 14: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene?
A)Immunohistochemistry
B)Direct DNA sequencing
C)Banded chromosomal analysis
D)Fluorescence in situ hybridization
Q2) What is the major disadvantage to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)method of genetic testing?
A)Single nucleotide mutations cannot be detected.
B)Depending on the skill of the technician,the rate of false positives is high.
C)The sample for testing must be obtained from living tissue rather than from a preserved specimen.
D)Results are not available quickly because cells must first be grown in culture before testing can be performed.
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Chapter 15: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of parent compound must undergo first phase metabolism to produce the intended response after it enters the body?
A)A prodrug
B)An active metabolite
C)An inactive metabolite
D)A sustained-released drug
Q2) Which condition or factor improves the initial bioavailability of a drug agonist that has extensive first-pass loss as a result of the patient's enhanced liver enzyme activity?
A)Increasing the patient's fluid intake
B)Co-administering the drug with an antagonist
C)Administering the drug by the intravenous route
D)Crushing the oral form of the drug before administration
Q3) Which processes of drug response are most subject to genetic variation?
A)Drug dissolution in body fluids and drug binding to plasma proteins
B)Rates of drug movement into and through the gastrointestinal tract
C)Drug activation or deactivation and duration of drug actions
D)Drug binding with receptors and drug blocking of receptors
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Chapter 16: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are general physicians and surgeons NOT considered to be genetics professionals?
A)The typical patients seen by these health-care providers have acute conditions rather than chronic conditions,and thus genetic influence is irrelevant.
B)Most of today's physicians and surgeons were educated before completion of the human genome research project.
C)These health-care professionals have minimal experience with genetics laboratory techniques.
D)The focus of their professional education is the study of medicine rather than genetics.
Q2) Why do genetic counseling programs include extensive courses on laboratory methods in genetics?
A)To serve as a backup genetics technician in small laboratories
B)To perform standard karyotyping on routine blood specimens
C)To help patients understand testing procedures and results
D)To be able to draw blood proficiently and safely
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18
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient whose mother has Huntington's disease is considering genetic testing but is not sure whether she really wants to know if she has the mutation.She asks you what you would do if your mother had the disease.What is your best response?
A)"I would have the test so I could decide whether to have children or to use adoption."
B)"I can only tell you the benefits and the risks of testing,you must make this decision yourself."
C)"Because there is no cure for this disease and testing would not be beneficial,I would not have the test."
D)"You need to check with your brothers and sisters to determine whether testing for this disease would be appropriate for you."
Q2) What group(s)of people is/are specifically protected by the Genetic Information and Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)?
A)Veterans and those in the active military
B)Employers trying to use genetic information to make hiring decisions
C)People receiving their health care through federally financed health services
D)People applying for health insurance who have had predictive genetic testing
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of eight space travelers,four men and four women,settled on the planet Zebulon.Their descendents had a very high rate of the autosomal dominant disorder,Moonophilia distractens.What factor could explain this phenomenon?
A)Equal exposure to an environmental mutagen
B)Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C)Variable expressivity
D)Founder effect
Q2) What pieces of genetic information tend to be passed down from generation to generation with the least variation?
A)Mitochondrial DNA
B)Nuclear DNA
C)Ribosomal DNA
D)Histone proteins
Q3) Which practice is most likely to result in a change in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium of a population or geographic area?
A)Random mating from within the established population
B)Geographic isolation of the established population
C)Assimilation of immigrants into the existing population
D)Preponderance of autosomal dominant traits in the existing population
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Page 20