Genetics
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of genetics, exploring the molecular structure and function of genes, patterns of inheritance, genetic variation, and the mechanisms of gene expression and regulation. Students will learn about Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance, chromosomal abnormalities, population genetics, and the application of genetic technologies in medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology. Emphasis is placed on understanding how genetic information is transmitted, how it influences phenotype, and how genetic research impacts society and ethical considerations.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics 3rd Edition by Robert J. Brooker
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a geneticist is studying the prevalence of a trait in a species,they are at the ________ level of study.
A) population
B) organismal
C) cellular
D) molecular
Answer: A
Q2) A characteristic that an organism displays is called ________.
A) a gene
B) a chromosome
C) DNA
D) gene expression
E) a trait
Answer: E
Q3) Genetic variation is ultimately based upon which of the following?
A) morphological differences
B) variations in nucleotide sequence of the DNA
C) carbohydrate content of the cell
D) translation
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Reproduction and Chromosome Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes are physically located within ________.
A) chromosomes
B) centrosomes
C) kinetochores
D) microtubules
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following occurs during leptotene of prophase I?
A) The homologous chromosomes recognize one another by synapsis.
B) Crossing over occurs.
C) The replicated chromosomes condense.
D) The synaptonemal complex dissociates.
Answer: C
Q3) Select the cells that are eukaryotic.Check all that apply.
A) bacteria
B) fungi
C) protists
D) plants
E) animals
Answer: B,C,D,E
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics made the pea plant Pisum sativum an ideal organism for Mendel's studies?
A) It has the ability to self-fertilize.
B) It was possible to cross-fertilize one plant with another.
C) It has easily identifiable traits.
D) All of these choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) If two individuals with different distinct characteristics are mated,their offspring is called a ________.
A) strain
B) true-breeding line
C) gamete
D) cross
E) hybrid
Answer: E
Q3) Differences in plant characteristics such as flower color or height are called variants or traits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A testcross
A) is used to determine if an organism that is displaying a recessive trait is heterozygous or homozygous for that trait.
B) results in the F2 generation having a phenotypic ratio of 1/2 dominant to 1/2 recessive.
C) is used when an individual with a dominant phenotype and unknown genotype is crossed to an individual with a recessive phenotype.
D) results in offspring that always display the recessive phenotype.
Q2) Who originally identified a highly condensed structure in the interphase of nuclei?
A) Lyon
B) Barr and Bertram
C) Ohno
Q3) A male that is produced from an unfertilized haploid egg is an example of what type of sex determination system?
A) X-Y
B) Z-W
C) X-O
D) haplo-diploid
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Chapter 5: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polydactyly in humans is an example of ________.
A) simple Mendelian inheritance
B) incomplete dominance
C) incomplete penetrance
D) codominance
E) gene dosage
Q2) In four-o'clock plants,red flower color is dominant to white flower color.However,heterozygous plants have a pink color.If a pink-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant,what will be the phenotypic ratios of their offspring?
A) ¼ red, ½ pink, ¼ white
B) all pink
C) all white
D) ½ pink, ½ white
E) ½ red, ½ pink
Q3) New research indicates that male-pattern baldness is a sex-linked trait in humans because of mutations of an androgen receptor gene on the X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Extranuclear Inheritance, Imprinting, and Maternal Effect
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An example of genomic imprinting is
A) Leber hereditary optic neuropathy.
B) neurogenic muscle weakness.
C) snail coiling in water snails.
D) Angelman Syndrome.
E) bicoid gene in Drosophila.
Q3) The symbiotic relationship of purple bacteria and cyanobacteria with eukaryotic cells was beneficial to both cell types.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which mating of four-o'clock plants would produce progeny that were either green,variegated,or white if the color variation is due to a mutation in a chloroplast gene?
A) green female x variegated male
B) variegated female x green male
C) white female x white male
D) white female x green male
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Chapter 7: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Map distance is the number of recombinant offspring divided by the total number of nonrecombinant offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Following crossing over,chromosomes with genetic combinations that resemble the parents are called nonrecombinant.
A)True B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the properties of gene linkage that Morgan obtained from his experiments?
A) Genes that are on the same chromosome may be inherited together.
B) Crossing over exchanges pieces of chromosomes and creates new allele combinations.
C) The likelihood of crossing over occurring between two genes is dependent on the distance of the genes from one another.
D) Genes that are on the same chromosome are always transmitted together as a unit.
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and
Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ is a drug that is used to experimentally produce polyploidy in organisms.
A) Penicillin
B) Colchicine
C) Polymosca
D) Karyocine
Q2) Describe endopolyploidy,and how it might benefit an organism.
A) Portions of the organism have extra copies of all chromosomes, for producing additional gene products.
B) The entire organism has extra copies of certain chromosomes, for producing additional gene products.
C) The entire organism has extra copies of all chromosomes, to act as backup in case of DNA damage.
D) Portions of the organism have extra copies of certain genes, for the functions of specialized cell types.
Q3) Homologous genes within a species are called paralogs.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Genetics in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) During conjugation,one gene (A)is found to transfer to the recipient bacteria 26 minutes following the start of conjugation,while a second gene (M)is found to transfer 37 minutes following the start of conjugation.A third gene (T)transfers 45 minutes following the start of conjugation.Based on this information,which of the following is true?
A) Genes A and M have a genetic distance of 11 minutes.
B) Genes A and T have a genetic distance of 19 minutes.
C) Genes M and T have a genetic distance of 18 minutes.
D) The order of the genes is A T M.
Q2) DNA transfer by transduction depends on what occasional mistake that can occur during a phage lytic cycle?
A) A piece of host cell DNA is packaged into a phage.
B) A host cell protein is incorporated into a phage.
C) The host cell undergoes lysis before any new phages are produced.
D) The phage and bacterial genome fragments recombine.
Q3) The process of conjugation may introduce new genes into the recipient strain,altering its genotype.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most biologists consider viruses to be living organisms,which are classified with the bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which virus uses reverse transcriptase in its reproductive cycle?
A) HIV
B) Phage lamda
C) Both of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
D) Neither of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
Q3) What is true in both Temperate Phage and HIV infections?
A) There can be a long latent period where no sign of infection, such as cell death, is detectable.
B) Cell lysis always occurs immediately after virus introduction.
C) Assembled viral particles are always found within the cell.
Q4) What is the genetic material in the parvovirus?
A) single-stranded DNA
B) double-stranded DNA
C) single-stranded RNA
D) double-stranded RNA
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Chapter 11: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) All nucleotides contain (check all that apply)
A) a phosphate group.
B) a five carbon sugar.
C) one of five nitrogenous bases.
D) a six-carbon sugar.
Q2) DNA differs from RNA in which way?
A) the structure of the nucleotide
B) the five-carbon sugar it uses
C) the size of the phosphate groups
D) the number of bases attached to the sugar
Q3) The term nucleic acids is used to describe RNA and DNA because
A) they are acidic molecules and have a net negative charge at neutral pH.
B) they are acidic molecules and have a net positive charge at neutral pH.
C) they are acidic molecules and have no charge at neutral pH.
Q4) Select the nucleotide found only in RNA.
A) cytosine
B) guanine
C) thymidine
D) adenine
E) uracil
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Chapter 12: Molecular Structure of Chromosomes and Transposition
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Sample Questions
Q1) One would expect heterochromatic regions of DNA to be more compacted than euchromatic regions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the highest level of chromosome condensation?
A) radial loop domain
B) 30 nm fibers
C) double helix
D) nucleosome
E) heterochromatin
Q3) Where is the bacterial chromosome located?
A) nucleus
B) nucleolus
C) nucleoid
D) nuclear envelope
Q4) Where do kinetochores attach to chromosomes?
A) telomeres
B) specific genes on the chromosome
C) centromeres
D) They do not attach to DNA.
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Chapter 13: Dna Replication and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme attaches adjacent Okazaki fragments,forming a continuous DNA strand?
A) DNA ligase
B) DNA primase
C) topoisomerase
D) DNA polymerase I
E) DNA polymerase III
Q2) Replication usually begins in GC-rich regions due to the presence of only 2 hydrogen bonds between the bases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first generation of replication in the Meselson and Stahl experiment disproved which theory of replication?
A) semiconservative
B) conservative
C) dispersive
D) None-it took more than one generation to disprove the theory.
Q4) A primosome consists of a polymerase and a single-stranded binding protein.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement that is true regarding tRNA processing in E.coli.
A) RNaseP acts as an endonuclease.
B) The recognition sequence of RNaseD is 3'CCA5'.
C) RNaseD acts as an endonuclease.
D) The action of RNaseP produces the correct 3' end of the mature tRNA.
Q2) Most eukaryotic genes are colinear.
A) True
B) False
C) It is unknown at this time.
Q3) Which of the following forms of RNA encodes the sequence of amino acids for a functional protein?
A) tRNA
B) snRNA
C) mRNA
D) rRNA
E) scRNA
Q4) Sigma factor belongs to a general group of proteins called the transcription factors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scientist(s)________ developed a novel method to synthesize RNA.Short RNAs of 2 to 4 nucleotides were linked together to create a copolymer.The resulting peptide created after translation revealed the 3-letter code for the amino acids.
A) Garrod
B) Nirenberg and Matthaei
C) Khorana and colleagues
D) Nirenberg and Leder
E) Beadle and Tatum
Q2) Based on our modern understanding,what revisions are necessary to the original one-gene / one-enzyme hypothesis?
A) Alternative splicing allows one gene to encode multiple polypeptides.
B) Some genes encode RNAs, not enzymes.
C) Some genes encode lipids, not enzymes.
D) Some genes encode polypeptides that are not enzymes, such as structural proteins.
E) Proteins as functional units may be composed of several polypeptides, so genes may encode just one polypeptide within a larger protein.
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17
Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A riboswitch is an RNA molecule that can exist in two different conformations.Conversion from one to another is due to the binding of a small molecule to the riboswitch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the E.coli riboswitch,mRNA gets translated when TPP is low.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of translational regulation in prokaryotes?
A) sterically blocking the ribosome
B) phosphorylation of an enzyme
C) incorporation of antisense RNA
D) altering the structure of the mRNA
Q4) If CAP could not bind to its CAP site,then what would be the result? Assume lactose is present in each scenario.
A) Transcription would be difficult to repress in the presence of glucose.
B) Transcription would be difficult to activate in the presence of glucose.
C) Transcription would be difficult to activate in the absence of glucose.
D) Transcription would be difficult to repress in the absence of glucose.
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Chapter 17: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lamarck is remembered for his theory of inheritance which hypothesized that physical characteristics acquired during an individuals lifetime were passed onto their offspring.How does this differ from epigenetic inheritance where the diet of the mother affects coat color of the offspring?
A) There is no difference between Lamarckian theories of inheritance and epigenetic inheritance.
B) These epigenetic changes affect a specific allele. If the allele is not present, then coat color will not be affected by diet.
C) The change in coat color occurs in the offspring and not in the mother.
Q2) What genes appear to be controlled by the Xic?
A) Xist and Tsix
B) Xist
C) TsiX
D) Xic
Q3) Expression of a gene can be impaired if its promoter is hypermethylated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Non-Coding Rnas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the ncRNA that facilitates the binding of telomerase to the telomere and acts as a template for DNA replication.
A) TERC
B) snRNA
C) SRP RNA
D) Xist RNA
Q2) Into which gene of the CRISPR-Cas system are fragments of bacteriophage DNA inserted?
A) Crispr
B) tracr
C) Cas9
D) Cas1
E) Cas2
Q3) SmY RNAs are a family of ncRNAs in nematodes that are thought to be involved in a special type of RNA splicing.Based on this function,SmY RNAs are most likely members of which category of ncRNAs?
A) snRNA
B) tRNA
C) snoRNA
D) siRNA
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Chapter 19: Gene Mutation and DNA Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common genotype in a population is called the mutant genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The mutation frequency would be the same for all genes in a given culture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The wild-type eye color of Drosophila is red.A single-base mutation occurs that produces a white eye color.Which of the following is correct regarding this mutation?
A) It is an example of a mutation that alters protein function.
B) Individuals with white eyes are called reversions.
C) It would be an example of a silent mutation.
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) A temporary change in the structure of a nitrogenous base is called ________.
A) depurination
B) a tautomeric shift
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
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21
Chapter 20: Molecular Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A plasmid that contains separate origins of replication for two different species is called a(n)________.
A) R factor
B) expression vector
C) viral vector
D) shuttle vector
Q2) What is the origin of restriction endonucleases?
A) They are part of DNA repair mechanisms in eukaryotic cells.
B) They are a defense mechanism against viruses in bacteria.
C) They are replication enzymes of yeast.
D) They are transposable elements of Drosophila.
Q3) Which technique is best suited to identify DNA-protein interactions?
A) Western blotting
B) PCR
C) gel mobility shift assay
D) restriction enzyme analysis
Q4) An organism that can be regenerated from somatic cells is called multipotent.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gene knockouts in mice can be useful because
A) they can be used to develop models of human disease.
B) they identify DNA binding proteins.
C) they limit mRNA production both from the knockout as well as the normal allele in diploids.
D) only genes that are actively transcribed in the embryo are susceptible to being knocked out.
Q2) In shotgun sequencing,how is a complete sequence of a genome reconstructed?
A) The entire genome is directly sequenced chromosome by chromosome.
B) The genome is fragmented and sequences of each fragment are arranged so that overlapping regions are identified.
C) The sequences of a large number of individuals is obtained and "averaged" to obtain the complete sequence.
D) The position of each marker and gene are first mapped relative to regions for which the genomic sequence is not known.
Q3) A small glass chip that contains thousands of microscopic pieces of DNA is called a DNA microarray.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term for the use of information about a person's genotype and other clinical data in order to select a medication is referred to as
A) best medical practices.
B) molecular profiling.
C) personalized medicine.
D) minimalized drug therapy.
Q2) What kind of mutation would be expected both within oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes that would result in gain-of-function or loss-of-function,respectively?
A) Missense
B) Amplifications
C) Silent
D) Neutral
Q3) The process of ________ removes amniotic fluid from a pregnant mother to examine fetal cells for genetic problems.
A) amniocentesis
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) preimplantation genetic diagnosis
D) in vitro fertilization
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24
Chapter 23: Population Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of selection would lead to two distinct phenotypes?
A) stabilizing selection
B) phenotype selection
C) fitness selection
D) disruptive selection
E) directional selection
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg equation?
A) There is no migration into or out of the population.
B) Individuals of the population mate randomly.
C) The population size is very large.
D) Selection favors the dominant allele.
E) There is no mutation occurring in the population.
Q3) The formula p² + 2pq + q² = 1 is associated with which of the following?
A) calculations of heterozygosity
B) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C) calculations of recombination frequencies
D) degrees of freedom
E) None of these choices are correct.
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25
Chapter 24: Quantitative Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of mating between genetically unrelated individuals is called inbreeding.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Heritability is the amount of genetic variation in a particular population and a particular environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Traits that fall into discrete categories are called continuous traits.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After several generations of artificial selective breeding,a plateau is reached where artificial selection is no longer effective. This is called the ________.
A) realized limit
B) realized heritability
C) selection coefficient
D) selection limit
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