Genetics
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Genetics is the branch of biology that explores the principles of heredity and variation in living organisms. This course covers fundamental concepts including the structure and function of genes, patterns of inheritance, molecular genetics, gene expression, genetic mutation, and the role of genetics in evolution and development. Students will also examine modern genetic technologies, such as DNA sequencing and genetic engineering, and their applications in medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology, while considering ethical and societal implications.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings
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19 Chapters
1035 Verified Questions
1035 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was Carrie Buck's significance in the history of genetics?
A) She was a famous advocate for eugenics.
B) She became the first woman geneticist.
C) She was sterilized after the US Supreme Court determined she was feebleminded.
D) She discovered how to genetically modify corn to be resistant to herbicides.
E) She is the author of the first biography of Gregor Mendel.
Answer: C
Q2) Genetics is defined as the study of ____.
A) diseases
B) DNA
C) heredity
D) chromosome structure
E) more than one of these
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autosomal chromosome pairs are identical, whereas the sex chromosome pair in males is not.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A cell that could not form spindle fibers could not perform ____.
A) energy production
B) gas exchange across the plasma membrane
C) meiosis
D) DNA replication
E) protein synthesis
Answer: C
Q3) The Hayflick limit describes ____.
A) the size limit to which a cell can grow
B) the number of divisions a cultured cell can undergo
C) the largest number of chromosomes an organism can possess
D) the most cells an organism can have
E) how rapidly DNA replication occurs
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes From Generation to Generation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joshua has O type blood and the Bombay phenotype. His partner, Alice, has AB blood and does not have the Bombay phenotype, but her mother does. What are the possible blood types of the children of Joshua and Alice?
A) A, B, and O
B) A and O
C) B and O
D) All O
E) A and B
Answer: A
Q2) A locus is best defined as _____.
A) an alternate form of a gene
B) the chromosome location of the centromere
C) the location of a gene on a chromosome
D) a mutation of a gene to an alternate state
E) the site of crossing over
Answer: C
Q3) The inheritance of human traits is predictable because the genes controlling them exhibit the principles of both ____________________ and
Answer: segregation; independent assortment
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A defective form of the protein dystrophin is involved in the diseases __________ and ________.
Q2) Mitochondrial gene defects mainly cause myopathies (conditions affecting ____________________), and encephalomyopathies (conditions also affecting ____________________).
Q3) When affected males produce all affected daughters and no affected sons, the genetic disease is likely to be ____________________.
Q4) The phenotypes of a trait controlled by the same gene are not always identical. A)True B)False
Q5) All genes are expressed in either the prenatal or newborn stages. A)True B)False
Q6) If Marfan syndrome results in death, it is usually due to rupture of the ____________________.
Q7) The basic method of genetic analysis in humans requires a ____________________ of several generations.
Q8) The basic method of genetic analysis in humans is ____________________ rather than experimental.
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Chapter 5: Complex Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) For threshold traits the liability for a genetic disorder is distributed among individuals in a normal curve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A diet rich in ___ has been shown to reduce the incidence of spina bifida.
A) vitamin C
B) niacin
C) folate
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin E
Q3) Using a large poster board, construct a Punnet Square involving three genes for skin color. One of the parents is completely dominant for all three genes and the other parent is completely recessive for all three genes. Then construct a graph of the number of offspring (y-axis) versus phenotype (skin color from lightest to darkest on the x-axis).
Q4) The multifactorial threshold model is helpful in genetic counseling to predict recurrence risks.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the factors responsible for regression to the mean.
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics: Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell-free fetal DNA originates from the breakdown of fetal cells in the __________.
Q2) Comment on the following statement: "Since monosomy (2n-1) for autosomes is lethal, no individuals with 45 chromosomes, including a normal pair of sex chromosomes, exist."
Q3) The effect of colcemid on cells is to stop division at anaphase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most common survival trisomy is trisomy 13.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The region that divides a chromosome into two arms is the ______.
A) centriole
B) centromere
C) chromatin
D) chromatid
E) centrum
Q6) In general, how do sex chromosome aneuploidies differ from autosomal aneuploidies?
Page 8
Q7) _______ describes a chromosome that has a centrally-placed centromere.
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Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The site of implantation of a blastocyst is the A) myometrium.
B) oviduct.
C) endometrium.
D) vagina.
E) ovary.
Q2) It would be possible for a Klinefelter (XXY) cat to have tortoise shell color.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The chorion develops from the trophoblasts and allows for the exchange of nutrients between embryonic and maternal tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how X inactivation can result in female mosaicism.
Q5) The lower neck of the uterus, which opens into the vagina, is called the ____________________.
Q6) With all that you now know about sex determination and sex differentiation, can you satisfactorily define "male" and "female"?
Q7) Meiosis I in females is completed at ____________.
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Chapter 8: DNA Structure and Chromosomal Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytosine and thymine are the two types of bases found in DNA known as
Q2) The type of chemical bond that connects the sugars and phosphates together in a DNA molecule is a _______________ bond.
Q3) What role might nucleosomes play in chromosome structure? What are the dimensions of the problem in packing a diploid amount of DNA into a typical nucleus?
Q4) The two strands of each polynucleotide chain in DNA are identical.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The results of the experiments of Avery and his colleagues indicate that A) proteins are antigens.
B) proteins transfer genetic information.
C) capsule formation is mediated by RNA.
D) DNA is the transforming material.
E) DNA replication is semiconservative.
Q6) Chromosome territories do not overlap each other.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The name of the enzyme that replicates DNA is ____________________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression: From Genes to Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following correctly describes the direction of translation?
A) DNA is read 3'-to-5' and RNA is synthesized 5'-to-3'.
B) DNA is read 3'-to-5' and RNA is synthesized 3'-to-5'.
C) DNA is read 5'-to-3' and RNA is synthesized 3'-to-5'.
D) DNA is read 5'-to-3' and RNA is synthesized 5'-to-3'.
E) The direction varies in different genes.
Q2) The processing of mRNA takes place in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by an error in ____________.
A) DNA replication
B) translation
C) transcription
D) protein folding
E) the genetic code
Q4) List the various functions of proteins.
Q5) The codon ____________________ serves as the initiator codon and also codes for the amino acid ____________________.
Q6) Creutzfeldt-Jalob disease is one of the diseases caused by infectious proteins called
Page 11
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical compound that acts as a reactant in an enzyme mediated reaction is called a ____________.
Q2) The compound that Dr. Folling isolated from the urine of the Egeland children was ____________.
A) phenylalanine
B) pyruvic acid
C) phenylpyruvic acid
D) phtalamine
E) pertussic acid
Q3) In people who have PKU, phenylalanine cannot be converted into the amino acid
Q4) Linus Pauling is credited with work that established ____________________ as the first "molecular disease."
Q5) The molecular defect in sickle cell anemia is known to reside at the position ____________________ of the ____________________ globin
Q6) Familial hypercholesterolemia is associated with a defect in mitochondrial protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Mutation: the Source of Genetic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ are mutations involving the increase of the number of repeat sequences in genes.
Q2) All genes on all human chromosomes are subject to imprinting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nonsense mutations are mutations caused by nucleotide substitutions that change one amino acid into another.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A radiation dose of 400 rem, if untreated, causes death within 60 days of about ____________________ percent of people exposed to it.
Q5) Frameshift mutations include nucleotide substitutions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why do some genetic disorders have a high new mutation rate (hemophilia and muscular dystrophy) while others display a very low new mutation rate (Huntington's disease)?
Q7) The chemical group associated with epigenetic changes to our genome is the _________ group.
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with cancer?
A) Advanced age
B) Smoking cigarettes
C) Family history of cancer
D) Viral infections
E) All of these are risk factors associated with cancer
Q2) Which of the following is not a checkpoint in the cell cycle?
A) The G1/S transition
B) The S/G2 transition
C) The G2/M transition
D) Late metaphase
E) The prophase/ metaphase transition
Q3) Which of the following best describes the effect of cancer-causing mutations on the cell cycle?
A) The mutations increase the speed of the cycle.
B) The mutations cause the cell to bypass checkpoints in the cycle.
C) The mutations eliminate one or more stages of the cycle.
D) The mutations interfere with S stage of the cycle.
E) None of these.
Q4) The primary risk factor for cancer is ____________________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Embryo splitting
A) mimics the way identical twins and triplets are produced naturally.
B) is a means of cloning animal embryos.
C) requires in vitro fertilization.
D) is a technology that could improve the production of domestic animals.
E) is characterized by all of these traits.
Q2) DNA fragments can be separated by size on a gel, but then must be transferred to filters for probing and further analysis. The technique used to transfer DNA to the filters is called ____________________.
Q3) In genomic libraries, DNA fragments are stored in ______________ chromosomes.
Q4) Recombinant vectors are often propagated in bacterial cells. A)True B)False
Q5) ____________________ are short nucleotide sequences used to begin replication in PCR, and to which the polymerase adds nucleotides.
Q6) In DNA sequencing, the different sized fragments created are separated from each other by ____________________.
Q7) Linked DNA segments from humans and vectors, such as plasmids, are called ____________________ molecules.
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ____________________ organism is one that carries a gene that has been transferred to it from another species.
Q2) Rape (from which canola oil is produced), sunflowers, and soybeans have been genetically modified to enhance production of ___________ fatty acids.
Q3) Human insulin is produced in transgenic hamster cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Transgenic Bt crops have been genetically modified to A) resist common herbicides.
B) have increased protein content.
C) produce an insecticide.
D) be tolerant of salt in the soil.
E) grow faster.
Q5) In DNA profiles
A) the bands are derived from variation in restriction cutting sites of DNA.
B) ideally, the pattern is unique for all individuals except identical twins.
C) variations in short tandem repeats produce the banding pattern.
D) all of these are true.
E) none of these are true.
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Human Genome Project took much longer to complete and cost more than was originally anticipated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are some ways in which genetic information about a person can be (a) helpful and (b) harmful to that person?
Q3) The number of proteins produced by the human genome is significantly less than the number of genes it contains.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The bands on chromosomes correspond to
A) gene-poor regions.
B) gene-rich regions
C) regions where specific proteins attach to the chromosomes.
D) regions actively transcribing RNA.
E) regions where genes are not transcribing RNA.
Q5) The Human Genome Project was responsible for discovery of a new class of mutation, the ____________________.
Q6) How has information technology and computing become indispensable for genomics?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology, Genetic Testing, and Gene Therapy
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Louise Brown was the first baby born as a result of ____________________.
Q2) The most common vectors used in DNA therapy experiments are ___________.
A) modified human cells
B) retroviruses
C) hanta viruses
D) bacteria
E) naked DNA
Q3) Genetic screening for PKU is mandated by law in the U.S., yet it only affects about 1 in 40,000 individuals. As screening techniques become increasingly sophisticated, how far should mandatory screening be extended? What about screening for conditions such as XYY (about 1 in 1,000 male births)? Can you suggest guidelines for the selection of genetic disorders to be included in such mandatory screening?
Q4) The condition of having no sperm in the semen is called _____________.
Q5) It is argued that genetic testing can be used to hold down costs for insurance and in employee liability. Should mandatory genetic testing be used as a condition for employment or insurance? Why or why not?
Q6) Most of the problems with gene therapy have been traced to
Page 18
Q7) The most direct way to detect Down Syndrome in a fetus is by ___________.
Q8) Describe two prenatal tests for genetic disorders.
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Genes and the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many of the medications available for people with allergies are antihistamines. Describe the symptoms of a typical pollen allergy and explain how the antihistamine works to provide relief.
Q2) For an organ transplant to be successful, which of the following genes should be matched as closely as possible?
A) Immunglobin genes
B) Human leukocyte antigen genes
C) T-cell receptor genes
D) Membrane attack complex genes
E) Complement protein genes
Q3) Describe an antibody.
Q4) The enzyme responsible for producing DNA copies of HIV RNA molecules is ________________.
Q5) Agammaglobulinemia is strictly an environmental disease.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Most of the organisms that normally inhabit our skin help defend us against infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcoholism has been proposed as a genetically controlled or influenced trait. Outline some of the difficulties in studying the genetics of this behavior trait, beginning with the definition of the phenotype. Can you define the problem in such a way that will provide a hypothesis as to the nature of the disorder, allowing a genetic approach to be mounted?
Q2) The gene associated with aggressive behavior identified in 1993 is to be linked to an enzyme called ____________________.
Q3) Genome screening with molecular markers is a useful model for studying the genetics of homosexuality.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The mutant huntingtin protein that results in Huntington disease
A) causes a decrease in production of another protein.
B) leads to degeneration of cells in the brain's striatum.
C) is toxic to brain cells.
D) leads to degeneration of cells in the brain's striatum and is toxic to brain cells only.
E) has all of these traits.
Q5) How are twins used in research behavioral traits?
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following species of Homo did NOT live contemporaneously with H. sapiens?
A) H. neanderthalensis
B) H. floresiensis
C) H. erectus
D) H. habilis
E) All of these species of Homo did live contemporaneously with H. sapiens.
Q2) The relatively high percentage of individuals in West Africa who are heterozygous for the sickle cell trait is an example of _______________.
A) natural selection
B) genetic drift
C) spontaneous mutational spread
D) heterozygote disadvantage
E) more than one of these
Q3) One would think that deleterious genes would be eliminated by natural selection, yet we have two human genetic disorders with a high carrier frequency, sickle-cell anemia and cystic fibrosis. Why has this high frequency for these conditions remained in the population?
Q4) The first hominin known to use sophisticated tools and fire was _______________.
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