Genetics
Exam Materials
Course
Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the principles of genetics, exploring the molecular mechanisms of gene structure and function, patterns of inheritance, and the role of genes in development and evolution. Students will examine Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance, genetic variation, mutation, gene regulation, and the application of genetic technologies in modern biology and medicine. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory exercises, the course emphasizes both classical and molecular genetics, preparing students to understand how genetic information influences traits, populations, and disease.
Recommended Textbook
iGenetics A Molecular Approach 3rd Edition by Peter J. Russell
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23 Chapters
1033 Verified Questions
1033 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Genetics: An Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membrane-bound nuclei are characteristic of both Archaea and eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) What is the difference between PubMed and OMIM?
Answer: PubMed is a website that is used to access citations and abstracts of journal articles.OMIM is a database of human genes and genetic disorders.
Q3) Genetic maps show the relative location and arrangement of genes on chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Centrioles are also called basal bodies.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q5) Which organelles besides the nucleus contain their own DNA?
Answer: The mitochondria in eukaryotes and the chloroplasts in plants contain DNA of their own.
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Chapter 2: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) By weight,the amount of DNA in chromatin is less than that of histone.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The genome of most prokaryotes consists of moderately repetitive DNA.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q3) Define Chargaff's rules of the base composition of DNA.
Answer: Chargaff's rules include the following: (1)the amount of adenine = the amount of thymine,(2)the amount of guanine = the amount of cytosine,and (3)the amount of purines = the amount of pyrimidines.
Q4) What did Watson and Crick deduce about the three-dimensional structure of DNA?
A)There is a repeating pattern every 3.4 nm and every 0.34 nm.
B)It is a double-stranded helix.
C)It contains a lot of phosphorus.
D)It is a large molecule.
E)It consists of supercoiled chromatin.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) What experiment demonstrated that the 5'-to-3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I was essential for cell viability?
Answer: In E.coli,the DNA Pol I polAex1 mutant strain survives at 37C but dies at 42C.This was shown to be because the mutant DNA Pol I enzyme had normal activity at 37C but a defective 5'-to-3' activity at 42C.This demonstrated that the 5'-to-3' exonuclease activity of DNA Pol I was essential for cell survival.
Q2) What are the differences in replication between leading and lagging strands in terms of continuity and directionality in relation to the replication fork?
Answer: The leading strand is copied continuously from the 3' end toward the replication fork,while the lagging strand is copied in fragments away from the replication fork.
Q3) Where does the initiator protein bind DNA at the start of replication?
A)At a replication fork
B)At an origin of replication
C)At any AT-rich region
D)At a promoter region
E)At a start codon
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder.What is the chance that two carrier parents will have an affected child?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)25%
E)0%
Q2) Explain the difference between the one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis and the one-gene-one-polypeptide hypothesis.
Q3) Auxotrophs are organisms that can grow
A)on minimal media.
B)on complete media.
C)only on amino acid supplemented media.
D)only on vitamin supplemented media.
E)on any media.
Q4) You discover a mutant strain of Neurospora crassa that will not grow on a minimal medium but that will grow on a medium supplemented by the amino acid methionine.How can you determine which step in the methionine synthesis pathway is affected by the mutation?
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Chapter 5: Gene Expression: Transcription
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cite at least three ways in which transcription differs from DNA replication.
Q2) RNA polymerase has no proofreading activity during transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the three regions of a prokaryotic gene?
Q4) What are the three basic steps of transcription?
Q5) Unlike eukaryotic mRNA,prokaryotic mRNA is polycistronic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Prokaryotic transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to which site of the gene region?
A)-35
B)-10
C)+1
D)+10
E)+35
Q7) Activators are cis-acting sequences that increase transcription from a promoter.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe the structure and organization of the rDNA repeat unit in eukaryotes.
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Chapter 6: Gene Expression: Translation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following events signals the termination of translation?
A)The ribosome reaches the end of the mRNA.
B)The ribosome reaches a start codon.
C)The ribosome reaches a stop codon.
D)The ribosome runs out of charged tRNAs.
E)The polypeptide chain folds into a protein.
Q2) In the genetic code,when the first two nucleotides of a triplet are identical and the third letter is U or C,the codon always codes for the same amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A peptide bond forms between the ________ of one amino acid and the ________ of another.
A)amino group,carboxyl group
B)amino group,R group
C)carboxyl group,sulfide group
D)amino group,phosphate group
E)R group,R group
Q4) How are proteins sorted into their appropriate cell compartments in eukaryotes?
Q5) Why is methionine the first amino acid to be added to every polypeptide chain?
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Chapter 7: Dna Mutation, DNA Repair, and Transposable Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does an intercalating agent such as ethidium bromide cause mutations?
Q2) A cointegrate is characteristic of replicative transposition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe how the Ames test is used to determine whether a particular chemical is mutagenic.
Q4) LINEs and SINEs are repetitive sequences in humans that can also,as retrotransposons,insert into genes and cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not mutagenic?
A)5BU
B)AZT
C)Nitrous acid
D)Hydroxylamine
E)Acridine
Q6) How was the adaptive method for acquiring mutations disproved?
Q8) Explain what a mutator gene is and give an example. Page 9
Q7) Explain how IS elements produce target-site duplications when they move.
Q9) How can PCR be used to induce site-specific mutations in DNA?
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Chapter 8: Genomics: The Mapping and Sequencing of Genomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly contrast the dideoxy DNA sequencing developed by Fred Sanger with pyrosequencing methods.
Q2) A restriction enzyme cuts DNA and leaves the following end: CTGCA G
Which of the following could be the sequence of the corresponding end of the other fragment generated by the enzyme?
A)G CTGCA
B)C GTGCA
C)CCGAT G
D)GGCTA C
E)None of these
Q3) A DNA copy of an mRNA molecule is called A)dDNA.
B)rDNA.
C)mDNA.
D)shDNA.
E)cDNA.
Q4) What advantage do cDNA libraries have over genomic libraries?
Q5) The human genome consists mostly of noncoding DNA. A)True B)False
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Chapter 9: Functional and Comparative Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the Taq DNA polymerase well-suited for PCR?
Q2) The polymerase chain reaction has revolutionized genetics because
A)it is capable of making virtually unlimited copies of DNA for study.
B)it is capable of making copies of DNA with very little starting material.
C)it is capable of making large numbers of DNA copies very quickly.
D)All of these
E)A and B only
Q3) Which of the following statements correctly describes reverse genetics?
A)A mutated phenotype in an organism leads to the associated gene.
B)A mutated gene is introduced into an organism to determine the phenotype.
C)A gene is studied to understand the protein it encodes.
D)A transcript is used to make a protein encoded by a gene.
E)A gene is identified by bioinformatics.
Q4) After how many PCR cycles,starting from a single starting molecule,will fragments consisting of only the target DNA (the DNA between the primers)be generated?
Q5) The FOXP2 protein appears to play a critical role in brain size regulation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the difference between a "knockout" and a "knockdown" of a gene?
Q7) List the steps involved in constructing a knockout mutant in yeast.
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Chapter 10: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA sequencing using the dideoxy sequencing method involves PCR reactions using Taq polymerase,which we learned in this chapter can introduce errors because it lacks a proofreading mechanism.What precaution(s)can be taken in genomic or other sequencing projects to minimize the possibility of producing DNA sequences with errors?
Q2) In yeast,expression of the GAL genes is induced when there is ________ in the culture medium.
A)glucose
B)lactose
C)galactose
D)maltose
E)Any of these
Q3) ASO probes are used for the molecular testing of
A)chromosomal rearrangements.
B)single nucleotide changes in a DNA region.
C)RFLP fragments in a DNA region.
D)defective proteins implicated in disease.
E)successfully cloned Ti plasmids.
Q4) Study of P elements in Drosophila has shown that gene regulation can be accomplished by differential mRNA transcript processing.Explain.
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's insights started with his approach of analyzing discrete traits,leading to the idea of "particulate" rather than "blending" inheritance.Yet this was an uncommon way to view the inheritance of traits because many found it counterintuitive or contrary to experience.How so?
Q2) Speculate on the molecular basis for dominance and recessiveness,using flower color as an example,where red is dominant over white.
Q3) In snapdragons,the genes A,B,C,D,and E assort independently of one another.If an Aa Bb Cc dd EE plant is crossed with an Aa bb cc Dd Ee plant,what is the probability of obtaining an offspring that is phenotypically dominant for all five traits?
Q4) A man with albinism and a woman with a normal phenotype have several children,one of whom displays albinism.
a.What can you conclude about the genotype of the mother?
b.What is the probability that the children who do not display albinism are heterozygous?
Q5) The genotypic F<sub>2</sub> ratio expected in a dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What characteristics make an organism a good candidate for Mendelian studies?
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are a breeder of animals with an X-linked coat-color gene,one allele of which gives black fur and another of which gives white fur.If you cross a black-colored female with a white-colored male,what would their male and female offspring look like?
Q2) The chromosome theory of inheritance states that
A)genes are located on chromosomes.
B)chromosomes replicate before cell division.
C)alleles of a gene segregate during cell division.
D)chromosomes consist of DNA.
E)different chromosomes assort independently of one another.
Q3) How did chromosomes get their name?
Q4) A litter produced by a calico cat is not expected to include
A)solid-colored female kittens.
B)calico female kittens.
C)solid-colored male kittens.
D)calico male kittens.
E)Any of these
Q5) Describe a situation in which two aneuploid gametes would yield a euploid zygote.
Q6) What are the differences between metaphase I and metaphase II of meiosis?
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Chapter 13: Extensions of and Deviations From Mendelian
Genetic Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sex-limited traits are caused by genes that are on sex chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In cats,the dominant white gene (W)may or may not also cause deafness.Homozygotes are more likely to be deaf than heterozygotes.If you breed heterozygous white cats together and produce 100 kittens,how many would you expect to be deaf if all the proportions came out perfectly? Assume that heterozygotes have an 8% chance of being deaf,and homozygotes a 60% chance of being deaf.
Q3) In a genotype with complete penetrance,less than 100% of individuals with a particular genotype exhibit the expected phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the cause of Tay-Sachs disease?
Q5) People affected by diseases caused by mtDNA defects
A)typically have cells that are heteroplasmons.
B)show partial penetrance.
C)are sterile.
D)inherited them through maternal effect.
E)have epistatic respiration.
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Chapter 14: Genetic Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is not necessary to use a male from a tester strain to genetically map genes on the X chromosome.How can this be done and why does it work?
Q2) Of the three pairs of genes,which ones are closest to each other and which ones are farthest apart?
Q3) If genes are linked and an F<sub>1</sub> is testcrossed,
A)the genes cannot separate.
B)they can produce only one phenotype.
C)they only produce homozygotes.
D)they produce more recombinant phenotypes than parental phenotypes.
E)they produce more parental phenotypes than recombinant phenotypes.
Q4) Explain how Curt Stern showed,using evidence from Drosophila,that genetic recombination is associated with the physical exchange of parts between homologous chromosomes.
Q5) What does the chi-square test tell us about the linkage of two genes?
Q6) Is it possible for crossing-over to occur between two linked genes,yet for all of the resulting offspring to have parental genotypes?
Q7) Why does the recombination frequency often lead to an underestimation of the true map distance between linked genes?
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Chapter 15: Genetics of Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) Genetic mapping experiments performed by Seymour Benzer on rII mutants in the T4 phage showed that the gene is indivisible by the process of mutation and recombination.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The viral chromosome of a bacteriophage can never integrate into the host bacterium's chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the lysogenic bacteriophage life cycle,the chromosome
A)replicates and the phage genes take over the bacterium.
B)inserts itself physically into the host cell's chromosome.
C)expresses a repressor protein gene that inhibits the lytic pathway.
D)is replaced by a piece of bacterial DNA when packaged inside phage progeny.
E)Both B and C
Q4) In the case of genetic exchange in bacteria by transformation,there is an exchange of DNA back and forth between cells,and a complete diploid cell is formed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Variations in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Q1) During meiosis in a reciprocal translocation heterozygote,what are the three ways that chromosomes may segregate at anaphase I,and what are the consequences for the resulting gametes?
Q2) During meiosis,what are the gametic consequences of a paracentric inversion with a single crossover event,compared to a pericentric inversion with a single crossover?
Q3) Seedless bananas are produced from
A)sterile tetraploid allopolyploid plants.
B)sterile triploid autopolyploid plants.
C)monoploid plants grown from unfertilized seeds.
D)fertile diploid plants that are unfertilized.
E)Both C and D
Q4) Which of the following traits is determined by programmed transposition?
A)Pattern baldness in humans
B)Mating types in yeast
C)Eye color in Drosophila
D)All of these
E)None of these
Q5) What are the gametic consequences of a lack of cytokinesis following the first or second meiotic division?
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) If a cell has the partial diploid genotype \(\mathrm { lacI } ^ { + } \quad \operatorname { lacO } ^ { - } \operatorname { lac } ^ { + } \quad \operatorname { lac } ^ { + }\)
\(\overline { l a c I ^ { - } l a c O ^ { - } ~ l a c Z ^ { + } \operatorname { lac } Y ^ { - } }\), how will its gene expression function in the presence of allolactose?
Q2) The ________ pathway in lambda phage leads to integration of viral DNA with that of the host,while the ________ pathway leads to induction of progeny viruses.
A)lytic,lysogenic
B)invasive,replicative
C)repressive,inductive
D)lysogenic,lytic
E)replicative,lysogenic
Q3) Contrast negative (repressor)and positive (CAP)control in the lac operon.
Q4) Give an overview of the mechanism by which ultraviolet radiation induces the lytic pathway in lambda phage.
Q5) Why do lacO<sup>C</sup> mutants express in cis-dominant and not in transdominant fashion?
Page 20
Q6) Distinguish between cis- and trans-dominance.
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Hormones can be considered
A)inducers.
B)repressors.
C)transcription regulators.
D)translation regulators.
E)enzymes.
Q2) Some genes that are expressed in the fetal stage are never expressed again in that individual's life.What do you think is the most common mechanism for preventing the expression of such genes?
Q3) In eukaryotic cells,steroid hormones
A)bind to cytoplasmic receptors,are transported to the nucleus,bind DNA,and regulate gene expression.
B)bind to cell surface receptors and send signals that result in regulation of genes in the nucleus.
C)act as enhancers and bind to an assortment of activators and repressors.
D)methylate DNA to regulate gene expression.
E)cause maternal effect.
Q4) Imprinting is implicated in Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Genetic Analysis of Development
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Q1) No human cells lose all of their DNA during differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The use of embryonic stem cells in federally funded research in the United States is a hotly debated topic.What are the arguments for and against use of such stem cell lines in research and treatment of disease?
Q3) In what ways does the cloned cat Cc demonstrate the limitations of cloning technology in obtaining desired phenotypes?
Q4) The cells of triploid animals,like certain salamanders,are individually larger,yet their overall body size is no different from that of diploids.Pose a developmental hypothesis for the control of morphogenesis in such animals.
Q5) ________ is the process of cell or tissue change in development.
A)Transformation
B)Morphogenesis
C)Development
D)Change
E)None of these
Q6) Why are the changes associated with development irreversible?
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Chapter 20: Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) At the molecular level,what exactly are the mutagenic effects of UVA and UVB radiation?
Q2) Inherited mutant tumor suppressors produce a dominant susceptibility to cancer,but the mutant alleles are actually recessive in the cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does telomerase,which is not a cause of cancer,nonetheless play a role in its development?
Q4) The products of tumor suppressor genes stimulate cell proliferation,while the products of proto-oncogenes inhibit cell proliferation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cancer is best defined as
A)immune dysfunction.
B)uncontrolled and abnormal cell division.
C)viral malignancy.
D)regulated differentiation of tissue.
E)cellular deregulation.
Q6) List the ways in which proto-oncogenes may be converted to oncogenes.
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Chapter 21: Population Genetics
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Q1) A population genetic study of a certain insect revealed four alleles for the GPI (glucose-phosphate isomerase)locus.How many different genotypic classes should be found?
A)4
B)8
C)10
D)16
E)20
Q2) This chapter discussed speciation by genetic divergence following geographic isolation,which is expected to lead to reduced gene flow,a process known as allopatric speciation.A more controversial form of speciation is the genetic divergence of populations without physical isolation,a process known as sympatric speciation.Can you envision a mechanism or process that would permit two coexisting populations of the same species to begin to diverge without being isolated from one another?
Q3) When the population mean for a given measured trait is observed to decline over the course of several generations,it is an example of disruptive selection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) The distribution of continuous traits can best be described as A)linear.
B)bell-shaped.
C)hyperbolic.
D)logarithmic.
E)bimodal.
Q2) Populations of the snail Cepaea nemoralis exhibit three color morphs,a good example of a ________ trait.
A)continuous
B)discontinuous
C)quantitative
D)polygenic
E)B,C,and D only
Q3) Identical (monozygotic)and fraternal (dizygotic)twins provide a natural experiment for investigating the influence of genetics on traits.Outline a study approach using twins,assuming you could identify enough pairs,in which you are examining the relative contribution of genetics on blood cholesterol level.
Q4) The broad-sense heritability of a trait is estimated at 0.8.If the total phenotypic variance is estimated at 32.20,what is the genetic variance?
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Chapter 23: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) Synonymous changes that arise within coding sequences of genes
A)generally have no effect on the phenotype.
B)are usually detrimental to fitness.
C)may be eliminated by natural selection.
D)occur more frequently than nonsynonymous changes.
E)B and C only
Q2) Which of the following does not provide molecular evidence for evolution?
A)The 1,000-fold differences in nonsynonymous substitutions between some genes
B)The existence of pseudogenes
C)The fact that high-expression genes use amino acids that are less energetically costly than those used by low-expression genes
D)The fact that there is a lower rate of nucleotide substitutions in coding regions than in noncoding regions of genes
E)All these are molecular evidence for evolution
Q3) What is codon bias? If synonymous substitutions give the same amino acid,why should there be a bias in which codons encode that amino acid?
Q4) What are the major weaknesses of the parsimony and distance matrix methods of phylogeny reconstruction?
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