Genetics
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Genetics is the scientific study of genes, heredity, and variation in living organisms. This course introduces fundamental principles of genetic inheritance, structure and function of DNA and RNA, gene expression and regulation, and the role of genetics in evolution and disease. Topics include Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance, genetic mapping, molecular genetics, population genetics, and applications such as genetic engineering, biotechnology, and ethical considerations in genetics research. Through lectures, lab activities, and case studies, students develop a foundational understanding of how genetic information is transmitted, expressed, and manipulated, preparing them for advanced studies in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology
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Q1) What is another term for an RNA-dependent-DNA-polymerase?
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase II
C) RNA replicase
D) RNA transcriptase
E) Reverse transcriptase
Answer: E
Q2) The word "phage" is a shortened version of the name of a virus that can infect which type of organism?
A) bacterial cell
B) human cell
C) eukaryotic cell
D) plant cell
E) inset cell
Answer: A
Q3) Phages, viruses that can infect bacterial cells, may someday be used to treat bacterial infections.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly
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Q1) A very common structure for bacteriophage particles is which of the following?
A) an icosahedral head and an envelope
B) a naked icosahedral head
C) a naked helical tail
D) an icosahedral head with a helical tail
E) a cubic head with a helical tail
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a regular icosahedron?
A) It has 12 vertices of 5-fold symmetry.
B) It has 20 triangular faces.
C) It has 20 sides with 3-fold symmetry.
D) It has 30 edges with 2-fold symmetry
E) It has 6 square faces.
Answer: E
Q3) Some viruses particles have a rigid capsid surrounding an internal membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses
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Q1) Retroviruses are the only virus family known to package two copies of its genome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The name of a virus family in the Latin classification system has which of the following endings?
A) -viridae
B) -virales
C) -virinae
D) -virus
E) -virusdae
Answer: A
Q3) Most viruses that infect plants have the following type of genome?
A) ssDNA, positive sense
B) ssDNA, negative sense
C) ssRNA, positive sense
D) ssRNA, negative sense
E) None of the above.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Virus Entry
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Q1) Which of the following describes the function of dynein?
A) It is a protein involved in importing cargo into the nucleus through the nuclear pore complex.
B) It is a motor protein that moves along microtubules towards the nucleus.
C) It is a motor protein that moves along microtubules towards the cell periphery.
D) It is a cell structure used to pass virus particles directly between host cells.
E) It a cellular membrane protein used as a cell receptor by many viruses.
Q2) Enveloped viral particles require activation energy in order to penetrate the host cell.Describe the two events that these viruses can use to provide this activation energy.
Q3) The interaction between the viral particle and the host cell receptor is a major determinant of the species specificity of viral infections.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe what a fusion peptide is and how it is involved in mediating membrane fusion between the viral envelope and the cell membrane?
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Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages
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Q1) The translation of the maturation protein from a newly synthesized positive strand genome in the phage MS2 depends on delayed folding of the RNA into its final secondary structure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The replicase enzyme of the ssRNA phage Qb has been used by scientists to do which of the following?
A) Synthesize RNA molecules from a DNA template.
B) Measure small amounts of target RNA molecules in a sample.
C) Measure the levels of pathogenic viruses in drinking water.
D) Amplify DNA molecules in a sample.
E) Fuse two pieces of RNA together.
Q3) The viral polymerase complex from the RNA phage Qb contains which of the following host cell proteins?
A) Host Factor
B) S1 ribosomal protein
C) EF-Tu translational factor
D) EF-Ts translational factor
E) All of the above are part of the complex.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Microviruses
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Q1) Microviruses are the only known non-satellite viruses requiring two separate scaffolding proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is used as the primary host cell receptor for the phage X174?
A) Glucose on lipopolysaccharide
B) A membrane protein
C) The cell wall
D) The F-pili
E) The internal membrane
Q3) When is the external scaffolding protein D removed from the procapsid?
A) After lysis of the host cell
B) During packaging of the viral DNA into the procapsid.
C) When the internal scaffolding protein B is removed from the procapsid.
D) Before the viral DNA is package into the procapsid
E) During entry into the next host cell
Q4) Describe the proteins required for both Stage I DNA and Stage II DNA replication and the role that each plays in the virus replication cycle of the bacteriophage X174.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Bacteriophage
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Q1) The genome of the bacteriophage T7 has circularly permuted ends.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The promoters of the Class II and Class III genes in the bacteriophage T7 have the same -10 and -35 sequences as the promoters for host cell genes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are the genes in the genome of the bacteriophage T7 arranged in the genome?
A) By when they are expressed during the viral replication cycle.
B) By their function during the viral replication cycle.
C) By the amount of GC bases they contain.
D) By their size, shortest to longest.
E) Both a and b are correct.
Q4) Bacteriophage T7 expresses an exonuclease which degrades the host cell DNA in order to provide nucleotides for viral DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the bacteriophage T7 inhibit the host cell RNA polymerase and why is this advantageous to the virus?
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Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda
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Q1) When phage infects E.coli cells that are metabolically active and in the logarithmic phase of growth, the virus will go lytic in most of the cells that it infects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a phage lysogen were superinfected with the same strain of l phage, the cI repressor would inhibit lytic replication from the incoming phage genome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The R and S proteins from phage can form complexes called holin and spanin.Which of the following describes the process that these complexes participate in?
A) Assembly of the virion.
B) Replication of the viral genome.
C) Packaging of the viral genome into the head
D) Excision of the viral genome from the host chromosome.
E) Lysis of the host cell to release virions.
Q4) Explain the mechanisms by which treatment of a phage lysogen with UV light leads to the induction of the prophage and the production of virus particles.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea
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Q1) Many of the viruses that infect archaeal cells primarily carry out a lysogenic infection.Even if they do enter a productive infectious cycle, they can release new virions without killing the host cell.What might be the evolutionary advantages of these lifestyle features?
Q2) What is unusual about the virion of the Acidianus two-tailed virus?
A) The virion contains two tails, one at each end of a lemon-shaped virion.
B) The two tails can be of different lengths.
C) The only requirement for tail production is temperatures above 75 C.
D) The tails are elongated after the virion leaves the host cell.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) Viruses that infect archaeal cells have been isolated from all of the following environments EXCEPT:
A) Hot springs with temperatures over 80 C
B) Environments with a pH of 0
C) Solfataric fields that emit sulfur gases
D) The surface of the moon
E) Environments with salt concentrations over 1.5M
Q4) Archaea cells contain a nucleus like eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics of the cucumber mosaic virus influences the aphid species that can transmit the virus?
A) Amino acid sequence of the coat protein.
B) The replication efficiency of the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) The specificity of binding to the host cell receptor.
D) The sequence of the 3' end of the viral genomic RNA.
E) The sequence of the IRES at the 5' end of the genomic RNA.
Q2) Which of the following has been used as a system to study brome mosaic virus replication?
A) Bacterial cells
B) Yeast cells
C) Insect cells
D) Animal cells
E) Human cells
Q3) Plant viruses, like cucumber mosaic virus, often package separate RNA genome segments into separate virions.What are the evolutionary advantages and disadvantages of this strategy? What ensures that the plants are infected with all of the necessary genome segments to begin an infection?
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Chapter 11: Picornaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a member of the picornavirus family?
A) Common cold
B) Polio
C) Hepatitis A
D) Influenza
E) Foot-and-mouth disease
Q2) Many of the picornaviruses use host cell receptors that have which of the following characteristics?
A) They are phospholipids.
B) They are carbohydrates.
C) They belong to the immunoglobulin superfamily.
D) They are integrins.
E) They are ion channels.
Q3) Hepatitis A produces less cytopathic effects in infected cells than other picornaviruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Flaviviruses
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is caused by a member of the flavivirus family?
A) Yellow Fever
B) Dengue Fever
C) West Nile Encephalitis
D) Hepatitis C
E) All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following cellular proteases helps to process the polyprotein of flaviviruses?
A) Chymotrypsin
B) Trypsin
C) Furin
D) Cathepsin D
E) Papain
Q3) Which of the following conditions is required to induce fusion of the flavivirus envelope with the host cell membrane?
A) Increase in pH
B) Decrease in pH
C) Binding of envelope protein to the host cell receptor
D) Uptake of the virion into a vesicle.
E) Proteolytic degradation of the virion.
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Chapter 13: Togaviruses
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Q1) How are the structural proteins in togaviruses expressed?
A) They are translated from the negative-sense strands after genome replication.
B) They are translated directly from incoming genomes.
C) They are translated from a subgenomic RNA.
D) They are only translated from newly synthesized full-length genomes.
E) None of the above are correct.
Q2) Infection of vertebrate cells with a togavirus does not cause cytopathic effects but leads to a persistent infection instead.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes an interesting feature of the envelope of a togavirus?
A) There are 240 copies of the envelope protein in the envelope.
B) The envelope proteins are arranged with icosahedral symmetry.
C) The envelope is composed of a lipid bilayer.
D) The envelope is inside the capsid.
E) The envelope only contains one type of protein.
Q4) There are two proposed mechanisms for how togaviruses assemble their virions.Describe the two mechanisms and any available evidence that supports them.
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Chapter 14: Coronaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes the structure of the coronavirus virion?
A) Naked helical capsid
B) Naked icosahedral capsid
C) Icosahedral nucleocapsid surrounded by an envelope
D) Helical nucleocapsid surrounded by an envelope
E) None of the above.
Q2) Describe the two alternative hypotheses for how a bat coronavirus evolved to infect humans and cause the SARS epidemic in 2003.Which one does the evidence appear to support?
Q3) Which of the following might explain the potentially low barrier to species jumping seen in coronaviruses?
A) The large size of the RNA genome.
B) The modular nature of the Spike glycoprotein.
C) The ability of one virus to bind to multiple host cell receptors.
D) The ability of the virus to reassort its genome segments.
E) The high number of envelope glycoproteins found on the virion.
Q4) The subgenomic mRNAs in the coronaviruses are synthesized from subgenomic negative-strand templates.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses
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Q1) There are two sequence elements at the 3' end of the genomes of paramyxoviruses that are required for mRNA transcription and genome replication.These two sequences are 78 nucleotides apart.How can the polymerase bind to both of these sequence elements at the same time?
A) There are cellular proteins that bridge the two sequences.
B) There are viral proteins that bridge the two sequences.
C) The two sequences are both on the same side of the helical nucleocapsid.
D) The polymerase protein is large enough to bind both sequences.
E) The polymerase does not need to bind to both sequences simultaneously.
Q2) Rhabdoviruses can infect a wide variety of hosts including insects, plants and vertebrates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the two models that explain how the monopartite negative-strand RNA viruses produces individual mRNAs.Which of the two models does the experimental evidence support?
Q4) Describe two major differences between transcription and genome replication in paramyxoviruses.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Filovirouses
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Q1) The intergenic regions in the Ebola virus genome contains signals for all of the following processes EXCEPT .
A) Transcription reinitaiton.
B) Trancription termination.
C) Polyadenylation.
D) RNA polymerase disengagement.
E) Genome replication.
Q2) Scientists produced a mutant Ebola virus that does not express any of the soluble form of the envelope glycoprotein (sGP)but can only express the membrane bound form (GP).Which of the following explains the results of infecting cells with this mutant?
A) It caused the cells to release more virus from the cell.
B) It resulted in virus particles with higher levels of GP.
C) It allowed the immune system to attack the virus.
D) It caused the virus to produce smaller plaques.
E) It reduced the cytopathic effect caused by the virus.
Q3) Marburg virus, a member of the filovirus family, has a higher mortality rate than either Ebola Zaire or Ebola Sudan.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses
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Q1) Bunyaviruses that have been reassorted for the M segment have lost their virulence.Which of the following describes the conclusion from this experiment?
A) The envelope proteins are responsible for virulence.
B) The RNA polymerase is responsible for virulence.
C) The non-structural protein is responsible for virulence.
D) The nucleocapsid protein is responsible for virulence.
E) Virulence is not controlled by any of the above.
Q2) Explain how genetic drift and shift can lead to the emergence of new strains of bunyavirus that are pathogenic in humans.
Q3) The bunyavirus Sin Nombre caused a severe respiratory infection in Asia in 2003.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following could be the source of new pathogenic bunyavirus infections in humans?
A) Acquisition of new viruses from bats.
B) Evolution of viruses that over stimulate the immune system.
C) Reassortment between two viruses in mosquitoes.
D) Transovarial transmission of a bunyavirus.
E) Infection of domestic animals.
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Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes the function of the M2 protein from influenza virus?
A) It induces the fusion of the viral envelope with the cell membrane.
B) It binds to the host cell receptor for viral entry.
C) It acts as an ion channel to allow H+ ions to enter the virion.
D) It helps to initiate transcription of viral mRNAs.
E) It cleaves off the 5' caps from the cellular mRNAs.
Q2) Explain the role that antigenic drift and shift play in the ability of influenza to cause new outbreaks.Which one is thought to have caused the 1918 strain of influenza to emerge?
Q3) Many of the symptoms caused by infection with the influenza virus, including fever, headache and malaise, are actually the result of which of the following?
A) Factors produced by the virus during infection.
B) Direct damage to the cells of the lung.
C) Infection of the liver.
D) Loss of ciliated epithelium.
E) The effect of cytokines induced by the virus.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Reoviruses
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Q1) Infection of a cell with a reovirus can activate which of the following cellular proteins or processes?
A) NF-\( \kappa \)B
B) IRF-3
C) Apoptosis
D) Caspases
E) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Reoviruses have been used to study viral pathogenesis in mice.Using virus reassortants, which of the following has been shown to be a major determinant for infection of the nervous system in a mouse?
A) Activation of the host cell immune system.
B) Binding of the virus to different host cell receptors.
C) Activation of the interferon system in host cells.
D) The rate of viral mRNA synthesis in host cells.
E) The rate of genome synthesis in host cells.
Q3) There is evidence that the noncoding sequences on reovirus genome segments are highly conserved.
A)True
B)False
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Parvoviruses
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Q1) The absence of the minor capsid proteins in parvovirus virions does not reduce infectivity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The parvovirus genome must first be converted to double-stranded DNA before it can be transcribed into mRNAs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The problem with replicating the ends of linear DNA is due to which of the following?
A) That DNA polymerase does not require a pre-existing primer.
B) The removal of the primer from the 3' end of the new DNA strand.
C) The removal of the primer from the 5' end of the new DNA strand.
D) That the primer is composed of RNA rather than DNA.
E) That DNA polymerases can not synthesize DNA in the 5' to 3' direction.
Q4) When researchers first isolated the DNA genomes from the virions of the adeno-assocaited virus, a member of the dependovirus group of parvoviruses, they thought they were double-stranded.Explain why and how they were able to determine the correct genome structure.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following must occur in nonpermissive cells which become transformed by the polyomavirus SV40?
A) The viral origin of replication must become inactivated.
B) Cellular DNA becomes packaged into virions.
C) The early viral genes become integrated into the host chromosome.
D) The Rb protein becomes bound to E2F.
E) The large T antigen proteins become degraded.
Q2) Studying the circular genomes of polyomaviruses allowed scientists to study the different properties of supercoiled DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes a function of the large T antigen from SV40?
A) Binds to early promoters and inhibits transcription of early mRNAs.
B) Induces new transcription factors that leads to late gene transcription.
C) Binds to the viral origin of replication and separates the DNA strands.
D) Binds to the cellular p53 protein, which prevents apoptosis.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q4) Polyomaviruses are a major infectious cause of human cancers.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses
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Q1) The Pap test, named after George Papanicolaou, screens for the presence of cancer cells in the cervix.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following cellular events causes the papillomavirus to enter "vegetative replication"?
A) Induction of the apoptosis pathway.
B) Entry into the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) Terminal differentiation of keratinocytes.
D) Cell division of the host cell.
E) Transformation into a cancer cell.
Q3) The E6 proteins from highly oncogenic papillomaviruses have been shown to interact with cellular proteins, which control cell polarity and proliferation, that contain which of the following protein domains?
A) Zinc-finger domain
B) Activation domain
C) DNA binding domain
D) Homeobox domain
E) PDZ domain
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Adenoviruses
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Q1) The unique 5' cap and 3' poly(A)tail in the late transcripts of adenovirus allow the ribosome to begin translation at the correct start codon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following describes the function of the terminal protein in the replication of the genome of adenovirus?
A) It ligates the viral genome into a circular molecule.
B) It produces the RNA primer.
C) It binds single-stranded DNA and prevents reannealing.
D) It acts as the primer for DNA replication.
E) It acts as the DNA polymerase.
Q3) The E2 gene encodes all of the following proteins involved in replicating the adenovirus genome EXCEPT:
A) DNA polymerase
B) Preterminal protein.
C) Single-stranded DNA binding protein.
D) Ligase
E) All of these proteins are encoded by the E2 gene.
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Chapter 24: Herpesviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT used a host cell receptor for herpes simplex virus?
A) Proteoglycans.
B) Nectin 1
C) Integrin
D) Heparan sulfate.
E) Herpesvirus entry mediator
Q2) The a genes of herpes simplex are expressed at which time point during the viral replication cycle?
A) Immediate-early
B) Early
C) Delayed-early
D) Late
E) Delayed-early and late
Q3) The EBER RNAs encoded by the Epstein-Barr virus are synthesizes by RNA polymerase III.
A)True
B)False
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Baculoviruses
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Q1) The budded or occluded virions of baculoviruses are identical in makeup except for the number of genomes they contains.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Polyhedrin proteins from different baculoviruses have unique and different amino acid sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Treatment of cells infected with baculovirus with a-amanitin toxin will inhibit immediate-early or early but not late viral gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an unusual feature of baculovirus infections?
A) They produce two distinct types of virions.
B) The virion has two separate envelopes.
C) The virion contains a tegument layer.
D) They package more than one copy of the genome into a nucleocapsid.
E) They replicate their DNA genome in the cytoplasm.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Poxviruses
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Q1) Which of the following groups of organisms are the primary hosts for poxviruses?
A) Humans
B) Insects
C) Plants
D) Plants and insects.
E) Birds, mammals and insects.
Q2) If viral DNA replication is inhibited in poxviruses, which of the following genes will not be expressed?
A) Gene encoding the mRNA processing enzymes.
B) Genes encoding virion structural proteins.
C) Genes encoding DNA replication enzymes.
D) Gene encoding the RNA polymerase subunits.
E) Genes encoding the nucleotide metabolism enzymes.
Q3) Poxviruses express viral proteins that interfere with all of the following host-defense systems EXCEPT:
A) Interferon induced PKR kinase system.
B) Complement system.
C) Interleukin-1 cytokine activation.
D) Production of antibodies by B lymphocytes.
E) Tumor-necrosis factor activity.
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Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus
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Q1) One of the reasons why the phcyodnaviruses are so diverse is that their hosts are ancient and equally as diverse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Upon infection with a coccolithovirus, the microalgal host cell may switch from the usual diploid life stage to a haploid cell.Which of the following describes the advantage this has for the host cell?
A) The haploid cell can not replicate the viral genome, so no new viruses are produced.
B) The haploid cell produces a barrier that prevents virus particles from entering.
C) The haploid cell can swim away from virus infested waters.
D) The haploid cell can fuse with other haploid cells, producing virus resistant strains.
E) The haploid cell does not produce the host cell receptor for virus entry.
Q3) Discuss the evidence that mimiviruses may have transferred a gene from a bacterium to a eukaryote.Why would amoebae, the host cell of the mimivirus, be hypothesized to be sources of this type of horizontal gene transfer?
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Chapter 28: Retroviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes the phenomenon of promoter occlusion seen in retroviruses?
A) Transcription from the left-hand LTR inhibits transcription from the right-hand LTR.
B) Cellular RNA polymerase can only recognize the factors bound to the left-hand LTR.
C) The inability of the LTR to be transcribed because it has integrated into heterochromatin in the host cell genome.
D) Deletion of the left-hand LTR inhibits transcription from the right-hand LTR.
E) Transcription from both LTRs can occur simultaneously.
Q2) Unlike most other viruses, retroviruses package two identical copies of their genome in the virion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the different mechanisms used by acute transforming viruses and nontransforming retroviruses to cause tumor formation.Why does transforming by the acute transforming viruses take less time than the nontransforming retroviruses?
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Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency
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Q1) The Rev protein from HIV has which of the following functions?
A) It can enter the nucleus of the host cell via the nuclear pore.
B) It binds to a specific RNA sequence in the viral genome.
C) It enhances transport of unspliced viral RNAs to the cytoplasm.
D) It indirectly enhances the translation of the viral mRNAs.
E) Rev has all of the above functions.
Q2) All of the following affect the clinical outcome of an infection with HIV EXCEPT:
A) The level of viral RNA maintained in the person's blood.
B) The route of infection with the virus.
C) The nature of the immune response to the virus.
D) The diversity of epitopes recognized by the immune system.
E) The strain of HIV the person was infected with.
Q3) The loss of CD4 positive T cells as a result of infection with HIV eventually causes which of the following to happen in an HIV infected person?
A) Loss of immune competency and an increase in other infections.
B) An increase in the number of T cells leading to leukemia.
C) An over activation of the immune system and autoimmune diseases.
D) An increase in the production of cytokines, leading to a "cytokine storm".
E) B cell lymphomas as a direct result of infection of B cells with HIV.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses
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Q1) The early steps of hepatitis B virus replication in an infected cell are poorly understood.Which of the following explains why?
A) It is difficult to get hepatitis B virions to enter the host cell.
B) Hepatitis B virus kills the infected cells too quickly.
C) There are no cultured cells that can be productively infected with the virus.
D) There are no antibodies available that can bind to the envelope proteins.
E) There is not a good animal model that mimics the hepatitis B virus infection.
Q2) The copy of the hepatitis B virus genome that is inside of the virion has unusual structures as the 5' and 3' ends.Which of the following describes the genome ends?
A) The 5' end has a cap structure and the 3' end has a poly(A) tail.
B) The 5' end has a triphosphate and the 3' end has a hydroxyl group.
C) The 5' end has a fragment of RNA and the 3' end has a protein attached.
D) The 5' end has a protein attached and the 3' end has a fragment of RNA.
E) There are no ends, the genome is a covalently closed circle.
Q3) The unusual structure of the of the hepatitis B virus genome found in the virion is a result of the mechanism used to replicate the genome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus
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Q1) Which of the following is a major difference between the group A and the group B viroids?
A) Whether they affect the RNAi pathway or not.
B) Whether they infect animals or plants.
C) Whether they produce a protein or not.
D) Whether they have a self-cleaving RNA or not.
E) Whether they replicate in the endoplasmic reticulum or not.
Q2) Which of the following describes the function of the large delta antigen, produced by hepatitis delta virus?
A) It stimulates the binding of the host cell RNA polymerase for genome replication.
B) It carries out the cleavage of the genome multimers into monomers.
C) It is required to package the genome into the hepatitis B virions.
D) It forms capsids to package the hepatitis delta virus genome.
E) It ligates the ends of the RNA genomes together.
Q3) Viroid RNA molecules have a high degree of base pairing throughout the molecule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Prions
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Q1) The genetic forms of prion diseases result from mutations in the prion gene.What is the proposed mechanism for how these mutations cause the prion disease?
A) They cause the prion protein to become degraded in the cell.
B) They stabilize the structure of the PrP form of the protein.
C) They lead to overexpression of the prion protein in the brain.
D) They cause the prion protein to misfold more easily into the PrP form.
E) They cause the prion protein to interact with the microtubules in the neuron.
Q2) When it was discovered, what was surprising about the gene that codes for the prion infectious agent?
A) It is easily transmitted as naked nucleic acid.
B) It is coded for by RNA not DNA.
C) It is found in the genome of the host.
D) It has a high degree of secondary structure.
E) There is no gene that codes for the prion protein.
Q3) The prion hypothesis has been deemed too controversial to be eligible for a Nobel Prize.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the observations that link new variant CJD with BSE.
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Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus
Infection
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Q1) Which of the following molecules is the activator for ribonuclease L, which is part of the interferon induced antiviral pathway?
A) GTP
B) 2' 5'-oligo(A)
C) dsRNA
D) ssRNA
E) DNA with unmethylated CpG
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of viral gene product used to avoid the antiviral effects of the PKR enzymes?
A) Adenovirus VA I RNAs
B) Vaccinia SK-1 protein
C) Reovirus 3 capsid protein
D) HIV tat transactivator
E) These are all examples of anti-PKR proteins.
Q3) The interferon system induces the expression of two inactive enzymes.Name these two enzymes, explain how are they activated, and describe the advantage of producing them as inactive proteins?
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Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to Virus
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Q1) Which of the following statements about MHC class I molecules is FALSE?
A) They are located on the surface of all cells in the body.
B) They are used to identify the cells as belonging to the host (self-identification).
C) They are recognized by natural killer cells.
D) They present cytoplasmic peptides to cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
E) They are recognized by B lymphocytes.
Q2) Antigenic drift allows viruses to evade both humoral and cellular immune defenses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a peripheral or secondary lymphoid organ?
A) Tonsils
B) Thymus
C) Lymph node
D) Spleen
E) Peyer's patches
Q4) Explain how B and T lymphocytes produced a variety of cell surface receptors that can bind a wide variety of epitopes on antigens.How is this related to the clonal selection theory?
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines
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Q1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using aluminum salts as an adjuvant for vaccines?
A) They do not stimulate Th1 cells which are involved in the cellular immune response.
B) They do not stimulate Th2 cells which are involved in the humoral immune response.
C) They do not enhance the release of interferons.
D) They do not interact with the viral antigens properly.
E) They do not stimulate the cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
Q2) Which of the following was a major development in 1931 that helped in the production of antiviral vaccines?
A) The invention of the Petri dish.
B) The ability to grow viruses in chicken eggs.
C) The development of the agar based culture system.
D) The invention of the electron microscope.
E) The development of primary cell culture systems.
Q3) Explain the differences between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccines.Why have most wealthy countries switched from using the Sabin vaccine to using the older Salk vaccine?
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy
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Q1) What was the first successful antiviral drug developed and which virus does it inhibit?
A) AZT; HIV.
B) 3TC; hepatitis B virus.
C) Acyclovir; herpes simplex I.
D) Amantadine; influenza.
E) Nevirapine; HIV.
Q2) In addition to treating virus infections in patients, some antiviral drugs have been useful tools in the research lab to dissect the function of viral proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the definition of a therapeutic index when discussing an antiviral drug?
A) The amount of the drug that inhibits the virus replication.
B) The amount of the drug that is toxic to the host cell.
C) The amount of the drug that is inhibits viral replication divided by the amount of the drug that is toxic.
D) The dose that exerts 50% toxic effect divided by the does that exerts a 50% antiviral effect.
E) The amount of the drug that kills 50% of the hosts.
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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors
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Q1) Which of the following is a major disadvantage of using a vector based on adeno-associated virus (AAV)rather than an adenovirus or a retrovirus?
A) The DNA of the AAV vectors integrates into specific location in the genome.
B) The virus is toxic to human cells.
C) It infects cells of the immune system, causing a strong immune response.
D) The immune system reacts very strongly to the AAV proteins.
E) The small genome can only tolerate an insert of 4.5kb.
Q2) Describe two advantages that the third generation adenoviral vectors have over the original first-generation vectors.Explain the methods used to produce a recombinant adenovirus using these third generation vectors.
Q3) Adeno-associated virus can infect dividing as well as nondividing cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The plasmids that are used to express the retroviral proteins in the packaging cell lines contain the packaging signal (y).
A)True
B)False
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