Genetics and Society Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles of genetics and examines their profound implications for individuals and societies. Students will learn about the structure and function of genes, inheritance patterns, genetic disorders, and emerging technologies such as gene editing and genomic medicine. The course emphasizes the ethical, legal, and social issues surrounding genetics, including privacy concerns, genetic testing, gene therapy, and the impact of genetics on concepts of identity, diversity, and health equity. Through case studies and contemporary debates, students will analyze how advances in genetic science shape public policy, cultural perspectives, and everyday decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Genetics 8th Edition by William S. Klug
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23 Chapters
1118 Verified Questions
1118 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/10517
Sample Questions
Q1) Alternative forms of a gene are called ________. Answer: alleles
Q2) What is meant by the term genome?
Answer: The genome is all the DNA carried in an organism.
Q3) What is meant by the term genetic code?
Answer: The genetic code consists of a linear series of three adjacent nucleotides present in mRNA molecules.
Q4) Recombinant DNA technology is dependent on a particular class of enzymes,known as ________,that cuts DNA at specific nucleotide sequences.
Answer: restriction enzymes
Q5) Given that DNA is the genetic material in prokaryotes and eukaryotes,what other general structures (macromolecules)and substances made by the cell are associated with the expression of that genetic material?
Answer: RNA (messenger,ribosomal,transfer),ribosomes,enzymes,proteins
Q6) Name the bases in DNA and their pairing specificities.
Answer: adenine:thymine,guanine:cytosine
Q7) Complementation in a genetic sense refers to the polymerization of nucleotides in DNA.
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that the somatic cells of a male contain one pair of homologous chromosomes (e.g., A<sub>a</sub>A<sub>b</sub>) and an additional chromosome without a homolog (e.g., W). Which chromosomal combinations would be expected in the meiotic products (spermatids) of a single primary spermatocyte? (There may be more than one answer.)
Answer: A<sub>a</sub>W, A<sub>a</sub>W, A<sub>b</sub>, A<sub>b</sub> or A<sub>a</sub>, A<sub>a</sub>, A<sub>b</sub>W, A<sub>b</sub>W
Q2) Trisomy 21 or Down syndrome occurs when there is a normal diploid chromosomal complement of 46 chromosomes plus one (extra)chromosome 21.Such individuals therefore have 47 chromosomes.Assume that a mating occurs between a female with Down syndrome and a normal 46-chromosome male.What proportion of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome? Justify your answer.
Answer: One-half of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome because of 2 X 1 segregation of chromosome 21 at anaphase I.
Q3) What is meant by the term chiasma?
Answer: areas where chromatids intertwine during meiosis
Q4) In which stage of the cell cycle is G0 located?
Answer: G1
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's postulate of independent assortment is supported by a 1:1:1:1 testcross ratio.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The autosomal (not X-linked)gene for brachydactyly,short fingers,is dominant to normal finger length.Assume that a female with brachydactyly in the heterozygous condition is married to a man with normal fingers.What is the probability that
(a)their first child will have brachydactyly?
(b)their first two children will have brachydactyly?
(c)their first child will be a brachydactylous girl?
Answer: (a)1/2
(b)1/2 X 1/2 = 1/4
(c)1/2 X 1/2 = 1/4
Q3) Under what conditions does one expect a 1:1:1:1 ratio?
Answer: This occurs in a cross involving doubly heterozygous individuals crossed to fully recessive individuals.The genes involved assort independently.
Q4) What are two typical testcross ratios?
Answer: 1:1 and 1:1:1:1
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Modification of Mendelian Ratios
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation in a gene often results in a reduction of the product of that gene.The term for this type of mutation is ________.
A)codominance
B)incomplete dominance
C)gain of function
D)multiple allelism
E)loss of function or null (in the case of complete loss)
Q2) Assume that a dihybrid cross is made in which the genes' loci are autosomal,independently assorting,and incompletely dominant.How many different phenotypes are expected in the offspring?
Q3) Two forms of hemophilia are determined by genes on the X chromosome in humans.Assume that a phenotypically normal woman whose father had hemophilia is married to a normal man.What is the probability that their first son will have hemophilia?
Q4) A particular cross gives a modified dihybrid ratio of 9:7.What phenotypic ratio would you expect in a testcross of the fully heterozygous F<sub>1</sub> crossed with the fully recessive type? Diagram the testcross using A,a,B,b as symbol sets.
Q5) Name three modes of inheritance that are influenced by the sex of individuals.
Q6) Provide an example of sex-influenced inheritance.
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Chapter 5: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normally in humans,all the sons of a female homozygous for a sex-linked recessive gene will inherit that trait.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe an experiment in which transgenic mice were used to identify the male-determining region of the Y chromosome.
Q3) An individual with Turner syndrome has no Barr bodies. A)True B)False
Q4) Assume that a man who carries an X-linked gene has children.Assuming normal meiosis and random combination of gametes,the man would pass this gene to
A)half of his daughters
B)all of his daughters
C)all of his sons
D)half of his sons
E)all of his children
Q5) A cross is made between a female calico cat and a male cat having the gene for black fur on his X chromosome.What fraction of the offspring would one expect to be calico?
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Chapter 6: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement
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Sample Questions
Q1) An autotriploid may arise when three sperm cells are involved in fertilization of a single egg.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe Bar mutations in Drosophila melanogaster.
Q3) Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome number of 14.There would be 28 chromosomes in a tetraploid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Familial Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation between chromosomes 1 and 14.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A position effect occurs when a gene's expression is altered by virtue of a change in its position.One might expect position effects to occur with inversions and translocations.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) Colchicine is an alkaloid derived from plants.What is its effect on chromosome behavior?
Chapter 7: Linkage and Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that the offspring occur in the following numbers: 106 AaBb,48 Aabb,52 aaBb,94 aabb.These results are consistent with ________.
A)sex-linked inheritance with 30% crossing over B)linkage with 50% crossing over
C)linkage with approximately 33 map units between the two gene loci
D)independent assortment
E)100% recombination
Q2) Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that all the offspring are either AaBb or aabb.These results are consistent with ________.
A)complete linkage
B)alternation of generations
C)codominance
D)incomplete dominance
E)hemizygosity
Q3) Assume that two genes are 80 map units apart on chromosome II of Drosophila and that a cross is made between a doubly heterozygous female and a homozygous recessive male.What percent recombination would be expected in the offspring of this type of cross?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,what two methods are used to grow bacteria in the laboratory?
Q2) Bacteria that are in a particular physiological state to become transformed are called ________.
Q3) The clearing made by bacteriophages in a "lawn" of bacteria on an agar plate is called a ________.
A)clear zone
B)lysogenic zone
C)prophage
D)plaque
E)host range
Q4) A plaque is a substance that causes mutation in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how different strains of E.Coli can reveal different linkage arrangements of genes in Hfr crosses.
Q6) Assume that the gene trpA in an auxotrophic strain of E.Coli is located at 27 minutes,whereas the gene pyrE is located at 81 minutes.
Page 10
Q7) Bacteriophages that cannot undergo lysogeny but can infect bacteria are called
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Chapter 9: DNA structure and Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was the Avery et al.'s (1944)contribution to the understanding of molecular biology?
Q2) Experiments conducted in the 1920s by Frederick Griffith involving the bacterium Diplococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that a substance from one bacterial strain could genetically transform other bacterial strains.What was the name of the substance capable of such transformation,and who finally determined its identity?
Q3) What is the name of the precursor molecule used in nucleic acid synthesis?
Q4) G and C are present in both DNA and RNA.
A)True B)False
Q5) Assume that the molar percentage of thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 20.What are the percentages of the four bases (G,C,T,A)? If the DNA is single-stranded,would you change your answer?
Q6) If the GC content of a DNA molecule is 60%,what are the molar percentages of the four bases (G,C,T,A)?
Q7) Name the pyrimidines and the purines in DNA.
Q8) All other factors being equal,the renaturation of the three classes of complementary nucleic acid sequences occurs in what order,from fastest to slowest?
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Chapter 10: DNA Replication and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) A characteristic of aging cells is that their telomeres become shorter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which protein is responsible for the initial step in unwinding the DNA helix during replication of the bacterial chromosome?
Q3) What is the name of the replication unit in prokaryotes,and how does it differ in eukaryotes?
Q4) What three possible models were suggested to originally describe the nature of DNA replication?
Q5) Meselson and Stahl determined that DNA replication in E.coli is semiconservative.What additive did they initially supply to the medium in order to distinguish "new" from "old" DNA?
Q6) Briefly describe what is meant by the term autoradiography and identify a classic experiment that used autoradiography to determine the replicative nature of DNA in eukaryotes.
Q7) Given that the origin of replication is fixed in E.coli,what signals the location of the origin?
Q8) Describe a somewhat extraordinary finding related to the Tetrahymena telomerase enzyme.
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Chapter 11: Chromosome Structure and DNA Sequence
Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the formation of nucleosomes,one histone class,H1,is not directly involved,yet it does associate with DNA to form higher-level chromosomal structures.Where does this histone (H1)associate?
Q2) What similarities do bacterial chromosomes have with eukaryotic chromosomes?
Q3) In instances in the eukaryotic genome,DNA sequences represent evolutionary vestiges of duplicated copies of genes.What are such regions called and what are their characteristics?
Q4) Although mutations have been observed in many different genes,they have not been isolated in histones.Why does this seem reasonable? If one wanted to produce antibodies to histones,would it be an easy task? Explain your answer.
Q5) In contrast with euchromatin,heterochromatin contains more genes and is earlier replicating.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly state what is meant by repetitive DNA.
Q7) Viral genomes are always linear,double-stranded DNA.
A)True B)False
Q8) Describe the basic structure of a nucleosome.What is the role of histone H1? Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 12: The Genetic Code and Transcription
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Sample Questions
Q1) In eukaryotes,which three factors appear to encourage the specific association of RNA polymerase(s)to a specific region of DNA?
Q2) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is a primary transcript in eukaryotes that is processed prior to involvement in translation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "Breaking the genetic code" has been referred to as one of the most significant scientific achievements in modern times.Describe (in outline or brief statement form)the procedures used to break the code.
Q4) An intron is a section of an RNA that gets spliced out.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Messenger RNA is usually polycistronic in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A 3' poly-A tail and a 5'-cap are common components of prokaryotic RNAs.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the function of N-formylmethionine in prokaryotes.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Translation and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The one-gene:one-enzyme hypothesis emerged from work on which two organisms?
A)E.coli and yeast
B)Drosophila and humans
C)Neurospora and Drosophila
D)E.coli and humans
E)All of the answers listed are correct.
Q2) Below is a set of experimental results relating the growth (+)of Neurospora on several media (MM = minimal medium).Based on the information provided,present the biochemical pathway and the locations of the metabolic blocks.
\(\text { Strain }\) \( \quad\)\( \quad\)\( \quad\)\( \quad\)\( \quad\) \(\text { Medium }\)
\(\begin{array}{ccc}
&\mathbf{M M} & \mathbf{M M}+\mathbf{A} & \mathbf{M M}+\mathbf{B} \\
\hline s 111 &- & + & + \\
t 60 &+ & + & + \\
s 211&- & - & + \end{array}\)
Q3) Describe the basic structure of normal adult hemoglobin and the abnormality observed in sickle-cell hemoglobin.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Gene Mutation,DNA Repair,and Transposition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A class of mutations that results in multiple contiguous amino acid changes in proteins is likely to be which of the following?
A)base analog
B)transversion
C)transition
D)frameshift
E)recombinant
Q2) Ultraviolet light causes pyrimidine dimers to form in DNA.Some individuals are genetically incapable of repairing some dimers at "normal" rates.Such individuals are likely to suffer from ________.
A)xeroderma pigmentosum
B)SCID
C)phenylketonuria
D)muscular dystrophy
E)Huntington disease
Q3) Assume that a new mutation occurs in the germ line of an individual.What finding would suggest that the new mutation is dominant rather than recessive?
Q4) Which human condition is caused by unrepaired UV-induced lesions?
Q5) List five general categories of mutation.
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Chapter 15: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding the lactose utilization system in E.coli,a gratuitous inducer is a molecule that is chemically analogous to lactose and induces the operon,but it is not a substrate for the enzymes of the lac operon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What experimental results would indicate that the mutation lacI<sup>s</sup> is dominant to lacI<sup>+</sup>?
Q3) What is the location of an enhancer in relation to the gene it affects?
Q4) In the lac operon,the product of structural gene lacZ is capable of ________.
A)nonautonomous replication
B)forming lactose from two glucose molecules
C)replacing hexokinase in the early steps of glycolysis
D)splitting the \(\beta\)-linkage of lactose
E)forming ATP from pyruvate
Q5) What is alternative splicing?
Q6) What type of genetic control,positive or negative,typically results when transcription factors interact with DNA?
Q7) What symbols are used to describe constitutive mutations at specific regions of the lac regulatory system?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: The Genetics of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are several checkpoints in the mitotic cell cycle.All occur in the S phase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which protein combines with cyclins to exert local control of the cell cycle?
A)cyclin-dependent kinase
B)phosphatase
C)ATPase
D)integrase
E)hexokinase
Q3) Describe two classes of proteins known to be involved in the regulation of the cell cycle.
Q4) The retinoblastoma protein (pRB),like p53,serves as a(n)________ in regulating the cell cycle.
A)tumor suppressor
B)tumor enhancer
C)up regulator
D)oncogene
E)pseudooncogene
Q5) Describe the general relationship that may exist between mutations and cancer.
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Chapter 17: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name at least two typical characteristics of a DNA cloning plasmid.
Q2) Restriction endonucleases typically recognize palindromic DNA sequences and often generate "sticky ends" or single-stranded DNA overhangs at cut sites.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What might be a reasonable function of restriction endonucleases in a bacterium,distinct from their use by molecular biologists?
Q4) Assume that a researcher conducted a cloning experiment using a typical plasmid,transformed an appropriate host bacterial strain,and plated the bacteria on an appropriate X-gal medium.Blue and white colonies appeared.Which of the two types of colonies,blue or white,would more likely contain the recombinant plasmid? Why?
Q5) Some restriction enzymes cleave DNA in such a manner as to produce blunt ends.Ligation of blunt end fragments is most often enhanced by the use of the enzyme terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase.Speculate on the function of deoxynucleotidyl transferase in terms of using blunt end fragments in cloning.
Q6) List,in order,the steps usually followed in producing recombinant DNA molecules in a plasmid vector.
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Chapter 18: Genomics,Bioinformatics,and Proteomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human genome contains approximately 20,000 protein-coding genes,yet it has the capacity to produce several hundred thousand gene products.What can account for the vast difference in gene number and product number?
A)Alternative splicing occurs.
B)There are more introns than exons.
C)There are more exons than introns.
D)Much of the DNA is in the form of trinucleotide repeats,thus allowing multiple start sites for different genes.
E)Every gene can be read in both directions,and each gene can have inversions and translocations.
Q2) What is meant by the term pseudogene?
Q3) What is one major limitation of two-dimensional gel electrophoresis (2DGE)?
A)It is extremely costly to execute in a typical molecular biology laboratory.
B)When products are separated,they tend to leach out of the gel matrix.
C)Only the most abundant products are detected.
D)2DGE can be run only on nucleic acids.
E)2DGE is useful only in separating eukaryotic gene products.
Q4) What appears to be the range of the number of protein-coding genes per genome in eukaryotes?
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Chapter 19: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glyphosate (a herbicide)inhibits EPSP,a chloroplast enzyme involved in the synthesis of several amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Once DNA is separated on a gel,it is often desirable to gain some idea of its informational content.How might this be done?
Q3) A term often used to describe an organism that is a genetic mosaic,resulting from the introduction of DNA from another organism,is ________.
Q4) What is an allele-specific oligonucleotide?
Q5) A restriction fragment is generated by the action of a restriction enzyme (endonuclease).
A)True
B)False
Q6) One of the problems associated with the generation of transgenic plants is that the ecological parameters of many plants are not completely understood.
A)True
B)False
Q7) How is a microarray used to scan for mutations in a genome?
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Chapter 20: Developmental Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the relationship between the maternal-effect gene bicoid and the zygotic gene hunchback.
Q2) Genetic involvement in development appears to be achieved,at least in part,by variable gene activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Caenorhabditis elegans is extremely useful as an experimental organism because it has relatively few cells,and,for the most part,each embryonic cell's fate is developmentally fixed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Do Hox gene clusters exist in humans? If so,how many are known to exist?
Q5) Define determination and differentiation.
Q6) Provide a brief description of the variable gene activity hypothesis as it relates to development.What information is often provided in support of this hypothesis?
Q7) In Drosophila,what is the order of function of the segmentation genes?
Q8) Explain the differences between differentiation and determination.Provide examples of each process and indicate how each is involved in development.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) What is the name of the process of selecting a specific group of organisms from an initially heterogeneous population for future breeding purposes?
Q2) In the early part of the twentieth century,Nilsson-Ehle and others described experiments showing that multiple loci may be involved in the inheritance of certain traits.Such patterns are often called ________.
Q3) Heritability is a measure of the degree to which the phenotypic variation of a given trait is due to genetic factors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Provide a formal equation for h² (narrow-sense heritability).
Q5) Concordance refers to the frequency with which members of a twin pair express a different trait.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Interpret the meaning of an H² (broad-sense heritability)value that approaches 0.0.
Q7) Provide a brief definition of the terms additive variance,dominance variance,and interactive variance.
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Chapter 22: Population and Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) Assume that a trait is caused by the homozygous state of a gene that is recessive and autosomal.Nine percent of the individuals in a given population express the phenotype caused by this gene.What percentage of the individuals would be heterozygous for the gene? Assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Q2) Which would change allele frequencies more quickly: selection against a dominant allele or selection against a recessive allele?
Q3) In a population of 10,000 individuals,in which 3600 are MM,1600 are NN,and 4800 are MN,what are the frequencies of the M alleles and the N alleles?
Q4) For a given locus,in a population with two alternative alleles,the allele frequencies p + q = 1.0.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Inbreeding by itself can change gene frequencies.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List and briefly describe three factors that contribute to the phenomenon of natural selection.
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Chapter 23: Conservation Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic variation represented by plants and animals is known as ________.
A)biodiversity
B)conservation
C)evolutionary heterosis
D)contract digression
E)None of the answers listed is correct.
Q2) The number of deleterious alleles present in the gene pool of a population is referred to as the ________.
Q3) What are allozymes?
A)multiple versions of a single enzyme in a species
B)multiple genes in a chromosome
C)variations that are lethal in homozygotes
D)variations that give a selective advantage in the heterozygous state
E)multiple forms of mitochondrial DNA
Q4) Genetic drift usually leads to a loss of genetic variation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is meant by the effective population size (N<sub>e</sub>)?
Q6) When the number of breeding individuals is small,there is a high likelihood of genetic drift.One likely result is ________.
Page 26
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