Genetics and Evolution Final Exam - 742 Verified Questions

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Genetics and Evolution Final Exam

Course Introduction

This course explores the fundamental principles of genetics and how they underpin evolutionary processes. Students will examine the structure and function of genes, the mechanisms of inheritance, and the role of genetic variation in populations over time. The course delves into molecular genetics, Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance patterns, genetic mutations, and their consequences for individuals and populations. Through the lens of evolutionary biology, students will study natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, and speciation, gaining insight into how genetic changes drive the diversity and adaptation of living organisms. The course integrates contemporary research and applications, fostering an understanding of how genetics and evolution shape the biological world.

Recommended Textbook

Evolution 1st Edition by Carl T. Bergstrom

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20 Chapters

742 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: An Overview of Evolutionary Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Given the fact that humans are the ones producing and distributing pesticides,why do we call the development of pesticide resistance natural selection rather than artificial selection?

Answer: Answers will vary but should include that the distinction refers not to whether humans are involved,but to whether they deliberately choose which organisms will reproduce.

Q2) Manipulative experiments

A)allow scientists to directly assess how changes in one component of a system influence the other components.

B)allow scientists to examine not only correlations among data, but also causality.

C)ideally alter only one variable at a time.

D)All of the above

Answer: D

Q3) Charles Darwin was the first person to suggest that

A)the present forms of all existing species are the result of natural selection.

B)species have changed over long periods of time.

C)traits acquired during a life time were passed on to subsequent generations.

D)A and B

Answer: A

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Early Evolutionary Ideas and Darwins Insight

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Sample Questions

Q1) Unlike those before him,Aristotle

A)formulated hypotheses without testing them.

B)recognized the significance of testing one's hypotheses.

C)was the first to develop a philosophy of a natural world driven by physical laws.

D)B and C

E)All of the above

Answer: B

Q2) After Aristotle,one advance in scientific methodology came through the use of logic.This allowed thinkers to

A)formulate and test hypotheses based on evidence.

B)recognize the significance of testing one's hypotheses.

C)move carefully from facts to general principles.

D)B and C

E)All of the above

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: Natural Selection

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Sample Questions

Q1) Natural selection sorts on

A)phenotypic, not genotypic, differences in a population.

B)genotypic, not phenotypic, differences in a population.

C)both genotypic and phenotypic differences in a population.

D)None of the above

Answer: A

Q2) Genes affect traits

A)in only one environment

B)by producing a norm of reaction.

C)by coding for them.

D)All of the above

Answer: B

Q3) Natural selection is a process by which

A)the characteristics of individuals change over time.

B)the characteristics of populations change over time.

C)Both of the above

D)None of the above

Answer: B

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5

Chapter 4: Phylogeny and Evolutionary History

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Sample Questions

Q1) Consider a set of populations in which,over evolutionary time,the coat color of one or more populations of organisms changes from light to dark.Using this example of light and dark coat coloration,describe what might occur to produce each of the following evolutionary conditions:

A.A derived trait

B.A synapomorphy

C.A homoplasy

D.A symplesiomorphy

Q2) German biologist Willi Hennig (1913-1976)

A)established the modern approach to classification.

B)documented evolutionary history in his book Phylogenetic Systematics.

C)noted that phylogenetic trees can help us to classify organisms according to their evolutionary history.

D)All of the above

Q3) In what ways do the processes of reconstructing phylogenetic trees and mapping evolutionary events onto trees generate hypotheses?

Q4) What are the differences between rooted and unrooted phylogenetic trees?

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Chapter 5: Inferring Phylogeny

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements regarding rooted trees is (are)true?

A)We can form a rooted tree from an unrooted tree simply by picking a branch around which to root the tree.

B)Both rooted and unrooted trees inform us about the polarity of character change.

C)Knowing the root of a tree, along with information about species ranges, can tell us about the phylogeography of a group of species.

D)A and C

E)B and C

Q2) The basic conceptual approach to phylogenetic tree building involves

A)the process of collecting information about character states.

B)the process of selecting taxa for inclusion in the tree.

C)the logic that species with many character states in common are more closely related than those without.

D)All of the above

E)None of the above

Q3) Why is phylogenetic inference a difficult and computationally intensive problem? What solution do evolutionary biologists use to address this problem?

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Chapter 6: Transmission Genetics and the Sources of

Genetic Variation

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many copies of each chromosome will a tetraploid organism have?

A)1

B)2

C)4

D)8

E)10

Q2) How many different amino acids can be used in the construction of proteins?

Q3) By what process does the cell construct proteins from RNA sequences?

A)Transcription

B)Hydrogen bonds

C)Splicing

D)Translation

E)Crossing-over

Q4) _________ are DNA triplets that specify a protein's amino acid sequence.

Q5) DNA

A)is a polymer composed primarily of repeating five carbon sugars.

B)contains four types of nitrogenous bases.

C)consists of two strands connected by hydrogen bonds.

D)A and C

E)All of the above

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Chapter 7: The Genetics of Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Disassortative mating may be beneficial because

A)it will likely reduce the probability of a deleterious recessive being expressed.

B)it will maximize the genetic diversity in the offspring.

C)it makes it easier to find a mate.

D)A and B

E)All of the above

Q2) Mating preferences drive assortative mating

A)all of the time.

B)none of the time.

C)some of the time.

D)every other time.

E)in selfing plants.

Q3) Consider a sample of 100 individuals sampled from a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium that are genotyped at a single locus.Of these 100 individuals,25 individuals are A A homozygotes,45 are A A heterozygotes,and 30 are A A homozygotes.List the observed and expected genotypic frequencies of this locus in this sample.

Q4) In the island model of migration,under what condition(s)will the allele frequencies in an island population be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Evolution in Finite Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Consider a collection of 50 distinct alleles,each at equal frequency in a population.The time before the first coalescent event will be shortest if

A)Ne = 100

B)Ne = 100,000,000

C)Ne = 100,000

D)Ne = 1,000,000,000.

Q2) What are the observed and expected heterozygosities in a population that has three genotypes with the following occurrences: f(A A )= 100,f(A A )= 25,f(A A )= 100.

Q3) How are the neutral theory of molecular evolution and the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium similar?

Q4) The variable F is

A)the probability of two alleles being identical by descent.

B)a measurement used to quantify the loss of variation due to drift over time.

C)a measure of the degree of inbreeding.

D)A and B

E)All of the above

Q5) Explain why the probability of fixation of a new beneficial allele is independent of population size in Haldane's model of selection and drift.

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Chapter 9: Evolution at Multiple Loci

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Sample Questions

Q1) Understanding phenotype-genotype relationships is difficult because of A)pleiotropy.

B)dominance.

C)epistasis.

D)A and C

E)All of the above

Q2) Consider a population with two loci (A,B),each with two alleles (A,a; B,b).What are the haplotype frequencies in this population if the allele frequencies are A = 0.5,a = 0.5,B = 0.7,b = 0.3?

A)AB = 0.35, Ab = 0.15, aB = 0.35, ab = 0.15

B)AB = 0.45, Ab = 0.05, aB = 0.25, ab = 0.25

C)AB = 0.4, Ab = 0.1, aB = 0.3, ab = 0.2

D)AB = 0.125, Ab = 0.25, aB = 0.25, ab = 0.125

E)Cannot be determined based on the information provided

Q3) Which of the following can generate linkage disequilibrium?

A)Drift

B)Selection

C)Mutation

D)Migration

E)All of the above

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Chapter 10: Genome Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Under the neutral model,allele frequency distributions are driven by A)the effective population size.

B)the mutation rate.

C)selection.

D)A and B

E)None of the above

Q2) When comparing recombination rates between a dog,with a genome size of 2410 Mb,and a mustard weed,with a genome size of 100 Mb,which would you expect to have a larger recombination rate per kilobase? Explain your answer.

Q3) Transposons can be deleterious to a host genome because they can

A)disrupt a protein coding sequence.

B)disrupt regulatory elements.

C)generate mutations.

D)cause recombination errors.

E)All of the above

Q4) Explain how horizontal gene transfer is different than sexual reproduction.

Q5) Why are transposons considered selfish genetic elements?

Q6) Describe a haplotype block.

Q7) What are transcription factors and how do they address the G-value paradox?

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Chapter 11: The Origin and Evolution of Early Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is DNA favored over RNA as genetic material?

A)DNA is more stable and thus is a more efficient transmission system.

B)DNA can self-replicate.

C)DNA makes chromosomes.

D)DNA mutates more readily, with a weaker repair machinery.

E)DNA has a more limited information storage capacity.

Q2) Molecular mutualism is

A)an interaction of molecules that disrupts hypercycles.

B)an interaction of two species to the benefit of both.

C)replication of RNA by another enzyme.

D)an interaction of molecules that increases the replication of each other.

Q3) What is the evolutionary relationship between mutation rates and DNA proofreading and repair?

Q4) Which of the following is not a hypothesis for the origin of viruses?

A)Viruses are escaped selfish genetic elements.

B)Viruses are the remnants of parasitic cellular organisms, selected for reduced size.

C)Viruses are relics of the RNA world.

D)Viruses are escaped genes from modern genetic engineering experiments.

Q5) What does the abbreviation LUCA stand for and what is it?

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Chapter 12: Major Transitions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a reason that volvocine algae are ideal for studying the evolution of individuality?

A)They transitioned to multicellularity relatively recently.

B)Within the group, there are multiple, separate transitions to germ and soma lines.

C)The group exhibits extensive variation in their degree of multicellularity.

D)They readily form aggregate slugs.

Q2) Why does genetic imprinting inhibit parthenogenesis?

Q3) Draw a graph that illustrates the relationship between foraging ability and group size where group living is beneficial.On the same graph,draw a line of the relationship if group living was not beneficial.

Q4) Which of the following is not an organelle that is the result of endosymbiosis?

A)Mitochondrion

B)Apicoplast

C)Chloroplast

D)Endoplasmic reticulum

Q5) Consider a slime mold slug and a colony of Volvox carteri,both of which contain both soma and germ cells.Is a slug or a volvox colony an individual? Explain.

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Evolution and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Von Baer proposed that the most conserved stages of development among vertebrates are the

A)earliest stages.

B)latest stages.

C)earliest and latest stages.

D)middle stages.

Q2) A totipotent cell

A)is fixed into a single developmental pathway.

B)has homeotic transformation.

C)can differentiate into any adult cell.

D)will become a stem cell.

Q3) Hox genes encode

A)proteins involved in RNA translocation.

B)ribosomal RNAs.

C)Drosophila genes.

D)transcription factors.

Q4) What is meant by the colinearity of Hox genes?

Q5) What evidence suggests that MADS-box genes are older than flowers?

Q6) How does facultative neoteny in other species support the paedomorph advantage hypothesis for axolotls?

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Chapter 14: Species and Speciation

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Sample Questions

Q1) How can reproductive isolation in plants be mediated through pollinators?

Q2) A cline is a(n)

A)temporal gradient in the frequency of genotypes and phenotypes.

B)spatial gradient in the frequency of genotypes and phenotypes.

C)area of resource competition.

D)area of assortative mating.

Q3) What is the advantage of using DNA sequences from many genes to reconstruct the evolutionary history of humans?

Q4) Allopatric speciation requires

A)complete geographic isolation.

B)overlapping distributions.

C)abutting distributions.

D)differences in phenology.

Q5) Host specificity of Rhagoletis pomonella reduces gene flow between the apple and hawthorn races by 4% to 6% in each generation.This is an example of

A)allopatric speciation.

B)assortative mating.

C)secondary contact.

D)resource competition.

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Chapter 15: Extinction and Evolutionary Trends

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a sink population?

A)A large panmictic population comprising all members of a species

B)A metapopulation

C)A local population that would likely decline to extinction without immigration

D)A local population in which emigration rate exceeds immigration rate

E)A and B

Q2) What effect of mass extinctions is described by the expression "dead clade walking"?

Q3) Which of the following is the greatest known mass extinction to date?

A)K-T mass extinction

B)Permian mass extinction

C)Triassic mass extinction

D)Devonian mass extinction

Q4) The probability of extinction via predation is particularly high when

A)predator and prey have coevolved over long periods of time.

B)prey populations are stressed by additional environmental factors.

C)predators are a new arrival to the prey's habitat.

D)the prey species is long lived and has a low birthrate.

E)B, C, and D

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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Sex

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Sample Questions

Q1) You catalog all obligate asexual species within a family of insects and notice that asexual species are rare,and they are all members of genera that consist predominantly of sexual species.You conclude that the asexual species tend to be short lived.Why?

Q2) Are there any costs when asexual organisms reproduce automictically as opposed to apomictically?

A)Yes, recombination may disrupt coadapted gene complexes.

B)Yes, recombination is the cause of the twofold cost of sex.

C)No, both are forms of asexual reproduction.

D)No, recombination will produce better adapted individuals.

E)C and D

Q3) Do each of the following forms of reproduction represent asexual or sexual reproduction?

A.Amphimixis

B.Automixis

C.Apomixis

Q4) What are the two immediate benefits to sexual reproduction in unpredictable environments,according to Kondrashov?

Q5) Does Muller's ratchet apply to both apomictic and automictic asexual populations?

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Chapter 17: Sexual Selection

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Sample Questions

Q1) A lek is a

A)permanent territory in songbirds.

B)mating location.

C)temporary arena in which males display to females.

D)group of sneaker males.

E)A and B

Q2) Why is there a correlation between testis size and sperm competition in beetles?

Q3) Part of the courting behavior of male jumping spiders consists of drumming the ground with their legs.Studies have shown that leg drumming decreases the longevity of the spiders.Why might male leg drumming have evolved in jumping spiders?

Q4) Which of the following factors should make females the choosier sex?

A)Eggs are expensive and rare compared to sperm.

B)Females tend to invest more time and energy in gestation time and/or brood care.

C)Female quality never plays a role in male mating decisions.

D)Males and females show about the same variation in quality.

E)A and B

Q5) Name one direct benefit that females may receive from a particular mate choice.

Q6) What are the four major models of the evolution of female mate preferences?

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Chapter 18: The Evolution of Sociality

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Sample Questions

Q1) Calculate the coefficient of relatedness for the following relationships in a haplodiploid hymenopteran species:

A)Sister to full sisters

B)Sister to brother

C)Brother to sister

Q2) Name the three familial conflicts.

Q3) An evolutionarily stable strategy (ESS)is a

A)strategy that, if adopted by all members of the population, cannot be invaded by a mutant strategy.

B)strategy that, if adopted by part of a population, cannot be invaded by a mutant strategy.

C)mutant strategy that cannot invade a population.

D)strategy that, if adopted by all members of the population, can be invaded by a mutant strategy.

Q4) Which of the following equations illustrates the correct relationship?

A)Indirect fitness + Direct fitness = Inclusive fitness

B)Inclusive fitness + Direct fitness = Indirect fitness

C)Indirect fitness + Inclusive fitness = Direct fitness

D)Direct fitness - Inclusive fitness = Direct fitness

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Chapter 19: Coevolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why do woodland star flowers likely abort flower heads with Greya moth eggs in geographic locations where other nonflower-feeding pollinators are present?

A)Greya moths do not pollinate woodland stars in locations with multiple pollinators.

B)Pollination by Greya is not essential for the reproduction of these woodland stars.

C)Pollen becomes limited, and woodland stars can no longer afford to lose pollen to Greya larvae.

D)B and C

Q2) You want to study an aspect of the mosaic theory of coevolution,and you are looking for a suitable study system.Which of the following is the most important condition that your study system needs to fulfill?

A)It needs to involve an insect-plant interaction.

B)It needs to be a case of coevolution.

C)The system must be organized as a true metapopulation.

D)Coevolution is largely independent of differences in subpopulations.

Q3) Why does cultural transmission have the potential to be faster than genetic transmission? Limit your answer to one sentence.

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Chapter 20: Evolution and Medicine

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are strategies with which vertebrate hosts counteract the asymmetries between most pathogens and their hosts?

A)Somatic mutation and lateral gene transfer between immune system cells

B)Somatic recombination and restriction endonucleases

C)Somatic mutation and recombination

D)Rapid population growth of host organisms and clonal expansion

Q2) Individuals of a certain tree species experience a markedly higher mortality rate at age 200 and beyond.Name two other changes you would expect in 200-year-old trees if this increase in mortality was accompanied by senescence.

Q3) Many wild mushrooms make delicious food,but some are highly toxic and can result in a fatal meal.Apply the principle of asymmetric harm to mushroom identification,and recommend a strategy for mushroom identifiers.

Q4) Explain how ectothermic animals can produce a fever response.Limit your answer to one sentence.

Q5) What two main factors are responsible for the asymmetry in the coevolutionary arms race between microbial pathogens and their multicellular hosts?

Q6) Name three methods that pathogens use to subvert their host's immune system.

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