Genetic Engineering
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Genetic Engineering is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, tools, and techniques involved in the manipulation of genetic material in living organisms. The course covers foundational topics such as recombinant DNA technology, gene cloning, gene editing methods like CRISPR-Cas9, and the use of vectors in gene transfer. Students will examine applications of genetic engineering in agriculture, medicine, and industry, as well as ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic modifications. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students will gain practical skills and a thorough understanding of how genetic engineering is transforming modern biology and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics Analysis and Principles 5th Edition by Robert Brooker
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The class of macromolecules that are primarily responsible for catabolic and anabolic activities in a cell are the.
A) nucleic acids
B) proteins
C) lipids
D) carbohydrates
Answer: B
Q2) The building blocks of DNA are the _____________.
A) amino acids
B) carbohydrates
C) enzymes
D) nucleotides
E) lipids
Answer: D
Q3) Both genes and the _______ influence the traits of an organism.
A)genome
B)environment
C)population
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a dihybrid cross using Mendelian inheritance, if both parents are heterozygous for both traits, what will be the phenotypic ratio of their offspring?
A)3:1
B)1:2:1
C)1:1
D)9:3:3:1
Answer: D
Q2) The _______ refers to the genetic composition of an individual.
A)character
B)genotype
C)phenotype
D)dominant trait
E)recessive trait
Answer: B
Q3) The results that demonstrated that traits were not blended were the ones where
A)The F2 plants were selfed
B)The true-breeding parents were crossed
C)The F1 generation plants were selfed
D)None of these experiments refuted the blending hypothesis
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Chromosome Transmission During Cell Division and
Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vincristine is a cancer chemotherapy drug. It binds to tubulin dimers, inhibiting assembly of microtubules. Where do you predict that vincristine stops the cell cycle?
A) S phase
B) Prophase
C) Metaphase
D) Telophase
Answer: C
Q2) You are performing a fruit fly cross similar to those that Morgan performed. Unfortunately, you forgot to write down the parents of your cross. You count the progeny, and find you have 40 red-eyed males, 80 red-eyed females, and 40 white-eyed males. Assuming that all genotypes from this cross should have equal survival rates, what are the genotypes of the parent flies?
A) X<sup>w</sup>Y and X<sup>w+</sup>X<sup>w+</sup>
B) X<sup>w</sup>Y and X<sup>w+</sup>X<sup>w</sup>
C) X<sup>w+</sup>Y and X<sup>w+</sup>X<sup>w</sup>
D) X<sup>w+</sup>Y and X<sup>w</sup>X<sup>w</sup>
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes that are not required for survival, but are likely to be beneficial to the organism, are called _________.
A)essential genes
B)lethal alleles
C)semilethal alleles
D)nonessential genes
E) conditional lethal alleles
Q2) At the molecular level, type A and type B blood differ in which of the following characteristics?
A)The antigens present on the surface of the red blood cells
B)The type of sugar found in each type
C)The antibodies that are generated against the other type of blood
D)All of the answers are correct
Q3) The multiple effects of a single gene on the phenotype of an organism is called _______.
A)epistasis
B)penetrance
C)expressivity
D)overdominance
E) pleiotropy
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Chapter 5: Non-Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is thought to be the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A)Cyanobacteria for mitochondria, purple bacteria for chloroplasts
B)Purple bacteria for mitochondria, fungi for chloroplasts
C)Purple bacteria for mitochondria, cyanobacteria for chloroplasts
D)Algae for mitochondria, cyanobacteria for chloroplasts
Q2) What is the molecular mechanism for imprinting a gene?
A)Acetylation
B)Nitration
C)Phosphorylation
D)Methylation
Q3) Which of the following categories of genes is typically NOT encoded in cpDNA?
A) Genes encoding rRNA
B) Genes encoding tRNA
C) Genes for photosynthetic pathway enzymes
D) Genes encoding nuclear proteins
Q4) Most imprinted genes are silenced. What is one exception to this rule?
A)H19
B)Igf2
C)UBE3A
D)SNRPN
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Map distances above 50 are considered unreliable due to the occurrence of double-crossovers between the genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In ascomycete fungi, the arrangement of the spores in the ascus that directly reflects the order in which they were produced during meiosis is called an ______.
A)Unordered tetrad
B)Unordered octad
C)Ordered tetrad
D)Ordered pentad
Q3) Map distance is the number of recombinant offspring divided by the total number of nonrecombinant offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In fungal gene mapping, the abbreviation NPD stands for new parental ditype.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Genetic Transfer and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an experiment with an Hfr cell if the uvrA gene is transferred 1 minute and the pyrB gene is transferred at 2.5 minutes then where is the oriT of the Hfr cell located? Use the map of the
A) 70 minutes
B) 90 minutes
C) 100 mintues
D) 97.5 minutes
Q2) Loss of function mutations are easier to study in _______ organisms, such as bacteria.
A) haploid
B) diploid
C) triploid
Q3) First observed by Lederberg and Zinder (1952) in Salmonella typhimurium.
A) Transformation
B) Transduction
C) Conjugation
D) All of the answers are correct
Q4) Competent cells are those used in studies of conjugation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and
Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which syndrome is not correctly matched to its aneuploid condition?
A)Down syndrome - trisomy 21
B)Edward syndrome - trisomy 18
C)Klinefelter syndrome - XO
D)Jacobs syndrome - XYY
Q2) A loss of an internal piece of a chromosome is called a __________.
A)reciprocal translocation
B)terminal deficiency
C)interstitial deletion
D)gene duplication
Q3) Polyploid plants tend to produce fewer fruits and flowers, be smaller in size, and not adapt as well to extreme environmental conditions as normal varieties.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______ is a drug that is used to experimentally produce polyploidy in organisms.
A) Penicillin
B) Colchicine
C) Polymosca
D) Karyocine
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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) These individuals determined that DNA was responsible for the process of transduction in T2 phage.
A) Hershey and Chase
B) Avery, Macleod, and McCarty
C) Watson and Crick
D) Creighton and McClintock
Q2) The building blocks of DNA are called _________.
A) amino acids
B) codons
C) nucleotides
D) alleles
Q3) Cells are treated with a drug that blocks purine synthesis. Which bases would not be made in those treated cells?
A)cytosine, thymine, and uracil
B)adenine and guanine
C)adenine and thymine
D)cytosine and guanine
Q4) DNA is recognized as a left-handed molecule.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Chromosome Organization and Molecular Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism used by bacteria to condense their DNA?
A) Super coiling
B) Packaging the DNA with histone proteins
C) Looping of the DNA
D) Increase or decrease the number of turns in the DNA
E) Anchoring the DNA loops with DNA-binding proteins
Q2) The majority of bacterial DNA is negatively super coiled.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of the structure of the nucleosome core particle?
A) It is composed of an octamer of proteins.
B) There is a linker region between two nucleosomes of about 200 base pairs.
C) There are two copies each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4.
D) The DNA is wrapped around the core slightly over two complete turns.
E) The DNA wrapped around the core contains 146-147 base pairs.
Q4) The 30 nm fiber is formed from arrays of nucleosomes.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of the DNA polymerase to remove mismatched bases is called exonuclease cleavage (proofreading).
A)True B)False
Q2) The synthesis of the daughter strand of DNA occurs away from the replication fork in the leading strand.
A)True B)False
Q3) The problem in synthesizing the 3' end of chromosomes is solved by the use of the telomerase enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q4) GGGCCATTCGAACGTCCGAAAATGCCCCTGAATGAAAATTTTGGCCC. The primer used for replication in vitro is CCCGGTAAGCTT. Where is the 5' end for the template and primer, respectively?
A)Left, left
B)Right, left
C)Left, right
D)Right, right
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Chapter 12: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Prinbow box contains a CACAAC consensus sequence located in the -100 region of the promoter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mutation in TFIIIE could result in
A)a failure of the RNA polymerase to bind to TFIIB
B)a failure of the RNA polymerase to maintain an closed complex
C)a failure of the RNA polymerase to maintain an open complex
D)no effect on transcription
Q3) An R loop experiment was performed on two different mRNA's. The first showed one R loop, while the second showed two R loops separated by a region of double-stranded DNA. What is the composition of these two mRNA's?
A)The first contains no introns and the second two introns
B)The first contains no introns and the second one intron
C)The first contains one intron and the second two introns
D)The first contains two introns and the second one intron
Q4) The unit of transcription at the molecular level is the gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are studying the DNA of a person who you know has two defective copies of the gene that encodes phenylalanine hydroxylase. You are surprised to find that this person also carries two defective copies of the gene for homogentisic acid oxidase. What disease symptoms will this person exhibit? (Assume pathway intermediates are not available from sources outside the phenylalanine breakdown pathway.)
A)This person will exhibit symptoms of alkaptonuria.
B)This person will exhibit symptoms of tyrosinosis.
C)This person will exhibit symptoms of phenylketonuria.
D)This person will exhibit symptoms of alkaptonuria and phenylketonuria.
E) This person will be phenotypically normal.
Q2) \(\alpha\)-helices and \(\beta\) -sheets are examples of what level of protein structure?
A)Primary structure
B)Secondary structure
C)Tertiary structure
D)Quanternary structure
Q3) 61 different tRNAs are required for translation both in vivo and in vitro.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deletion in an operon removes the terminator. How will that affect the transcript that is produced from the operon?
A)The transcript will be produced and normal in length
B)The transcript will be produced, but shorter than normal
C)The transcript will be produced, but longer than normal
D)The transcript will produced, but will contain a deletion
E) The transcript will not be produced
Q2) The regulation of protein function is called ______.
A)posttranslational regulation
B)transcriptional regulation
C)translational regulation
D)posttranscriptional regulation
Q3) What stem-loop conformations favor attenuation?
A)1-2
B)1-2 and 2-3
C)2-3
D)1-2 and 3-4
Q4) Repressor proteins are responsible for negative transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes I: Transcriptional Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A particular cell contains all of the standard histones but lacks several histone variants. Which of the following MAY be true of this cell?
A)The cell will be completely unable to remodel its chromatin.
B)The cell will have an enhanced ability to chemically modify its histones.
C)The cell will be unable to express any of its genes at all.
D)The cell will express different sets of genes than other cells in the same organism.
E) The cell will not be able to divide.
Q2) A transactivation domain is an example of a motif found in transcription factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA that contains actively transcribed genes would most likely contain chromatin in the closed configuration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When cortisol binds to the glucocorticoid receptor, HSP90 is released.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes II: Epigenetics and
Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are correct?
A)Changes in gene expression based on environmental conditions are not considered normal while developmental changes are
B)Environmental epigenetic changes can vary due to the exposure of the organism to different environmental conditions, while those programmed during development are the result of stimuli generated by the organism itself
C)Environmental epigenetic gene regulation only occurs in reptiles and insects, while developmental epigenetic regulation occurs in all animals
D)Environmental epigenetic gene regulation is typically reversible while developmental epigenetic gene regulation is typically not reversible.
Q2) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an example of epigenetic inheritance?
A) Expression of the Igf-2 gene based on methylation of the ICR and DMR regions
B) Inheritance of flower color as studied by Mendel
C) Leaf coloration based on mitochondrial inheritance
D) Snail shell twist patterns
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Viruses
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Q1) A _______ frequently integrates into the host genome, forming prophages and utilizing a lysogenic cycle to manufacture new phages.
A) virulent phage
B) temperate phage
C) bacteria
D) eukaryotic cell
Q2) Reverse transcriptase copies
A)DNA to DNA.
B)DNA to RNA.
C)RNA to DNA.
D)RNA to RNA.
Q3) What is the correct order of the reproductive cycle of viruses?
A)Attachment-Entry-Viral assembly-Integration-Synthesis of viral components-Release
B)Viral Assembly-Attachment-Entry-Integration-Synthesis of viral components-Release
C)Attachment-Entry-Integration-Synthesis of viral components-Viral assembly-Release
D)Integration-Attachment-Entry-Viral assembly-Synthesis of viral components-Release
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Chapter 18: Gene Mutation and Dna Repair
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Q1) Which types of mutations are least likely to be subjected to natural selection?
A)Silent
B)Missense
C)Nonsense
D)Insertion
Q2) The mechanism for reactive oxygen species to cause mutation is
A)bases are oxidized to a variety of different products which might pair with a different base than the original base would have.
B)thymine bases are dimerized which causes a break in the DNA which is not repaired correctly.
C)the reactive oxygen species stabilize different tautomeric forms of the bases causing inappropriate pairing.
D)guanine is depurinated by the reactive oxygen species and if it is not repaired can result in any base being inserted.
Q3) The Ames test may be used to determine if an agent is a mutagen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Recombination and Transposition at the
Molecular Level
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Q1) The formation of a D-loop is associated with which of the following models of recombination?
A)Double-stranded break model
B)Holliday model
C)Single-stranded break model
Q2) Which of the following genes was mobile in McClintock's experiments with mutable sites in corn?
A)Ds
B)C
C)Sh
D)Wx
E)All of the answers are correct
Q3) Which enzyme is unique to the retro elements?
A)Reverse transcriptase
B)Reverse resolvase
C)Transposase
D)Integrase
E)Reverse integrase
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Chapter 20: DNA Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who developed the process of the polymerase chain reaction?
A)Watson and Crick
B)McClintock
C)Mullis
D)Pauling
Q2) What is a DNA library?
A)A collection of vectors, each containing a fragment of the original genome
B)A complete sequence of the genetic material in an organism
C)An electronic file that may be used for additional genetic analysis
D)A collection of mRNA from a given cell
Q3) cDNA is made from mRNA therefore, it lacks introns and contains only the coding sequence for the functional protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ___________ conditions are essential in a Southern blot experiment if the researcher wants to identify the closest DNA match to the probe.
A)High stringency
B)Low stringency
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Chapter 21: Biotechnology
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Q1) Bioremediation has been used to treat which of the following?
A)Oil spills
B)Sewage
C)Pesticides
D)Heavy metals
E)All of the answers have been successfully remediated
Q2) An organism that can be regenerated by somatic cells is called multipotent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first organism ever cloned by researchers was Dolly the sheep in 1997.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of microorganisms or their products to alleviate plant disease is called biological control.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A transgenic organism has recombinant DNA integrated into its genome. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Genomics I: Analysis of DNA
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Q1) Map units correspond to fixed physical distances.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the most direct benefit of high-throughput Sanger sequencing?
A)Bases can be identified as soon as they are added to the template.
B)RNA can be directly sequenced without first reverse transcribing it into DNA.
C)An entire chromosome can be sequenced without disrupting it into smaller fragments.
D)Many DNA samples can be sequenced simultaneously.
Q3) Which of the following acronyms describes a technique used in chromosome painting?
A)RFLP
B)VNTR
C)STR
D)FISH
E)STS
Q4) BAC stands for bacterial artificial chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Genomics II: Functional Genomics, Proteomics, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) In two dimensional gel electrophoresis, proteins are first treated with SDS, separated according to molecular mass, and then separated by their net charge at a specific pH.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What technique is used to separate cellular proteins for analysis?
A)Western blots
B)Antibody microarrays
C)Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis
D)Functional protein microarrays
Q3) A database is defined as
A)A large collection of files stored in one place.
B)A small collection of files that are stored in different places
C)Files that are only used by the BLAST program
D)A large collection of files that are not annotated.
Q4) What technique can be used to identify a proteins function?
A)Functional protein microarray
B)Antibody microarray
C)DNA microarray
D)RNA microarray
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Chapter 24: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Q1) Prions can contain either DNA or RNA as their genetic material.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a disease that is associated with a single recessive allele, the concordance among dizygotic twins should be ____, assuming both parents are heterozygous carriers.
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q3) Programmed cell death is called genome maintenance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An oncogene may promote cancer by keeping the cell growth pathway in the off position.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) An XY human individual with a deletion that has inactivated SRY will developmentally be what sex?
A)Male
B)Female
Q2) Gap genes and pair-rule genes are examples of genes that determine _____.
A)the formation of body segments
B)the formation of the primary cell layers
C)the formation of cellular adhesion
D)the formation of the major body axis
Q3) A
C.elegans with a heterochronic mutation in lin-14 will lay eggs normally.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The spatial arrangement of different regions in the body is called a _______.
A) pattern
B) morphogen
C) induction
D) segment
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Chapter 26: Population Genetics
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Q1) If the allele frequency of the dominant allele is 0.4, what value is used for the term p<sup>2</sup> in the equation p<sup>2</sup> + 2pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1?
A)0.4
B)0.2
C)0.16
D)16
Q2) Which of the following types of selection favors the survival of individuals with the intermediate phenotype?
A)Disruptive selection
B)Stabilizing selection
C)Directional selection
Q3) The probability that a gene will be altered by a mutation is called the mutation rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The characteristics of a given population over time are ________.
A)Dynamic
B)Static
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Chapter 27: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) Heritability is the amount of genetic variation in a particular population and a particular environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the correlation coefficient between mother and daughter height and would it be considered significant?
A)Correlation coefficcient: 0.49 Not significant
B)Correlation coefficcient: 0.31 Not significant
C)Correlation coefficcient: 0.49 Significant
D)Correlation coefficcient: 0.31 Significant
Q3) QTL mapping can rely on the relationship between genes for quantitative traits and which of the following?
A)The centromere
B)Transposon sites
C)Structural genes
D)Molecular markers such as RFLPs
Q4) Many organisms used in modern agriculture are a result of artificial selection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) Horizontal gene transfer is most common among what group of organisms?
A)Humans
B)Bacteria
C)Fungi
D)Plants
Q2) The formation of polyploids in plants is an example of which model of cladogenesis?
A)Parapatric speciation
B)Allopatric speciation
C)Sympatric speciation
Q3) Researchers who study molecular evolution often analyze DNA sequences using computer programs which identify homologous sequences.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What form of cladogenesis occurs due to geographic separation of a population?
A)Parapatric speciation
B)Allopatric speciation
C)Sympatric speciation
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