Course Introduction
Genetic Engineering Exam Questions
Genetic Engineering explores the principles, techniques, and applications of manipulating genetic material in living organisms. This course covers fundamental concepts such as recombinant DNA technology, gene cloning, CRISPR-Cas systems, and gene editing methods. Students will examine the use of genetic engineering in fields like medicine, agriculture, and industry, as well as the ethical, social, and environmental implications. Practical laboratory activities and case studies reinforce theoretical knowledge, providing hands-on experience in the design and analysis of genetically modified organisms.
Recommended Textbook
Genetic Analysis An Integrative Approach 1st Edition by Mark F. Sanders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
22 Chapters
1118 Verified Questions
1118 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1991
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Molecular Basis of Heredity, Variation, and Evolution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39568
Sample Questions
Q1) Watson and Crick used evidence from several studies to determine the structure of DNA.What conclusion were they able to draw from Rosalind Franklin's X-ray diffraction data,specifically?
A)DNA consists of four types of nucleotide bases: A,T,C,and G.
B)DNA nucleotides form complementary base pairs.
C)Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine when they are on opposite DNA strands.
D)DNA is a duplex,with two strands forming a double helix.
E)The DNA strands are antiparallel,and the strands are held together by hydrogen bonds. Answer: D
Q2) In retroviruses,DNA is synthesized from an RNA template using which enzyme? Answer: reverse transcriptase
Q3) Which type(s)of RNA is/are translated into proteins?
A)mRNA
B)rRNA
C)tRNA
D)mRNA and rRNA
E)mRNA,rRNA,and tRNA
Answer: A
Page 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 2: Transmission Genetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39569
Sample Questions
Q1) What type of cross would be used to illustrate Mendel's law of independent assortment?
Answer: dihybrid cross (or test cross)
Q2) In peas,axial (A)flower position is dominant to terminal (a),and tall (L)is dominant to short (l).If a plant that is heterozygous for both traits is allowed to self-fertilize,how many of the offspring would also be heterozygous for both traits?
A)9/16
B)4/16
C)3/16
D)2/16
E)1/16
Answer: B
Q3) You have self-fertilized a plant with round seed that is heterozygous,and you want to determine what proportion of the offspring will be not only dominant,but true-breeding.Which of the rules of probability can be used to calculate the probability of obtaining a particular outcome when specific information about that outcome modifies the probability calculation?
Answer: conditional probability
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 3: Cell Division and Chromosome Heredity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39570
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three important differences between mitosis and meiosis I?
Answer: In meiosis I,but not in mitosis,the following three processes occur:
1. Homologous chromosome pairing
2. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes
3. Segregation (separation)of the homologous chromosomes,which reduces chromosomes to the haploid number
Q2) If a trait is X-linked dominant,who would express the trait?
A)homozygous dominant females and hemizygous recessive males
B)heterozygous recessive females and hemizygous dominant males
C)homozygous recessive females and hemizygous recessive males
D)heterozygous dominant females and hemizygous dominant males
E)significantly more females than males
Answer: D
Q3) In meiosis I,the diploid number (2n)of chromosomes is reduced to the haploid number (n)because of the separation of what?
Answer: homologous chromosomes
Q4) The number of recombination nodules along each homologous chromosome arm correlates closely with the average number of what?
Answer: crossover events
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Gene Interaction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39571
Sample Questions
Q1) In Labrador retrievers,coat color is controlled by gene interaction in which homozygosity for a recessive allele can mask the phenotypic expression of a second gene.This genetic interaction is known as ________ and has a characteristic ________ ratio.
Q2) ________ mutations cause overexpression or result in new functions.
Q3) Which mode of inheritance produces heterozygotes with phenotypes that differ from either homozygote but more closely resembles one homozygous phenotype than the other?
A)complete dominance
B)incomplete dominance
C)codominance
D)epistasis
E)incomplete penetrance
Q4) Describe the difference between incomplete penetrance and variable expressivity.It is often difficult to pinpoint the cause of incomplete penetrance or variable expressivity.What possible interactions may be responsible?
Q5) Which antigen,expressed on the surface of all red blood cells,is modified by A- or B-transferases?
Q6) Are loss-of function mutations more likely to be dominant or recessive?
Page 6
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39572
Sample Questions
Q1) In a two-point test-cross analysis,a dihybrid F fly is crossed to a
A)pure-breeding mate with a dominant phenotype (AABB).
B)pure-breeding mate with a recessive phenotype (aabb).
C)heterozygote mate (AaBb).
D)mate that is dominant for one gene and recessive for the other (AAbb or aaBB).
E)second dihybrid F fly (sibling cross).
Q2) Assuming three genes are linked,how many recombinant genotypes would you expect and at what frequency?
A)two recombinant genotypes,more frequent than expected by chance
B)four recombinant genotypes,more frequent than expected by chance
C)six recombinant genotypes,more frequent than expected by chance
D)four recombinant genotypes,less frequent than expected by chance
E)six recombinant genotypes,less frequent than expected by chance
Q3) What organism exhibits complete genetic linkage,meaning there is no recombination between homologous chromosomes?
Q4) What would a Lod score of 3.2 tell you about genetic linkage? What information does the value tell you?
Q5) Crossing over occurs frequently during meiosis.Can crossing over occur during mitosis? Explain why mitotic crossing over may or may not be possible.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophage
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39573
Sample Questions
Q1) What distinguishes generalized versus specialized transduction?
Q2) To integrate an F plasmid's genes into a host chromosome,there must be DNA recombination at homologous regions on the two circular strands.What is the minimum number of such crossover events needed for integration?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)8
Q3) In a bacterial cross of an Hfr donor a b with a recipient F a b ,what would be a possible recombinant?
Q4) The resulting cultures were then plated on medium containing streptomycin.Why?
A)to eliminate non-conjugating Hfr cells
B)to eliminate all non-conjugated cells
C)to eliminate non-conjugated F cells
D)to selectively eliminate cells that have taken in F genes
Q5) Some bacteriophages can be either lytic or lysogenic.These are called ________ phages.
Q6) How are selective media used in studying bacterial recombination?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Replication
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39574
Sample Questions
Q1) Comparison of conserved sequences among related species usually leads to the identification of ________,which illustrate the nucleotides most often found at each position of DNA in the conserved region.
Q2) What type of experimental technique did Huberman and Riggs use to produce the first evidence of bidirectional replication in bacteria?
Q3) DNA polymerase III is functional,but it seems to exhibit extremely low processivity.This is likely a defect in what structure?
A)the proteins
B)the pol III holoenzyme
C)the clamp loader
D)the topoisomerase enzyme
E)the sliding clamp
Q4) During DNA replication,the continuously elongated daughter strand is referred to as what?
Q5) DNA polymerase requires a primer sequence to provide a ________ functional group to which the new DNA nucleotide can be added.
Q6) DNA polymerase catalyzes DNA strand elongation by removing what from the dNTPs?
Q7) What are the three parts of a DNA nucleotide?
Page 9
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 8: Molecular Biology and Transcription and Rna Processing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39575
Sample Questions
Q1) The 5S rRNA and tRNA genes have internal promoters located downstream of the transcription start site,called ________.
Q2) Which type of mRNA is translated within a cell?
A)tRNA
B)mRNA
C)rRNA
D)siRNA
E)all of the above
Q3) One type of RNA editing involves inserting uracils into edited mRNA with the assistance of which type of specialized RNA?
Q4) In a given bacterium,transcription of housekeeping genes is normal,but genes involved in nitrogen metabolism,stress,and chemotaxis are disrupted.Which sigma subunit is intact?
A) ² B) ³²
C) ³ D) E)
Page 10
Q5) What molecule is required for activation of rho protein?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: The Molecular Biology of Translation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39576
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the process of two-dimensional gel electrophoresis.What are the two dimensions referring to? How is this technique different from conventional gel electrophoresis,and when would it be used?
Q2) Polypeptides must be sorted after translation.Does protein sorting occur in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Describe the process of protein sorting and explain how the signal sequence is involved.What would you expect to see if the signal sequence has been mutated or deleted?
Q3) Ribosomal subunits are measured in which units,which describe the speed of sedimentation of a substance during centrifugation?
Q4) Describe what is meant by a "conformational disease" and give an example.Why do you think these diseases exhibit late age of onset?
Q5) What process is targeted by the antibiotic streptomycin?
Q6) In the ER,misfolded proteins are identified and bound by what molecules?
Q7) During elongation,where does the charged tRNA is recruited to which location on the ribosome?
Q8) How many different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases can be found in a given cell?
Q9) Eighteen of the amino acids have two or more synonymous codons.Which two amino acids are the exceptions?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: The Integration of Genetic Approaches: Understanding Sickle
Cell
Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39577
Sample Questions
Q1) You are interested in designing a molecular probe to detect the region of SNP,which includes a DdeI (CTNAG)restriction site.Which of the following molecular probe sequences would anneal to the correct position?
A)ACTCCTGAGGAGAAG
B)TGAGGACTCCTCTTC
C)GTGCACCTGACTCCT
D)CACGTGGACTGAGGA
E)CACGUGGACUGAGGA
Q2) The mutation that causes SCD causes what kind of change in the structure of hemoglobin?
A)decreases heme-binding ability
B)fewer chains of amino acids (trimeric rather than tetrameric structure)
C)a single amino acid substitution that alters the structure of the tetramer
D)addition of a single amino acid that causes a longer protein subunit
E)loss of a single amino acid that causes a frameshift and premature stop codon
Q3) In contrast to the nucleic acid probes used to detect DNA or RNA target sequences,molecular probes used to detect target proteins in western blots are
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Chromosome Structure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39578
Sample Questions
Q1) Which histone protein is not part of the nucleosome structure?
A)H1
B)H2A
C)H2B
D)H3
E)H4
Q2) Quinolones are a group of broad-spectrum antibiotics that specifically target topoisomerase.Explain how this contributes to cell death in bacteria.Would you expect these drugs to kill hyperthermophilic prokaryotes too? Why or why not?
Q3) Which proteins participate in DNA bending and contribute to folding and condensation of the chromosome?
Q4) Eukaryotic chromosomes are a combination of proteins and DNA,which allows the cell to perform which four essential functions?
Q5) Karyotypes are a method for displaying chromosomes by grouping them into homologous pairs based on what two distinguishing factors?
Q6) Which proteins would you target if you wanted to disrupt the chromosome superstructure for chromatin condensation that ultimately produces the characteristic shape of the metaphase chromosome?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Mutation, DNA Repair, and Homologous
Recombination
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39579
Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is the product of the phr gene in E.coli?
Q2) Which repair mechanism is an error-prone system that uses bypass polymerases to replicate short segments of daughter strands whose normal replication is blocked by lesions in template strand DNA?
Q3) The Ames test is designed to identify the rate of ________ that restore the ability of bacteria to synthesize their own histidine,thus eliminating the need for histidine supplementation of the growth medium.
Q4) The alkylating agent nitrosoguanidine adds methyl groups to nucleotide bases and is repaired by which enzyme that removes the added methyl group and restores nucleotides to their normal form?
Q5) You have developed a new drug and have been asked to test the drug's mutagenicity before putting it on the market.Which test could you use to determine your compound's mutagenic potential?
Q6) What is the human cancer syndrome associated with inherited p53 mutations?
Q7) Which process is carried out by specialized bypass DNA that can replicate across the gaps induced during replication by UV damage?
Page 14
Q8) Which type of double-stranded break repair would you expect to be used by a cell in the G phase of the cell cycle?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Chromosome Aberrations and Transposition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39580
Sample Questions
Q1) An organism with a genome size of n = 23 experienced a Robertsonian translocation.How many chromosomes would you expect to see in the karyotype of a somatic cell in an affected individual?
A)21
B)25
C)42
D)44
E)46
Q2) How many possible genotypes will there be following self-fertilization of a plant with the B B B B B B genotype?
Q3) A chromosome contains the following gene order: A B C D E F G H Which of the following rearrangements represents a paracentric inversion?
A)A B C D E F G H
B)A F G H B C D E
C)A C B D E F G H
D)A F D E C B G H
E)A B C D H G F E
Q4) Of the various genetic elements described by McClintock,which one is classified as an autonomous transposable element?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Bacteriophage
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39581
Sample Questions
Q1) In the absence of tryptophan,
A)the inactive repressor cannot bind trpO,so operon gene transcription occurs.
B)the active repressor binds trpP,so operon gene transcription is repressed.
C)the inducer cannot bind trpO,so operon gene transcription occurs.
D)the active repressor cannot bind trpO,so operon gene transcription is attenuated.
E)the repressor binds the corepressor,and operon gene transcription occurs.
Q2) The presence of which combination of molecules would lead to active transcription of an operon?
A)activator + corepressor
B)activator + repressor
C)inducer + corepressor
D)repressor + corepressor
E)activator + inducer
Q3) Which sigma factor,encoded by the rpoH gene,is active at high temperatures?
Page 16
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39582
Sample Questions
Q1) In animals,the ________ enzyme cuts pri-mRNA to produce mi-RNA.
Q2) Which protein binds to the silencer sequence and promotes transcriptional silencing in the presence of glucose?
A)Gal2
B)Mig1
C)Gal4
D)Gal10
E)Gal80
Q3) Eukaryotes use these highly specialized enhancer elements,which regulate the transcription of multiple genes packaged in complexes of closely related genes (e.g., -globin).
Q4) Which sequences would likely have both a nucleosome-depleted region (NDR)and a poly A/T tract to attract transcriptional activators to a transcription start sequence?
A)chromatin modifiers
B)enhancers
C)open promoters
D)closed promoters
E)insulators
Q5) What effect does methylation of CpG islands have on human promoters?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Forward Genetics and Recombinant DNA Technology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39583
Sample Questions
Q1) If a mutagenesis screen provides some number (e.g.,24)of alleles shown by complementation analysis to be in the same gene,which of the following is true?
A)These mutants can be used to identify the role of the gene in metabolism.
B)The gene being studied must be present in more than one copy per haploid genome.
C)The gene,in whole or in part,must be involved in transformation.
D)The gene must be highly conserved in evolution.
E)The gene must be involved in regulating a signal pathway.
Q2) In mapping the HD gene associated with Huntington disease,eventually researchers narrowed down their hunt to four candidate genes within the mapped region.How did they identify one of these as the definitive HD gene?
Q3) How can blunt-ended DNA fragments be altered to allow them to be incorporated into a plasmid with sticky ends?
Q4) Describe two or more ethical issues arising from sequencing the genomes of individuals.
Q5) Would it be possible and/or appropriate to design a genetic screen to look for a gene(s)involved in homosexuality?
Q6) Why is only a fraction of an organism's genes represented in any cDNA library?
Page 18
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology and
Reverse Genetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39584
Sample Questions
Q1) In the formation of transgenic animals,DNA is usually inserted into eggs or embryos.If some cells of the embryo do not receive the introduced DNA,the result is an organism with cells of different genotypes;the organism is known as what?
Q2) In grape cultivation,growers often find that heterozygous forms are more desirable.To propagate the heterozygotes without having to interbreed in each generation,what method can they use?
Q3) Suppose a mutagen is used on an inbred population of mice to establish cell lines,each including a different mutant allele,which can then be tested for function.This technique is known as ________.
Q4) If a gene is replaced with a heterologous sequence such that the gene is then nonfunctional,what is the result usually called?
Q5) Besides the obvious fact that chemical mutagens are dangerous to handle,another major disadvantage to their use is that
A)most of these mutations are immediately lethal.
B)most chemically induced changes are detectable only by sequencing.
C)chemical mutagens activate transposons.
D)two or more generations of further matings are required to isolate them.
E)they alter all A-T and C-G base pairing.
Page 19
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Genomics: Genetics From a Whole-Genome Perspective
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39585
Sample Questions
Q1) Sequencing of DNA from a community of organisms rather than from a single individual is known as ________.
Q2) Recombination between two Alu elements results in deletions.In humans these have often been associated with specific disorders.In a recent study,researchers compared Alu recombination-mediated deletions of humans and chimpanzees.They identified 492 human-specific deletions of this type.Why is this finding important?
A)It shows that humans are not as genetically close to chimpanzees as researchers previously thought.
B)It shows how much the chimpanzee genome has changed since the divergence of these two lineages.
C)It shows that the time of divergence of the two lineages is much older than was previously thought.
D)It shows that more deletions have occurred in humans than in chimps.
E)It demonstrates the importance of Alu recombination in shaping genome divergence.
Q3) The process of finding the location of genes and functional (e.g.,regulatory)sequences and their functions within a genome sequence is called
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Cytoplasmic Inheritance and the Evolution of Organelle Genomes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39586
Sample Questions
Q1) Sequencing of genomes of eukaryotes,both mitochondrial and nuclear,have revealed evidence of sequence transfer from one to the other.Are such transfers ancient,recent,or both?
Q2) In 1918,the tsar and tsarina of Russia and their five children were presumably assassinated and buried in an unmarked grave.Later,several women came forward and claimed that they were in fact Anastasia,one of the daughters whose bones had not been found.More recently,forensic scientists have extracted DNA,including mtDNA,from the skeletal remains.Which of the following samples of mtDNA had to be analyzed to discern which,if any,of the claimants was Anastasia?
A)the tsar,tsarina,and the other assassinated children
B)each of the claimants or their living children
C)the tsarina and the claimants
D)the tsar and tsarina only
E)the tsar and tsarina and living relatives of each of them
Q3) If the mother and grandmother of a given family both exhibit a half dozen phenotypic effects of a mitochondrial disorder,how is it possible that the mother's three children each have different phenotypes from one another and different degrees of severity?
Q4) What name is given to the alteration of an RNA sequence after transcription?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Developmental Genetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39587
Sample Questions
Q1) Certain species of lilies,if eaten by pregnant ewes,can cause the ewes to produce lambs with severe birth defects because the plants' cyclopamine can block embryonic response to Shh.This type of birth defect is a phenocopy of mutations in which genes?
Q2) A homeotic mutant flower has an arrangement (from outside in)of carpels,stamens,stamens,carpels instead of the usual sepal,petals,stamens,carpels.In general,Class A genes specify sepals,Class A and B genes specify petals,Class B and C genes specify stamens,and Class C specifies carpels.This mutant must therefore have a mutation in
A)a Class A gene.
B)a Class B gene.
C)a Class C gene.
D)both A and B.
E)both B and C.
Q3) In some forms of cancer,the expression of certain homeotic genes has been altered.Is this more likely to be a cause or an effect of the cancer? Explain.
Q4) The establishment of the axes of the body plan occurs during which stage of Drosophila development?
Q5) How and when does the Antennapedia complex change antennae into legs?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Genetic Analysis of Quantitative Traits
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39588
Sample Questions
Q1) Once a chromosomal position for a putative gene associated with Parkinson disease is verified,which of the following is a next step?
A)developing a FISH screening test to identify pre-Parkinson patients
B)determining whether this locus is mutated in all Parkinson patients
C)using a genome-wide linkage SNP panel to identify more minor genes
D)ascertaining all living and at-risk individuals who are family members of the affected test subjects
E)fine mapping of the linkage region to identify particular variants for influencing risk
Q2) Recent work in Drosophila demonstrated that the genes known as the chromatin remodeling complex co-localize at loci for hsp genes that respond to heat shock.Outline a procedure you could use to substantiate this finding.
Q3) If we suppose that a specific QTL is genetically linked to a DNA marker at a recombination frequency of 10%,then the parental type combinations in gametes would be expected at what frequency?
Q4) Distinguish between broad sense heritability and narrow sense heritability,and explain how either or both of these measures can be used to inform those using artificial selection.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
23
Chapter 22: Population Genetics and Evolution
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/39589
Sample Questions
Q1) In the same population of patients you examined for sickle cell allele frequencies,you now want to test whether the disease symptoms are related to blood type.Since blood type is a codominant trait and the alleles are easily identifiable by the phenotype (blood type)of the individuals,which method is most helpful for identifying blood type allele frequency?
A)allele-counting method
B)genotype proportion method
C)square root method
D)binomial expansion
E)chi-square test
Q2) What are the two most common types of nonrandom mating?
Q3) Physical separation of a segment of a large population by a physical barrier that prevents gene flow can lead to
A)sympatric speciation.
B)allopatric speciation.
C)hybrid sterility.
D)temporal isolation.
E)gene flow.
Q4) A relative fitness value of w = 1 means an organism exhibits what trait?
Q5) What is the ultimate source of genetic variation in populations?
Page 24
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.