Course Introduction
General Virology Exam
Materials
General Virology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles and concepts of the biology of viruses. The course covers the classification, structure, and replication strategies of viruses, as well as their interactions with host cells and the mechanisms underlying viral diseases. Students will learn about the molecular biology of viral infection, the immune responses to viral pathogens, and the methods used in laboratory diagnosis and research. The course also examines the epidemiology, prevention, and control of viral infections, emphasizing both medical and emerging viruses of global significance.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not be a nucleic acid form found in a viral genome?
A) dsDNA
B) ssDNA
C) dsRNA
D) ssRNA
E) an RNA:DNA hybrid
Answer: E
Q2) The common cold can be caused by viruses from three different families, some of which have RNA genomes and some of which have DNA genomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following terms describes the protein shell that surrounds the viral genome?
A) capsid
B) envelope
C) matrix
D) virion
E) capsomere
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly
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Q1) A Type I membrane protein has which of the following structures?
A) Both the C-terminus and the N-terminus face the inside of the virion.
B) It passes through the viral envelope multiple times.
C) The N-terminus faces outside the virion and the C-terminus faces inside the virion.
D) The N-terminus faces inside the virion and the C-terminus faces outside the virion.
E) The protein lacks a transmembrane domain and is secreted from the infected cell.
Answer: C
Q2) The Jelly Roll barrel is:
A) a structure found in many viral envelope glycoproteins.
B) a structure found in many viral capsid proteins.
C) the structure the viral genome takes inside of a helical capsid.
D) the structure the viral genome takes inside an icosahedral capsid.
E) the structure of many helical capsids as the wrap around the genome.
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses
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Q1) What distinguishes a satellite virus from a satellite nucleic acid?
A) A satellite virus encodes its own capsid protein while a satellite nucleic acid does not.
B) A satellite virus packages its own replication protein while a satellite nucleic acid does not.
C) A satellite virus requires a helper virus while a satellite nucleic acid does not.
D) Genomes of satellite viruses are smaller than those of satellite nucleic acids.
E) Satellite viruses do not encode any proteins while satellite nucleic acids do.
Answer: A
Q2) According to the RNA World hypothesis, which of the following enzymes may have evolved first?
A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
E) self-replicating RNAs
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Virus Entry
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Q1) As part of an experiment, you take a solution of purified influenza virus particles and lower the pH of the solution to 5.5.You then add the virus to a culture of the appropriate host cell.What do you think would happen?
A) The HA protein would become inactivated and the virus would not be able to enter the host cell.
B) The viral genome would be degraded and the virus would not be able to start the infection.
C) The HA protein would be able to bind more tightly to the host cell receptors.
D) The cell would not be able to take up the virus particles into clatherin coated pits.
E) The virus particles would not be able to be transported into the nucleus.
Q2) It would be correct to say that in a topological sense the nucleocapsid of an enveloped virion has never left the cytoplasm of a host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe what a fusion peptide is and how it is involved in mediating membrane fusion between the viral envelope and the cell membrane?
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Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages
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Q1) In the ssRNA phage MS2, binding of the coat protein to which of the following RNA structures acts to initiate packaging of the viral RNA into the capsids.
A) The 5' end of the genome
B) The 3' end of the genome
C) The MJ stem loop
D) The start codon of the coat protein gene
E) The operator stem loop
Q2) Replication and translation can occur simultaneously on a single molecule of genomic RNA from the ssRNA phage MS2.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The replicase enzyme of the ssRNA phage Qb has been used by scientists to do which of the following?
A) Synthesize RNA molecules from a DNA template.
B) Measure small amounts of target RNA molecules in a sample.
C) Measure the levels of pathogenic viruses in drinking water.
D) Amplify DNA molecules in a sample.
E) Fuse two pieces of RNA together.
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Chapter 6: Microviruses
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Q1) Describe the proteins required for both Stage I DNA and Stage II DNA replication and the role that each plays in the virus replication cycle of the bacteriophage X174.
Q2) The bacteriophage X174 has several weak transcriptional terminators which leads to mRNAs with different 5' ends.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ssDNA phage X174 does not encode DNA binding proteins to regulation gene expression from the viral genome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following bacteriophages had its entire genome sequenced first?
A) MS2
B) X174
C) Lambda phage
D) T4
E) T3
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Chapter 7: Bacteriophage
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Q1) Incubation of bacterial cells infected with the phage T7 with an inhibitor of protein synthesis will allow only the Class I mRNAs to be produced.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the first proteins produced during the infection cycle of bacteriophage T7 inhibits the cellular enzymes EcoB and EcoK.Why is this important for the phage?
A) This prevents transcription of the cellular genes.
B) This allows transcription of the viral genes.
C) This prevents the viral proteins from being degraded.
D) This prevents the viral genome from being degraded.
E) This shuts down host cell genome replication.
Q3) Holin is a small membrane-specific protein produced by the bacteriophge T7.Which of the following describes the function of this protein?
A) It ensures the replication of the entire T7 genome.
B) It helps the T7 phage particles lyse the host cell.
C) It creates the portal in the phage head where the viral genome is packaged.
D) It degrades the host cell wall during entry of the viral genome.
E) It cleaves the viral genome during packaging.
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Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the transcripts from phage that terminate at the transcriptional terminators t<sub>L</sub>1 and t<sub>R</sub>1 is FALSE?
A) They are expressed at immediate-early times.
B) The encode the proteins N and cro.
C) They are expressed first in the transcriptional program.
D) They contain NUT sequences.
E) They can be antiterminated by the Q protein.
Q2) The cIII protein from phage inhibits cellular proteases that would degrade the cII protein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain how the binding affinity of the phage cI repressor to the three rightward operators (O<sub>R</sub>1, O<sub>R</sub>2, O<sub>R</sub>3)controls transcription from both P<sub>R</sub> and P<sub>RM</sub>?
Q4) If a phage lysogen were superinfected with the same strain of l phage, the cI repressor would inhibit lytic replication from the incoming phage genome.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea
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Q1) What information was used to identify the three domains of life?
A) Sequence of the 16S ribosomal RNA
B) Sequence of the mitochondrial genome
C) Sequence of the cytochrome c gene
D) Chemical structure of the cell wall
E) Chemical structure of phospholipids
Q2) Which of the following techniques can be used to induced an integrated copy of the archaea virus SSV-1 to begin expressing viral genes?
A) Exposure of cells to low pH
B) Exposure of cells to high salt concentrations
C) Superinfection with the same strain of virus
D) Growth of cells at lower temperatures
E) Exposure of cells to UV light
Q3) Viruses that infect archaeal cells have been isolated from all of the following environments EXCEPT:
A) Hot springs with temperatures over 80 C
B) Environments with a pH of 0
C) Solfataric fields that emit sulfur gases
D) The surface of the moon
E) Environments with salt concentrations over 1.5M
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Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus
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Q1) Which of the following statements about cucumber mosaic virus is FALSE?
A) It has an enveloped helical nucleocapsid.
B) It has a wide range of host species that it can infect.
C) Its genome is composed of positive-strand RNA.
D) It is transmitted by aphids.
E) It can cause asymptomatic infections in some plants.
Q2) Which of the following describes the first step in the replication cycle of the cucumber mosaic virus?
A) Synthesis of minus-strand copies of the genome.
B) Synthesis of plus-strand copies of the genome.
C) Copying of viral genome into dsDNA.
D) Copying of the viral genome into mRNA.
E) Translation of the genome into protein.
Q3) Which of the following describes a feature of plant viruses, like cucumber mosaic virus, that is rare or absent in animal viruses?
A) Segmented genomes are each packaged into a single virion.
B) Viral particles are transmitted to new hosts via an insect vector.
C) Viral genomes are composed of ssRNA with a negative sense.
D) Viral genomic RNA has a 5' cap.
E) Segmented genomes are each packaged into separate virions.
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Chapter 11: Picornaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once the viral genome has entered the host cell, poliovirus does not require any of the virion proteins to carry out its infectious cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ability of picornaviruses to cause pathogenesis in specific tissues can be localized to which of the following regions of the viral genomic RNA?
A) The RNA-dependent RNA polymerase coding region.
B) The 3' noncoding region.
C) The non-structural protein coding region.
D) The capsid protein coding region.
E) The 5' noncoding sequence.
Q3) The VPg protein from picornaviruses has which of the following function?
A) It acts as a primer for RNA synthesis.
B) It is the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) It is the protease the cleaves the viral polyprotein.
D) It induces the formation of cellular membranes.
E) It packages the viral genome into capsids.
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Chapter 12: Flaviviruses
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Q1) The nonstructural proteins of flaviviruses are produced on the rough ER and have membrane spanning domains.Which of the following explains why the nonstructural proteins are localized to cellular membranes?
A) Fatty acids are a required cofactor for RNA synthesis.
B) Viral RNA replication can only occur in the lumen of the ER.
C) Membranes serve to localize the viral replication complex.
D) The viral replication proteins must be glycosylated before they are active.
E) The nonstructural proteins require proteolytic processing by lysosomal enzymes.
Q2) When is the "pr" region cleaved by the protease furin from the prM protein of flaviviruses?
A) During translation of the structural proteins.
B) When the virion acquires the envelope from the ER.
C) As the capsid is being assembled in the cytoplasm.
D) After the virion moves through the trans Golgi network.
E) After release of the virions from the host cell.
Q3) Describe the events that events that lead West Nile virus from moving from a local epidemic to becoming endemic in the United States.
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Chapter 13: Togaviruses
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Q1) What is the definition of a "dead-end" host for an arbovirus?
A) A vertebrate host that does not transmit the virus efficiently.
B) An insect vector that dies before it can transmit the virus.
C) A vertebrate host that does not get sick when infected with the virus.
D) An insect vector that poorly replicates the virus.
E) A virus that can not replicate in the lungs of the host
Q2) Which of the following is the correct description for the term arboviruses?
A) Viruses that are all in the togavirus family.
B) Viruses that all have an RNA genome.
C) Viruses that are all capable of infecting the liver.
D) Viruses that can all cause diseases in humans.
E) Viruses that all use an insect as a transmission vector.
Q3) The togaviruses have their non-structural protein coding sequences at the 5' end of the viral genome while the picornaviruses and the flaviviruses have the non-structural protein coding sequences at the 5' end.Explain how this difference is important in the replication cycle of the togaviruses.
Q4) The subgenomic mRNA from togaviruses is synthesized from a subgenomic negative-strand RNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Coronaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following have made it difficult to create a cDNA clone of the entire coronavirus genome that can be used in reverse genetics experiments?
A) The genome is too short to be cloned.
B) The genome contains regions that are resistant to cloning.
C) The viral RNA can not be converted to DNA.
D) The viral RNA from coronaviruses is not infectious.
E) Reverse genetics does not work with coronaviruses.
Q2) Describe the two alternative hypotheses for how a bat coronavirus evolved to infect humans and cause the SARS epidemic in 2003.Which one does the evidence appear to support?
Q3) Which of the following might explain the potentially low barrier to species jumping seen in coronaviruses?
A) The large size of the RNA genome.
B) The modular nature of the Spike glycoprotein.
C) The ability of one virus to bind to multiple host cell receptors.
D) The ability of the virus to reassort its genome segments.
E) The high number of envelope glycoproteins found on the virion.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses
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Q1) New paramyxoviruses have emerged from fruit bats by being transmitted to domestic livestock and then to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because measles virus can infect B and T lymphocytes, it can lead to strong immunosuppression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rhabdoviruses can infect a wide variety of hosts including insects, plants and vertebrates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)is a common complication of measles where the virus infects the nervous tissue immediately after causing the typical measles virus symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe two major differences between transcription and genome replication in paramyxoviruses.
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Chapter 16: Filovirouses
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Q1) During an outbreak of Ebola virus, which of the following as NOT been shown to be a major source of transmission between individuals?
A) Preparation of bodies for burial.
B) Reuse of needles and syringes.
C) Sexual transmission.
D) Aerosol droplets.
E) Contact with contaminated blood.
Q2) Which of the following describes one of the important roles for the VP30 protein of Ebola virus?
A) Activation of mRNA synthesis.
B) Assembly of enveloped virions.
C) Packaging of the viral genomic RNA.
D) Binding to the host cell receptor.
Q3) Which of the following animals appears to be the reservoir for filovirus infections?
A) monkeys and primates
B) bats
C) racoons
D) domestic livestock
E) insects
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes a similarity between bunyaviruses and flaviviruses?
A) They both have positive-strand RNA virus genomes.
B) They both have negative-strand RNB virus genomes.
C) They both have members that are transmitted by insects.
D) The both have members that only replicate in insects.
E) The both similar virion structures.
Q2) The genome segments of bunyaviruses can form panhandles and circularize due to complementary 3' and 5' ends.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the bunyaviruses, which of the following viral proteins is proposed to regulate the transition from production of mRNAs to genome replication?
A) The N (nucleocapsid protein)
B) The M (matrix protein)
C) The G (glycoprotein)
D) The L (polymerase protein)
E) The NS (non-structural protein)
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Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses
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Q1) What function does the neuraminidase protein of influenza virus carry out?
A) It binds to sialic acid and helps the virus enter the host cell.
B) It helps release virions from virus producing cells.
C) It is involved in the glycosylation process of the NA protein.
D) It cleaves the HA protein into two functional domains.
E) It helps the virus evade the immune system.
Q2) Which of the following describes the function of the NS1 protein made during an influenza virus infection?
A) Inhibition of cellular antiviral defenses.
B) Activation of viral RNA polymerase.
C) Transport of nucleocapsids out of the nucleus.
D) Inhibition of cellular RNA polymerase.
E) Inhibition of antibody production.
Q3) Explain the role that antigenic drift and shift play in the ability of influenza to cause new outbreaks.Which one is thought to have caused the 1918 strain of influenza to emerge?
Q4) Prophylatic treatment of a patient with an antiviral drug to influenza is the best way to prevent infection.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Reoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a host cell protein that can be used as a receptor by a reovirus?
A) Cathepsin
B) Sialic Acid
C) JAM-A
D) Integrin
E) None of the above.
Q2) Infectious subvirion particles are intermediates in the assembly of reovirus virions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the source of the nucleotide triphosphates used to make reovirus mRNAs?
A) They are produced by enzymes inside the core virion.
B) They diffuse into the core virion from the cytoplasm.
C) RNA synthesis occurs in the cytoplasm, where the nucleotides are located.
D) The viral RNA polymerase transports them into the core virion.
E) They are brought inside the virion from the previous host cell.
Q4) Reoviruses use double-strand RNA to encode their genome.Why is this a problem for a virus that infects mammalian cells and how does the virus prevent this problem?
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Parvoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes a major difference between how the genomes of autonomous parvoviruses and dependoviruses are packaged?
A) They both package either the positive or negative sense strand.
B) Autonomous parvoviruses package only the positive sense strand while dependoviruses package double-stranded DNA.
C) Autonomous parvoviruses package only the negative sense strand while dependoviruses package only the positive sense strand.
D) Autonomous parvoviruses package only the positive sense strand while dependoviruses package only the negative sense strand.
E) Autonomous parvoviruses package only the negative sense strand while dependoviruses package either the positive or negative sense strand.
Q2) Parvoviruses can only productively infect cells that are NOT going through the cell cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why the ends of DNA can not be completely replicated and how the parvoviruses use the self-complementary ends to solve this problem.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses
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Q1) If the histone proteins are removed from genome of SV40, which of the following will happen?
A) The DNA becomes supercoiled.
B) The DNA becomes nicked.
C) The DNA assumes a relaxed circle form.
D) The DNA becomes denatured.
E) Nothing happens to the DNA.
Q2) Studying the circular genomes of polyomaviruses allowed scientists to study the different properties of supercoiled DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the smallest introns in the SV40 genome are lengthened, then the levels of the Large T-antigen increase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The large T antigen of SV40 is a highly multifunctional protein.Describe three of the most important functions that this protein has in regulating the infection of a host cell with SV40.
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23
Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses
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Q1) Which of the following describes the best treatment for papillomavirus induced cervical lesions?
A) Vaccination with the vaccine against HPV.
B) Radical surgery to remove the uterus and cervix.
C) Removal of the lesion using a laser.
D) Injection of antibodies against HPV into the lesion.
E) Giving the patient systemic anticancer drugs.
Q2) When the late promoter of papillomaviruses is activated, it increases production of the E1 and E2 proteins.Which of the following explains why an increase in these two proteins would contribute to vegetative replication of the virus?
A) They repress transcription for the early promoter.
B) They can cause the keratinocytes to become differentiated.
C) They initiate DNA replication of the viral genome.
D) They interact with the cellular protein pRb.
E) They interact with the cellular protein p53
Q3) Very few cases of cervical cancer are caused by infection with papillomavirus.
A)True
B)False
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24
Chapter 23: Adenoviruses
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Q1) Adenovirus virions are transported to the nucleus of the host cell via an interaction between the hexon proteins and which of the following cellular structures?
A) Nuclear matrix
B) Microtubules
C) Actin fibers
D) Intermediate filaments
E) Endocytotic vesicles.
Q2) When rodent cells are infected with adenovirus, they produce virions and are killed by the virus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because adenovirus produces all of the enzymes it needs for DNA replication, it is not dependent on the host cell entering the S phase of the cell cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adenovirus has a linear double-stranded DNA genome.Describe how adenovirus DNA is replicated so that the "end problem" is solved.
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25
Chapter 24: Herpesviruses
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Q1) In addition to encoding enzymes and proteins directly involved in replicating the viral genome, herpes simplex virus also encodes thymidine kinase and ribonucleotide reductase, which are absolutely required for infection of neurons.Which of the following explains what role these proteins play?
A) They phosphorylate cellular proteins, which force the neuron into S phase.
B) They increase the pool of nucleotide triphosphates required for DNA replication.
C) They phosphorylate the tegument proteins before they are packaged into the virion.
D) They cleave the concatemers of the viral DNA as they are being packaged into capsids.
E) They help assemble the DNA replication complex on the viral origin.
Q2) The EBER RNAs encoded by the Epstein-Barr virus are synthesizes by RNA polymerase III.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the three models proposed for how newly assembled herpesvirus nucleocapsids exit the nucleus and acquire the tegument and envelope/
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Chapter 25: Baculoviruses
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Q1) Baculoviruses can infect and replicate in human but do not cause any disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The budded virions produced during a baculovirus infection are primarily involved in which of the following?
A) Shutting down host defense mechanisms.
B) Surviving the harsh conditions of the environment.
C) Transmission via eggs laid by an infected female.
D) Transmission between different hosts.
E) Transmission of the virus between cells within a host.
Q3) Treatment of baculovirus infected cells with the toxin a-amanitin, which inhibits RNA polymerase II, does not reduce levels of the viral late transcripts.Which of the following explains why?
A) Baculoviruses use the cellular RNA polymerase III to transcribe their late genes.
B) Baculoviruses produce their own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
C) Baculoviruses produce their own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
D) Baculoviruses produce such high levels of the late mRNAs that the inhibition does not matter.
E) Insect cells do not use RNA polymerase II to transcribe their genes.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Poxviruses
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Q1) DNA replication in poxviruses uses a "rolling hairpin" model, similar to the method used by viruses in which of the following families?
A) Parvoviruses
B) Polyomaviruses
C) Adenoviruses
D) Herpesviruses
E) Baculoviruses
Q2) Which of the following describes the major distinguishing feature of poxviruses when compared to other DNA containing viruses that replicate in eukaryotic cells?
A) They encode their own DNA polymerase.
B) They have large complex genomes that encode over 100 different proteins.
C) They have large complex virions.
D) They replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm of infected cells.
E) They encode a wide-variety of regulatory proteins.
Q3) Smallpox was eliminated from the human population through the use of antiviral drugs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus
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Q1) Chloroviruses, like PBCV-1, encode enzymes which can produce hyaluronan and chitin, two different saccharide polymers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While mimiviruses encode more of the components of the protein synthesis machinery than other viruses, they still do not produce which of the following?
A) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases.
B) Ribosomes
C) tRNA methyltransferases
D) tRNAs
E) Translation initiation factors
Q3) All of the following virus families are members of the superfamily of Nucleo-Cytoplasmic Large DNA viruses EXCEPT...
A) Phycodnaviridae
B) Adenoviridae
C) Mimiviridae
D) Poxviridae
E) Asfarviridae
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Chapter 28: Retroviruses
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Q1) Retroviruses only integrate into a few very sequence specific sites within the host cell genome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The double-stranded proviral genome of retroviruses is longer than the incoming single-stranded RNA genome.What is the function of this extra DNA sequence and where did it come from?
Q3) Nontransforming retroviruses can cause an infected cell to become tumorigenic by doing which of the following?
A) The virus inactivates the cellular pRb protein.
B) Integrating into and disrupting a cellular oncogene.
C) Inducing the host cell to enter S phase and begin DNA replication.
D) Integrating into and disrupting a tumor suppressor gene.
E) Integrating the LTR adjacent to a proto-oncogene.
Q4) What is the enzymatic function of the RNaseH activity of reverse transcriptase?
A) It converts RNA sequence to DNA sequence.
B) It converts RNA sequence to RNA sequence.
C) It degrades single-stranded RNA.
D) It degrades RNA in an RNA:DNA hybrid.
E) It degrades RNA in an RNA:RNA hybrid.
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Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for HIV?
A) Sexual contact.
B) Breast milk.
C) Aerosoled particles.
D) Blood transfusions.
E) Contaminated needles.
Q2) HIV-1 is a member of which of the following subgroups of retroviruses?
A) Acute transforming retroviruses
B) Nontransforming retroviruses
C) Alpharetroviruses
D) Lentiviruses
E) Spumaviruses
Q3) The majority of individuals infected with HIV develop AIDS 8-10 years after the initial infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Monkeys infected with a mutant of SIV that lacks the Nef coding sequence have reduced virus titers and less severe disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses
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Q1) The drug Lamivudine (3TC)has been shown to inhibit which step in the infectious cycle of hepatitis B virus?
A) Binding and entry into the host cell.
B) Reverse transcription of the viral genome.
C) Transcription of the viral genome.
D) Translation of the viral mRNAs.
E) Assembly of new virions.
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms prevents packaging of the preC mRNA into the virion of hepatitis B virus?
A) Binding of the P protein to the packaging site prevents the C protein from binding.
B) Binding of the C protein to the packaging site prevents the P protein from binding.
C) Translation of the C open reading frame blocks the packaging site.
D) Translation of the preC reading frame blocks the packaging site.
E) Translation of the P open reading frame blocks the packaging site.
Q3) Compare and contrast the genome replication cycles of retroviruses and hepadnaviruses, like hepatitis B virus.
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Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus
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Q1) What is surprising about the observation that a cellular RNA polymerase copies the viroid genome?
A) RNA polymerases usually require a pre-existing RNA primer.
B) RNA polymerases usually transcribe from a DNA template.
C) RNA polymerases don't usually synthesize DNA.
D) RNA polymerases don't usually initiate synthesis from a protein primer.
E) RNA polymerases are not found in the cytoplasm of the host cell.
Q2) The enzymatic function that cleaves the avocado sunblotch viroid genome is called a ribozyme and does not require any proteins to function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following groups of organisms do viroids cause disease in?
A) Plants
B) Insects
C) Mammals
D) Algae
E) Paramecia
Q4) Describe how the ribozyme activity found in the plant virioids and hepatitis delta virus can be used as therapeutic agents to treat infections with other viruses.
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Chapter 32: Prions
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Q1) Which of the following describes the primary difference between the normal PrP protein and the disease version of the protein (PrP ).
A) PrP contains additional octapeptide repeats at the N-terminus.
B) PrP contains more beta sheet structure than PrP .
C) PrP lacks the sugar residues that are attached to PrP .
D) PrP is not exposed on the surface of the cell.
E) PrP does not bind to copper like PrP does.
Q2) Prions from one species do not easily cause prion diseases in animals of a different species.Which of the following may explain why?
A) The host cell needs to have the correct receptor for entry of the Prp protein.
B) The host needs to have the correct proteases for the proper processing of the PrP protein.
C) The host cell needs to provide the correct glycosylation pattern on the Prp protein.
D) The Prp protein needs to interact with a PrP protein with the same amino acid sequence.
E) There are other host related proteins involved in the development of a prion disease.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus
Infection
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Q1) The interferon system induces the expression of two inactive enzymes.Name these two enzymes, explain how are they activated, and describe the advantage of producing them as inactive proteins?
Q2) Besides their subcellular locations, which of the following distinguishes TLR-2 from TLR-3?
A) Only TLR-2 can recognize viral capsid proteins.
B) Only TLR-2 can recognize viral glycoproteins.
C) Only TLR-2 can recognize viral ssRNA.
D) Only TLR-2 can recognize CpG motifs on viral DNA.
E) Only TLR-2 can recognize viral dsRNA.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the intrinsic cellular defenses against virus infections?
A) They act rapidly after infection with the virus.
B) They can act locally at the site of the infection.
C) They involve pathogen detection receptors.
D) They involve the release of cytokines and interferon.
E) They are specific for a certain type of virus.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to
Virus Infection
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Q1) Pathogen specific B and T lymphocytes are mostly localized in specialized organs of the lymphatic system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The constant region of an antibody molecule is only located on the light chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A single plasma cell can secrete two different antibodies that recognize different epitopes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antigen presenting cells, like dendritic cells, interact with naïve T and B lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Antibodies are produced by CD4 positive T lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
36
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Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines
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Q1) Which of the following was a major development in 1931 that helped in the production of antiviral vaccines?
A) The invention of the Petri dish.
B) The ability to grow viruses in chicken eggs.
C) The development of the agar based culture system.
D) The invention of the electron microscope.
E) The development of primary cell culture systems.
Q2) Early vaccines for rabies virus that contained rabbit spinal chord proteins caused autoimmune reactions in some people.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a vaccine that is composed of a live wild-type virus?
A) Influenza virus vaccine
B) Measles virus vaccine
C) Vaccinia virus
D) Chickenpox virus vaccine
E) Polio virus vaccine
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Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy
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Q1) The anti-influenza drug amantadine blocks entry of the virion by raising the pH of the endosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the targeted-based high throughput screen approach to the discovery of new antiviral drugs.What makes a good viral target for this approach?
Q3) Which of the following describes how the nonnucleoside inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase are different than the nucleoside inhibitors?
A) The nonnucleoside inhibitors prevent addition of the next nucleotide.
B) The nonnucleoside inhibitors do not bind to the active site of the enzyme.
C) The nonnucleoside inhibitors must be activated by the cellular thymidine kinase.
D) The nonnucleoside inhibitors prevent synthesis of the reverse transcriptase.
E) The nonnucleoside inhibitors lack a 3' OH group.
Q4) Like other antiviral drugs that inhibit the HIV1 reverse transcriptase, nevirapine is a nucleoside analogue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors
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Q1) Which of the following is a major disadvantage of using a vector based on adeno-associated virus (AAV)rather than an adenovirus or a retrovirus?
A) The DNA of the AAV vectors integrates into specific location in the genome.
B) The virus is toxic to human cells.
C) It infects cells of the immune system, causing a strong immune response.
D) The immune system reacts very strongly to the AAV proteins.
E) The small genome can only tolerate an insert of 4.5kb.
Q2) Which of the following is the primary reason why it is difficult to produce packaging cell lines for both retrovirus and adenovirus vectors?
A) The proteins are degraded by the proteasome in the cell.
B) It is difficult to express high levels of the proteins.
C) Many of the required viral proteins are toxic to the cell.
D) The immune system recognizes the proteins and kills the cell.
E) The proteins stimulate the RNAi defenses in the cell.
Q3) RNA virus vectors do not require the same enhancer/promoter sequences as DNA virus vectors.
A)True
B)False
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