

General Science
Test Questions

Course Introduction
General Science provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts and principles of the physical, life, and earth sciences. This course explores topics such as the scientific method, the basics of physics and chemistry, the diversity and structure of living organisms, human biology, and the physical characteristics of the Earth and space. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical experiments, students will develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills, and gain an understanding of how science impacts everyday life and the world around them.
Recommended Textbook
Physical Science 9th Edition by Bill Tillery
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24 Chapters
724 Verified Questions
724 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: What Is Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a SI unit of the property it measures?
A)length - meter
B)volume - liter
C)time - second
D)mass - kilogram
Answer: B
Q2) The re-creation of an event by comparing two situations in which all the factors are identical except one is called a A)tentative experiment.
B)cause and effect demonstration.
C)statistical test of truth.
D)controlled experiment.
Answer: D
Q3) One of the basic differences between science and a pseudoscience is the lack of A)data.
B)valid and reliable experimental studies.
C)testable hypotheses.
D)theories.
Answer: B
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Page 3

Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the equation w = mg, it is apparent that weight is a (an)
A)force.
B)mass.
C)acceleration.
D)None of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) Newton's second law states that if an unbalanced force acts on an object, it will move at constant velocity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Gravity is an attractive force between
A)all massive objects.
B)Earth and objects on Earth.
C)Earth and Moon, and objects on Earth.
D)all objects everywhere.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Roughly, what fraction of our nation's current energy needs is supplied by coal?
A)10%
B)20%
C)40%
D)80%
Answer: B
Q2) Which one of the following does not have the same units as the others?
A)kinetic energy
B)momentum
C)potential energy
D)work
Answer: B
Q3) The energy an object has because of its position is called potential energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Energy is not conserved when a moving object slows to a stop.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Page 5
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Chapter 4: Heat and Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water molecules move back and forth between the liquid and gaseous phases
A)only when the space above a liquid is not saturated.
B)only at 100ºC.
C)only when the humidity is low.
D)at all times.
Q2) Molecules in a solid
A)are harder than molecules in liquids or gases.
B)transfer heat to their neighbors by a process called convection.
C)have no internal energy because they are not moving around.
D)are held in nearly fixed positions by strong attractive forces.
Q3) Which thermodynamic law says that you cannot convert 100 percent of a heat source into mechanical energy?
A)first law of thermodynamics
B)second law of thermodynamics
C)third law of thermodynamics
D)law of increasing entropy
Q4) The molecules of a gas are much farther apart than molecules in a solid or liquid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Wave Motions and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) In longitudinal waves, the medium
A)vibrates in a direction perpendicular to the direction of motion of the wave.
B)vibrates in the same direction the wave is moving.
C)moves in sort of a circular motion.
D)doesn't vibrate; the disturbance just moves through the medium.
Q2) Waves that move through air are transverse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The frequency is the time required for one complete cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The lowest frequency possible in a vibrating string undergoing resonance is A)the fundamental frequency.
B)determines the pitch of the musical note sounded.
C)has one antinode.
D)All of the above.
Q5) A sound of 20 dB intensity is twice as loud as one of 10 dB.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A magnetic field
A)is produced by an excess of stationary electric charges.
B)is produced by a deficiency of stationary electric charges.
C)is produced by moving charges.
D)attracts or repels stationary electric charges.
Q2) A neutral atom that gains one or more electrons is called a (an)
A)negative ion.
B)positive ion.
C)de-ionized atom.
D)positron.
Q3) The unit of electric charge is called a (an)
A)electron.
B)ampere.
C)coulomb.
D)ohm.
Q4) Electric field lines are drawn
A)toward the positive test charge.
B)away from the positive test charge.
C)in such a way as to show the direction of the field.
D)radiating outward like spokes on a wheel.
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Chapter 7: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) The image formed by a plane mirror is
A)virtual.
B)real.
C)a result of diffuse reflection.
D)smaller than the object.
Q2) Nearsightedness, or myopia, can be corrected with what type lens?
A)convex
B)concave
C)reflecting
D)None of the above.
Q3) The Sun appears reddish as it sets because
A)the Sun emits more radiation at longer wavelengths at sunset.
B)more of the shorter, bluer wavelengths are scattered by the dust and haze.
C)the Doppler shift lowers the frequency as a given spot on Earth rotates away from D)the Sun.
E)more of the longer, redder wavelengths are scattered by the atmosphere.
Q4) Glare is light that tends to be polarized predominantly in the horizontal plane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Atoms and Periodic Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atoms in an incandescent gas
A)emit all frequencies of light in a continuous spectrum.
B)emit different frequencies of light depending on its temperature.
C)emit characteristic frequencies of light.
D)absorb, rather than emit light.
Q2) The fact that wavelengths of the four lines in the Balmer series fit a regular pattern was evidence supporting the idea that
A)electrons could exist in only four energy states in a hydrogen atom.
B)there must be four electrons in each hydrogen atom.
C)electrons could only gain or lose specific amounts of energy in hydrogen atoms.
D)electrons were continuously losing energy.
Q3) The quantum mechanical model of the atom differs from the Bohr model in that it
A)considers the electron as a particle.
B)considers the electron as a wave.
C)predicts the specific location of the electron in an atom.
D)states that electrons can only exist at specific distances from the nucleus.
Q4) Protons and neutrons have about the same mass.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ionic compounds are generally
A)white, crystalline solids.
B)gaseous substances.
C)syrupy liquids.
D)amorphous solids.
Q2) Evidence of a chemical reaction includes A)a color change.
B)a change in temperature.
C)the production of a gas.
D)All of the above.
Q3) The breaking and making of chemical bonds can explain chemical reactions and energy flow.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The element M forms a stable ionic compound MCl<sub>2</sub>.If M were allowed to react with bromine, the resulting compound would have the formula A)MBr.
B)M<sub>2</sub>Br.
C)MBr<sub>2</sub>.
D)there is not enough information to tell for sure.
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Chapter 10: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When compounds containing carbon and hydrogen are burned in air, the products are usually carbon dioxide and water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because of our belief in the law of conservation of mass, it seems reasonable that A)in combustion reactions, part of the mass of the reactants must be converted into fire. B)the mass of a newly formed compound cannot be changed. C)molecules cannot be broken down, for the mass would be reduced.
D)the number of atoms of reactants must equal the number of atoms of products.
Q3) The reaction between water solutions of sodium chloride and silver nitrate produces a precipitate: NaCl<sub>(a</sub><sub>q)</sub> + AgNO<sub>3(aq)</sub> \(\rarr\) NaNO<sub>3(aq)</sub> + AgCl<sub>(s)</sub>.This is an example of A)decomposition. B)combination. C)replacement.
D)ion exchange.
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Page 12

Chapter 11: Water and Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Highway departments spread salt on icy roads because the solution process generates heat, which melts the ice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the most likely temperature of the water at the bottom of Lake Superior in the winter?
A)0ºC
B)4ºC
C)10ºC
D)The temperature is variable.
Q3) When a solvent is cooled, it will dissolve
A)more solid.
B)more gas.
C)less gas.
D)the same amount of solid or gas.
Q4) A strong acid is a concentrated solution of the acid.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13

Chapter 12: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organic chemistry is the study of compounds produced by living things.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Alcohols have the carboxyl functional group -COOH.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What would paint thinner, a petroleum distillate, most likely contain?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
B)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
C)C<sub>17</sub>H<sub>34</sub>
D)C<sub>40</sub>H<sub>82</sub>
Q4) Proteins are polypeptides formed by the linkage of many amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Propanol and iso-propanol have
A)the same physical and chemical properties.
B)the same physical, but different chemical properties.
C)different physical, but the same chemical properties.
D)different physical and chemical properties.
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Chapter 13: Nuclear Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of radiation is really the nucleus of a helium atom.
A)alpha
B)beta
C)gamma
D)All of the above.
Q2) A measure of radiation that takes into account the possible biological damage produced by different types of radiation is called a A)rem.
B)rad.
C)roentgen.
D)curie.
Q3) The mass of a nucleus is slightly greater than the sum of the masses of the individual protons and neutrons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alpha radiation is the least dangerous as alpha particles can be stopped by your skin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) How far Polaris appears above the horizon depends on
A)the time of night.
B)your longitude.
C)your latitude.
D)your position on the celestial meridian.
Q2) Which of the following star colors has the highest temperature?
A)blue
B)white
C)yellow
D)red
Q3) The greater the apparent magnitude, the brighter the star.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is evidence for the existence of "dark matter" in the universe?
A)The rate of expansion of the universe is speeding up.
B)Stars eventually use up their fuel and stop shining.
C)The outlying stars in a galaxy appear to rotate more rapidly than expected.
D)Either there is no proof that dark matter exists, or there is no way to calculate its abundance.
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Chapter 15: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brightest object in the sky after the Sun and Moon is
A)Saturn.
B)Jupiter.
C)Mars.
D)Venus.
Q2) The Sun has hundreds of times more mass than all the rest of the solar system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The elements heavier than iron in Earth were formed by the supernova explosions of other stars.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All the evidence indicates that the universe is about how old?
A)6,000 years
B)4.5 billion years
C)13.7 billion years
D)100,000 billion years
Q5) The density of the planet Saturn is so low that it would float in water.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Earth in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average time between two high tides roughly equals the time for a given spot on Earth to rotate so that it is directly under the full Moon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On the Summer Solstice, the Sun rises south of due east, and sets south of due west.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The path of a plane flying due north from a spot on the equator would appear to A)continue due north.
B)curve to the east.
C)curve to the west.
D)form an S-shaped curve.
Q4) In the time 9:00 AM, the "AM" means
A)after morning.
B)after the meridian.
C)astronomical motion.
D)before the meridian.
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18

Chapter 17: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The elements that occur most frequently in minerals found in the crust are A)carbon and oxygen.
B)oxygen and iron.
C)magnesium and iron.
D)silicon and oxygen.
Q2) Very rapid cooling of magma produces glass rather than a mineral.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Basalt and granite are examples of metamorphic rocks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most common rock type in Earth's crust is A)igneous.
B)sedimentary.
C)metamorphic.
D)clastic.
Q5) Silicate minerals make up nearly a quarter of the minerals in Earth's crust. A)True B)False
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Chapter 18: Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seismic waves show a sudden increase at the Mohorovicic discontinuity because the A)mantle material is so much hotter than the crust.
B)composition of minerals on both sides of the layer is different.
C)mantle is so much thicker than the crustal layer.
D)mineral structure is different in this layer than in crustal rock.
Q2) Hot, molten rock moves up from Earth's core, causing the continents to drift apart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The driving force behind the movement of oceanic and continental plates may be A)the rotation of Earth on its axis.
B)movements of Earth's liquid outer core.
C)adjustment of Earth's crust.
D)convection cells within the mantle.
Q4) Most of Earth's mass is contained in the A)crust.
B)mantle.
C)outer core.
D)inner core.
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Building Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chief difference between a joint and a fault is that
A)a joint results from shear stress.
B)jointing takes place at much greater depths than faulting.
C)jointing involves breaking without relative displacement.
D)faults are vertical cracks, whereas joints are horizontal.
Q2) The principle of uniformity states that past geologic processes were very much similar to those of the present.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A rock that experiences plastic strain in response to stress
A)returns to its original shape when the stress is relieved.
B)cannot return to its original shape when the stress is relieved.
C)cracks or fractures.
D)fails to reach its elastic limit.
Q4) The main volcanic mountains are those associated with A)synclines.
B)granitic intrusions.
C)diverging plate boundaries.
D)plates sliding past one another.
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Chapter 20: Shaping Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) One would expect to find deep rich soil layer where the climate is A)wet and warm.
B)dry and cold. C)tropical.
D)arctic.
Q2) Carrying rock fragments to a new location is called A)mechanical weathering. B)chemical weathering. C)erosion.
D)transportation.
Q3) The expansion of freezing water in a crack can cause the crack to widen.This is an example of A)chemical weathering. B)hydration.
C)mechanical weathering. D)exfoliation.
Q4) The limestone caves of Kentucky and New Mexico were formed by the chemical weathering of limestone by carbonation. A)True B)False
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Chapter 21: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were hunting dinosaur fossils, you would be examining rocks from which era?
A)Precambrian
B)Paleozoic
C)Mesozoic
D)Cenozoic
Q2) Index fossils are fossils of distinctive plant or animal species that lived in a specific location for a long time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You would expect to find fossils that most closely resembled current life forms in rocks from which era?
A)Precambrian
B)Paleozoic
C)Mesozoic
D)Cenozoic
Q4) It took a long time before people recognized the connection between fossils and living organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Atmosphere of Earth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The capacity of the air to hold water vapor depends on the temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The solar radiation that does reach Earth's surface
A)is eventually radiated back into space.
B)shows up as an increase in temperature.
C)is re-radiated by Earth largely in the infrared.
D)All of the above.
Q3) The greenhouse effect results in warmer temperatures near the surface because
A)clouds trap infrared radiation near the surface.
B)some of the energy that would ordinarily escape is re-radiated toward the surface.
C)carbon dioxide and water vapor trap infrared radiation.
D)carbon dioxide molecules do not permit radiation to escape.
Q4) An airplane flying at 35,000 feet is above what percent of Earth's atmosphere?
A)50%
B)75%
C)90%
D)99%
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24

Chapter 23: Weather and Climate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Raindrops in a summer rainstorm may have actually started as ice crystals at high altitudes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A parcel of air that is shoved upward into atmospheric air in a state of instability will expand and become cooler
A)than the surrounding air.
B)reaching the same temperature as the surrounding air.
C)but not as cool as the surrounding air.
D)then warmer as it rises.
Q3) From this graph, estimate the temperature of a parcel of air that has risen to 400 m.
A)26ºC
B)27.5ºC
C)25ºC
D)1.5ºC
Q4) Without condensation nuclei, a cooling air mass can become supersaturated.
A)True
B)False
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Earths Waters
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest freshwater reservoir in the world is
A)the oceans.
B)lakes and streams.
C)the atmosphere.
D)glaciers and ice caps.
Q2) Considering only available sunlight and the ability to dissolve gases, the most abundant plant life should be found in a
A)cool, relatively shallow ocean.
B)warm, relatively shallow ocean.
C)cool very deep ocean.
D)warm, very deep ocean.
Q3) The average daily water consumption in the United States is roughly ____ liters/day.
A)150
B)570
C)1,500
D)5,700
Q4) Water that falls in eastern Colorado eventually ends up in the Atlantic Ocean.
A)True
B)False

26
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