General Science Exam Review
Course
Introduction
General Science offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts and principles across the major scientific disciplines, including physics, chemistry, biology, and earth sciences. This course is designed to build foundational scientific literacy, encouraging students to explore how scientific methods and discoveries shape our understanding of the natural world. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical applications, students will develop critical thinking, analytical skills, and an appreciation for the role of science in everyday life and global issues.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physical Science 5th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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29 Chapters
3515 Verified Questions
3515 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Patterns of Motion and Equilibrium
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burl and Paul have a total weight of 1300 N. The tensions in the ropes that support the scaffold they stand on add to 1700 N. The weight of the scaffold itself must be
A)400 N.
B)500 N.
C)600 N.
D)800 N.
Answer: A
Q2) If a freely falling object were somehow equipped with a speedometer on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is 20 m/s<sup>2</sup>, then its speed reading would increase each second by
A)10 m/s.
B)20 m/s.
C)30 m/s.
D)40 m/s.
E)depends on its initial speed.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you drop a pencil while riding on a smoothly riding bus, why does the pencil land at the same place it would if the bus were at rest?
Answer: In accord with Newton's first law, in both cases there is no horizontal force on the dropped pencil, so no change occurs horizontally. The dropped pencil in the moving bus simply keeps up with you as you move, not changing its velocity in the horizontal direction.
Q2) A physicist says that a car moving along a level road is being propelled by the road. Defend this statement.
Answer: It's True. The tires are made to rotate by the engine, and the tire surface is the only point of contact with the road. The turning tires push backward on the road. The tires can only push on the road if the road simultaneously pushes forward on the tires. This forward force is the only force that propels the car along the road. Air resistance occurs also, but this counteracts the propulsion by the road.
Q3) When an object falls through the air and gains velocity, the net force actually A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same whether in air or in a vacuum.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Momentum and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you push for an hour against a stationary wall, you do no work
A)on the wall.
B)at all.
C)both
D)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) A 1-N apple falls to the ground. The apple hits the ground with a force of
A)1 N.
B)2 N.
C)4 N.
D)10 N.
E)not enough information
Answer: E
Q3) The massive ram of a pile driver falling from rest strikes a pile with a speed that depends on the
A)initial height of the ram.
B)initial potential energy of the ram.
C)distance the ram falls.
D)all of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Gravity, Projectiles, and Satellites
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newton discovered
A)gravity.
B)that gravity is universal.
C)neither
Q2) Consider two planets in space that gravitationally attract each other. If the mass of one planet is doubled, and the distance between them doesn't change, then the force between them is
A)one-quarter.
B)half as much.
C)twice as much.
D)four times as much.
E)none of the above
Q3) An object is thrown vertically into the air. Because of air resistance, the time for its descent will be
A)longer than the ascent time.
B)shorter than the ascent time.
C)equal to the ascent time.
D)not enough information
Q4) How is stepping off a curb similar to taking a ride aboard the space shuttle?
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Chapter 5: Fluid Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fish normally displaces its own
A)volume of water.
B)weight of water.
C)both
D)neither
Q2) Buoyant force is greatest on a submerged
A)10-N block of lead.
B)10-N block of aluminum.
C)same on each
Q3) As a helium-filled balloon rises in the air, it becomes A)bigger.
B)more dense.
C)heavier.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) A 1-ton blimp hovers in air. The buoyant force acting on it is A)zero.
B)1 ton.
C)less than 1 ton.
D)more than 1 ton.
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Chapter 6: Thermal Energy and Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temperature at the bottom of Lake Tahoe, high in the Sierra Mountains in California, at this moment is
A)below 4°C.
B)4°C.
C)above 4°C.
D)uncertain.
Q2) When an iron ring is heated, the hole becomes A)smaller.
B)larger.
C)neither
Q3) If the specific heat capacity of water were lower than it is, ponds in the cold of winter would be
A)more likely to freeze.
B)less likely to freeze.
C)neither more nor less likely to freeze.
Q4) A substance that heats up relatively quickly has a A)high specific heat capacity.
B)low specific heat capacity.
C)high or low specific heat capacity.
Q5) Explain what is meant by saying a thermometer measures its own temperature.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Heat Transfer and Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) Keep increasing the shaking of atoms in a solid and it will A)melt.
B)sublime.
C)harden.
Q2) To melt 50 g of 0°C ice requires A)25 calories.
B)50 calories.
C)80 calories.
D)none of the above
Q3) Blow on your hand with your open mouth and you feel the warmth of your breath. Pucker your lips so your breath expands as you blow and your breath is A)still warm.
B)cooler.
C)neither
Q4) When bringing water to a boil in the mountains, the time needed to reach the boiling point is A)less than at sea level.
B)more than at sea level. C)the same as at sea level.
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Chapter 8: Static and Current Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a common dc circuit, electrons typically move at the speed of A)a fraction of a centimeter per second.
B)a few meters per second.
C)sound.
D)light.
E)none of the above
Q2) Compared to the resistance of two resistors connected in series, the same two resistors connected in parallel have A)more resistance.
B)less resistance.
C)the same resistance.
Q3) When a steady voltage is across one-half as much resistance, the current A)is half.
B)remains the same.
C)is doubled.
D)is quadrupled.
Q4) The headlights, radio, and defroster fan in an automobile are connected in A)series.
B)parallel.
C)order of energy efficiency.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Magnetism and Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A transformer has an input of 6 V and an output of 42 V. If the input is changed to 12 V, the output would be
A)12 V.
B)48 V.
C)84 V.
D)none of the above
Q2) A magnetic field exists in a current-carrying coil of wire
A)if it contains a piece of iron.
B)with or without a contained piece of iron.
C)only if the current changes.
Q3) Moving electric charges will interact with A)an electric field.
B)a magnetic field.
C)both
D)none of the above
Q4) An electric generator of itself
A)can produce enough energy to light cities.
B)cannot produce energy, but convert energy of other forms to electric energy.
C)neither
Q5) What is the connection, if any, between electromagnetic induction and sunshine?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) A wave barrier is produced in water when the speed of an object
A)matches the speed of waves in water.
B)exceeds the speed of waves in water.
C)is less than the speed of waves in water.
D)none of the above
Q2) A standing wave occurs when A)two waves overlap.
B)a wave reflects upon itself.
C)the speed of the wave is zero or near zero.
D)the amplitude of a wave exceeds its wavelength.
Q3) Double the frequency of sound and you also double its A)wavelength.
B)speed.
C)amplitude.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) If you double the frequency of a vibrating object, its period A)doubles.
B)is half.
C)is one quarter.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reflected light from the Moon in a lake often appears as a vertical column when the water is
A)perfectly still.
B)slightly rough.
C)very rough-churning with waves.
Q2) It is difficult to see the roadway in front of you when you are driving on a rainy night mainly because
A)light scatters from raindrops.
B)of added condensation on the inner surface of the windshield.
C)the film of water on your windshield is an additional reflecting surface.
D)the film of water on the roadway makes the road less diffuse.
E)none of the above
Q3) Standing at the shore of a still lake, the reflected view of scenery on the far side of the lake is the view you would see if you were upside down with your eye in the line of sight
A)where it presently is.
B)at the surface of the water where the light reflects.
C)directly beneath you, as far below water level as you are above.
D)close to the distant shore.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 12: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) How might you distinguish a sodium-vapor street lamp from a mercury-vapor street lamp?
A)use binoculars to look for printing adjacent to the bulb
B)look at the street lamps through a spectroscope and match their spectral patterns to their respective atomic spectra
C)ask your local utility company to identify these lamps for you
D)The shadows cast from a sodium-vapor street lamp tend to be more diffuse around the edges.
Q2) Which color of light comes from the higher energy transition, red or blue?
A)Blue is a higher frequency and therefore corresponds to a lower energy level transition.
B)Blue is a higher frequency and therefore corresponds to a higher energy level transition.
C)Red is a higher frequency and therefore corresponds to a lower energy level transition. D)Red is a higher frequency and therefore corresponds to a higher energy level transition.
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Chapter 13: The Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A certain radioactive element has a half-life of one hour. If you start with a 1-g sample of the element at noon, how much of this same element will be left at 3:00 PM?
A)0.5 gram
B)0.25 gram
C)0.125 gram
D)0.0625 gram
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes a critical mass?
A)A critical mass is the minimum amount of material that will undergo nuclear detonation.
B)A critical mass is the minimum amount of material that will spontaneously undergo a chain reaction.
C)A critical mass cannot be assembled from smaller, noncritical pieces of material.
D)A critical mass will detonate when it is separated into subcritical pieces.
E)none of the above
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15
Chapter 14: Elements of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
A)gasoline being used in the engine of a car producing exhaust
B)water freezing into ice crystals
C)aftershave or perfume on your skin generating a smell
D)a piece of metal expanding when heated, but returning to original size when cooled
E)breaking a glass window
Q2) How would you describe the size of the following object? a blood cell
A)microscopic
B)macroscopic
C)submicroscopic
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not a chemical change?
A)a rock being crushed to powder
B)grass growing
C)grape juice turning into wine
D)a loaf of bread growing mold
E)wood burning to ash
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16
Chapter 15: How Atoms Bond and Molecules Attract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it so easy for a magnesium atom to lose two electrons?
A)The nuclear charge of the magnesium atoms is relatively weak.
B)These two electrons are found relatively far from the nucleus.
C)These two electrons are well shielded from the nuclear charge.
D)There are lots of electron-electron repulsions that go on within the valence shell.
Q2) Which of the following substances is pure?
A)an ionic compound consisting of sodium and chlorine ions
B)a covalent compound consisting of one type of molecule
C)an element
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) If the concentration of gold in seawater is 2.0 milligram per ton of sea water and the mass of the ocean is 1.5 × 10<sup>18</sup> tons, how much gold is in the ocean?
A)3.0 × 10<sup>12</sup> kg
B)3.0 kg
C)300 g
D)36 mg
E)3,000 lb
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Chapter 16: Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many dry cereals are fortified with iron, which is added to the cereal in the form of small iron particles. How might these particles be separated from the cereal?
A)add water and the iron particles will float to the top
B)blend the cereal to a fine consistency and pass through a filter
C)collect the iron filings with a magnet
D)heat the cereal so that the iron particles melt and thereby coalesce
Q2) Which of the following is a pure substance?
A)baking soda
B)salt water
C)cooking oil
D)duct tape
E)orange juice
Q3) How many moles of water are there in 100. grams of water?
A)1800 moles
B)100 moles
C)0.018 moles
D)5.55 moles
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18
Chapter 17: How Chemicals React
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many moles of water, H<sub>2</sub>O, are produced from the reaction of 16 grams methane, CH<sub>4</sub>, with an unlimited supply of oxygen, O<sub>2</sub>. How many grams of H<sub>2</sub>O is this? CH<sub>4</sub> + 2 O<sub>2</sub> CO<sub>2</sub> + 2 H<sub>2</sub>O
A)0.889 mole, which is 16 grams
B)2.0 moles of water, which is 32 grams
C)2.0 moles of water, which is 36 grams
D)1.0 mole of water, which is 18 grams
Q2) Which is higher in an endothermic reaction: the potential energy of the reactants or the potential energy of the products?
A)The potential energy of the products is higher than the potential energy of the reactants.
B)The potential energy of the reactants is higher than the potential energy of the products.
C)The potential energy of the reactants is the same as the potential energy of the products.
D)In the early stages of the reaction the potential energy of the reactants is higher. In the later stages, the potential energy of the products is higher.
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Chapter 18: Two Classes of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the hydroxide ion concentration in an aqueous solution where the pH = 5?
A)The hydronium ion concentration equals 1 × 10<sup>-9</sup>.
B)The hydronium ion concentration equals 1 × 10<sup>-7</sup>.
C)The hydronium ion concentration equals 1 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
D)The hydronium ion concentration equals 1 ×10<sup>-3</sup>.
Q2) Water is 88.88 percent oxygen by mass. Oxygen is exactly what a fire needs to grow brighter and stronger. So why doesn't a fire grow brighter and stronger when water is added to it?
A)Oxygen in water is already "reduced" from the hydrogen atoms, so this oxygen atom no longer has a great attraction for additional electrons.
B)The oxygen is chemically bound to hydrogen atoms.
C)Oxygen in water is completely different from oxygen O<sub>2</sub>, which is what is required for combustion.
D)all of the above
Q3) What happens to the pH of an acidic solution as water is added?
A)The pH is not influenced by the addition of water.
B)The pH will decrease as the solution becomes more dilute.
C)The pH will increase as the solution becomes more dilute.
D)The pH will decrease since more hydronium ions are produced from the water.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why might a high-formula-mass alcohol be insoluble in water?
A)A high formula mass alcohol would be too attracted to itself to be soluble in water.
B)The bulk of a high formula mass alcohol likely consists of nonpolar hydrocarbons.
C)Such an alcohol would likely be in a solid phase.
D)In order for two substance to be soluble in each other their molecules need to be of comparable mass.
Q2) Which of the following does not describe the number of other atoms a carbon atom can be bonded to?
A)only 2
B)only 3
C)only 4
D)only 5
Q3) Which of the above molecules would most likely have a strong, distinct smell?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)a or d
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21
Chapter 20: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rocks formed by cooling from a molten state are
A)precipitated rocks.
B)igneous rocks.
C)sedimentary rocks.
D)metamorphic rocks.
Q2) A composite volcano is formed by
A)successive flows of fluid basaltic lava.
B)a mixture of rock and lava.
C)alternating layers of lava, ash, and mud flow debris.
D)the accumulation of ash, cinders, and rock debris.
Q3) The last minerals to crystallize from a cooling magma have a
A)high melting point and a low silica content.
B)low melting point and a high silica content.
C)high melting point and a high silica content.
D)low melting point and a low silica content.
Q4) Metamorphic rock that is weathered and broken down into small pieces can become
A)igneous rock.
B)recrystallized.
C)sediments which can then become sedimentary rock.
D)fossilized.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Plate Tectonics and Earths Interior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earth's internal layers were discovered by studying the propagation of P- and Swaves through Earth's interior. In comparison to P-waves, the movement of S-waves are A)faster and compresses and expands the rock as they move through it.
B)faster and vibrates rock particles up and down and side-to-side.
C)slower and can travel through solid granite, magma, water or air; D)slower and they can only travel through solids, not liquids.
Q2) What is the major source of energy responsible for earthquakes in southern California?
Q3) The Richter scale measures an earthquake's A)frequency. B)magnitude.
C)damage.
D)all of the above.
Q4) The asthenosphere is part of the A)crust. B)lithosphere. C)mantle.
D)outer core.
Q5) How can the location and the strength of an earthquake be determined?
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Chapter 22: Shaping Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the discharge of a stream increases, what happens to stream speed?
Q2) The main difference between sand dunes and ripple marks is A)ripple marks are only caused by water.
B)ripple marks are larger than sand dunes.
C)sand dunes are larger than ripple marks.
D)ripple marks are stationary.
Q3) Where does most rainfall on Earth finally end up before becoming rain again?
A)Underground
B)In lakes
C)In the oceans
D)On the ground surface
Q4) A sub-surface region that holds and transmits water is called a/an A)aquifer.
B)hydrometer.
C)water table.
D)aquiclude.
Q5) In the formation of a river delta, why is it that coarser material is deposited first, followed by medium and finer material farther out?
Q6) What is a stalactite and how does it form?
Q7) How does energy relate to the way that streams meander?
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Chapter 23: Geologic Timereading the Rock Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle of superposition states that the top layer of rock is A)igneous.
B)the youngest.
C)sedimentary.
D)the oldest.
Q2) The emergence of terrestrial life-for example, land plants, came about during the A)Triassic.
B)Silurian.
C)Ordovician.
D)Carboniferous era.
Q3) What type of igneous formation would agree with the principle of superposition?
Q4) The most noteworthy event that occurred during the Pleistocene was the A)emergence of the early humans.
B)ice age.
C)appearance of the grasslands.
D)divergence of horses.
Q5) Why is it believed that large parts of the United States were once covered by shallow seas?
Q6) What does the principle of superposition say about the ages of rocks?
25
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Chapter 24: The Oceans, Atmosphere, and Climatic Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) With respect to the stars, the Moon
A)circles the Earth.
B)and the Earth circle each other.
C)remains stationary while the Earth circles about it.
D)does not rotate about its own axis as the Earth does.
Q2) At lower elevations the air is generally
A)warm and heavy.
B)warm and light.
C)cool and heavy.
D)cool and light.
Q3) Air temperature and pressure with increasing elevation and as you approach sea level.
A)decrease; increase
B)increases; decreases
C)cools and thins; warms and thins
D)cools and becomes denser; warms and becomes more dense
Q4) The amount of carbon dioxide emissions from fossil fuel combustion has increased with population. Yet the amount of carbon dioxide emitted is greater than the amount found in the atmosphere. Where is the likely repository of excess atmospheric carbon dioxide?
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Chapter 25: Driving Forces of Weather
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although tornadoes occur in many parts of the world, they are very common
A)along the Gulf Coast.
B)in the northeastern part of the United States.
C)in the Central Plains.
D)on the western slopes of the Rockies.
Q2) When water changes from a liquid to a vapor, it
A)loses energy.
B)gives off energy.
C)gains energy.
D)radiates energy.
Q3) As air temperature decreases, relative humidity A)drops.
B)stays the same.
C)decreases.
D)increases.
Q4) What is a temperature inversion?
Q5) What are the three main atmospheric lifting mechanisms?
Q6) Why does a drop in air pressure indicate the coming of cloudy weather and a rise in air pressure indicate clear weather?
Q7) What happens to the water vapor in saturated air as the air cools?
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Chapter 26: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason that the Moon takes on a crescent shape each month has to do with the A)Earth's shadow.
B)Sun's position.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) How do the wind speeds of the Martian atmosphere compare with those of Earth?
A)About the same as Earth's
B)About one tenth of Earth's
C)About 50% of Earth's
D)About ten times more than Earth's
Q3) With each pass of a comet about the Sun, its mass A)is appreciably reduced.
B)remains virtually unchanged.
C)actually increases.
Q4) Evidence of the solar wind on Earth is the A)meteor showers in the upper atmosphere. B)solar sunspots.
C)preponderance of hurricanes at lower latitudes. D)higher ocean tides in winter. E)Aurora Borealis.
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Chapter 27: Stars and Galaxies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the fate of planet Earth if the Sun were to collapse to a black hole.
Q2) Compared to most stellar objects, quasars are more A)distant.
B)energetic.
C)puzzling.
D)all of these
E)none of these
Q3) What event marks the birth of a star, and what event marks its death?
Q4) The North Star has very little apparent rotation in the night sky because A)it lies directly above the Earth's axis of spin.
B)it rotates in the same relative orbit as Earth.
C)its rate of spin directly matches Earth's.
D)the Oort cloud distorts the view of the naked eye.
Q5) Because a white dwarf is no longer burning fuel, it is more accurately described as being a
A)stellar remnant
B)failed star
C)protostar
D)black elf
Q6) What happens to a star when the fusion cycle gets to the element iron?
Page 29
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Chapter 28: The Structure of Space and Time
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relativity is the
A)study of how space, energy, and mass are related to time.
B)concept that there are no absolutes that can be postulated.
C)idea that space bends in relationship to the square of the mass contained within it.
D)study of wormholes and time travel.
Q2) The universe as a whole is
A)curved.
B)flat.
C)the shape of a saddle.
D)has yet to be determined, although most astrophysical data points to a flat universe.
Q3) Astronomers who subscribe to the Big Bang theory believe the Big Bang occurred A)about 14 billion years ago.
B)at the beginning of time.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) Space and time are A)bound together.
B)independent entities.
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Chapter 29: Prologue: the Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) In science, a theory is A)an educated guess.
B)less than a fact.
C)a synthesis of a large body of well-tested knowledge.
D)unchangeable.
Q2) Success in science is mainly linked to emphasis on A)experiments.
B)luck.
C)trial and error.
D)philosophical discussions.
Q3) A truly educated person is knowledgeable about A)science.
B)the arts.
C)religion.
D)all of the above
Q4) When a scientist is dishonest and reports false information, he or she A)will usually be excused by the scientific community.
B)after an apology, will be excused by the scientific community.
C)gets no second chance in the scientific community.
D)will likely be burned at the stake.
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