General Science
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
General Science provides a comprehensive overview of fundamental concepts across various scientific disciplines, including physics, chemistry, biology, earth science, and environmental science. This course emphasizes the development of scientific literacy by exploring basic principles, scientific methods, and real-world applications. Students will learn critical thinking skills as they investigate natural phenomena, analyze data, and conduct simple experiments. Through a blend of theoretical knowledge and hands-on activities, the course aims to foster curiosity and a deeper understanding of how science shapes our daily lives and the world around us.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 14th Edition by James Shipman(Numbers)
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a fundamental quantity?
A) Weight
B) Length
C) Time
D) Mass
Answer: A
Q2) What does 4 × 10<sup>-12</sup> times 3 × 10<sup>-8</sup> divided by 2 × 10<sup>24</sup> equal?
Answer: 6 * 10<sup>-44</sup>?
Q3) The natural sciences are divided into physical sciences and ______________ sciences.
Answer: biological
Q4) A cubic centimeter of pure water at maximum density has a mass of
A) 1 g.
B) 1 kg.
C) 1 cg.
D) 1 lb.
E) none of these
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student travels from St.Louis to Indianapolis,a distance of 210 mi,in 6.0 h.The return trip over the same route takes 7.0 h.What is the average speed for
a. the first half of the trip?
b. the second half of the trip?
c. the total trip?
Answer: a.35 mi/h
b.30 mi/h
c.32 mi/h
Q2) As a block slides down a 33° frictionless incline,its acceleration
A) decreases with distance.
B) remains constant.
C) is greatest at the bottom of the incline.
D) is greatest at the top of the incline.
Answer: B
Q3) For there to be an acceleration,there must necessarily be a change in
Answer: velocity
Q4) Distance is a(n)______________ quantity.
Answer: scalar
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Chapter 3: Force and Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) G (big G)is not a(n)______________,as g (little g)is. Answer: acceleration
Q2) A mass is accelerated when ______________ acts upon the mass.
A) a balanced force
B) any force
C) no force
D) an unbalanced force
E) none of these
Answer: D
Q3) Calculate the centripetal force on a 3.0-kg object moving in a horizontal circular path of 20-m radius with a speed of 8.0 m/s.
Answer: 9.6 N
Q4) A change in motion requires a(n)______________. Answer: force (unbalanced or net)
Q5) A 6.0-kg object exerts a force of 8.0 N on a 2.0-kg object.What is the magnitude of the force on the 6.0-kg object?
Answer: 8.0 N
Q6) To initiate motion,a(n)______________ force is necessary. Answer: unbalanced,or net
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Work and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is(are)drawbacks to the use of methane hydrate as a fuel?
A) When melted, it produces methane, a greenhouse gas.
B) It is difficult to mine as a solid located at the bottom of the oceans.
C) It is mixed with water.
D) All of these are drawbacks associated with methane hydrate.
Q2) The quantity \(\frac { 1 } { 2 } m v ^ { 2 }\) is known as
A) kinetic energy.
B) potential energy.
C) work.
D) energy.
E) power.
Q3) Besides fossil fuels,the only other significant commercial sources of energy are ______________ and ______________.
Q4) The product of one ______________ and one meter is one joule.
Q5) The average adult radiates heat energy at the same rate as
A) a 10-W light bulb.
B) a 100-kW light bulb.
C) a 100-W light bulb.
D) none of these.
Q6) The SI unit of power is the ______________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Temperature and Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to a sample of water when it is heated between 4°C and 100°C?
A) Its volume increases.
B) Its volume is reduced.
C) It vaporizes.
D) Nothing changes except its temperature.
Q2) What happens to a sample of water when its temperature is reduced between 0°C and 4°C?
A) Its density increases.
B) It vaporizes.
C) Its density decreases.
D) Its density remains constant.
Q3) A temperature of -65 Kelvin is equivalent to _____ degrees Celsius.
A) 219.1
B) 208.0
C) -53.9
D) -338.2
Q4) The SI unit of heat is the ______________.
Q5) How much heat is necessary to change 20 g of ice at -10°C into water at 20°C?
Q6) Solids,liquids,and gases are called ______________ of matter.
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Q7) ______________ is the process whereby energetic molecules escape from a liquid.
Chapter 6: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s)outside the audible range?
A) 14 Hz
B) 11 kHz
C) 2700 Hz
D) All of these
Q2) When a jet plane exceeds the speed of sound,a(n)______________ forms,resulting in a sonic boom.
Q3) Sounds with frequencies higher than the human ear can detect are in the ______________ range.
Q4) A Doppler red shift indicates
A) a shift toward higher frequencies.
B) a shift toward shorter wavelengths.
C) that a light source is approaching relative to the observer.
D) none of these.
Q5) Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s)in the audible range?
A) 26 Hz
B) 27 kHz
C) 1 MHz
D) All of these
Q6) Of the two main types of waves,light is a(n)______________ wave.
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Chapter 7: Optics and Wave Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike spherical mirrors,spherical lenses do not have a focal length equal to ______________.
Q2) If a ray of light passes from air into glass,the light will A) travel along the normal. B) bend toward the normal. C) bend away from the normal. D) continue traveling in the same direction.
Q3) FM radio reception may be blocked by buildings because the wavelengths are too short to be ______________ around buildings.
Q4) Reflection from rough surfaces is called ______________ reflection.
Q5) The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is known as the index of A) reflection.
B) refraction.
C) diffraction.
D) none of these.
Q6) A simple magnifying glass has a focal length of 6.0 cm.An object is placed 4.0 cm from it.Sketch a ray diagram and give the characteristics of the image.
Q7) For total internal reflection,light is reflected and none is ______________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A moving electric charge or a current in a magnetic field may experience a(n)______________.
Q2) A 10- resistor and a 20- resistor are connected in parallel,and this combination is connected in series to a 30- resistor.If the arrangement is hooked to a 12-V battery,how much current flows in the circuit?
Q3) A motor converts
A) electricity into magnetism.
B) electrical energy into mechanical energy.
C) mechanical energy into electrical energy.
D) force into power.
Q4) In a(n)______________,electrons do not move freely.
Q5) The expression V = IR is called ______________.
Q6) A(n)______________ is an elementary particle with a charge of -1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
A) electron
B) neutron
C) proton
D) atom
Q7) Power may be expressed as _____________ times resistance.
Q8) Voltage has the units of ______________,which is called a volt.
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Chapter 9: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an electron goes from an excited state to the ground state, A) energy is absorbed.
B) a photon is absorbed.
C) a photon is emitted.
D) none of these occur.
Q2) The quantity h in the Bohr theory is called ______________.
Q3) The removal of an electron from an atom is called A) binding affinity.
B) atomizing.
C) electron affinity.
D) ionization.
Q4) In the electron cloud model,or quantum model,of the atom,the focus is on the ______________ nature of the electron.
Q5) A beam of laser light is
A) neither monochromatic nor coherent.
B) monochromatic but not coherent.
C) coherent but not monochromatic.
D) both monochromatic and coherent.
Q6) The concept of the dual nature of light indicates that electromagnetic waves sometimes act like ______________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many protons does Radon have?
A) 6
B) 101
C) 31
D) 103
E) 86
Q2) Complete the equation,and state what type of decay is occurring.
\[{ } _ { 53 } ^ { 131 } \mathrm { I } \rightarrow { } _ { 54 } ^ { 131 } \mathrm { Xe } +\]
Q3) The primary function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is to
A) absorb neutrons.
B) cool the fuel rods.
C) slow down neutrons.
D) transfer heat.
Q4) The number of neutrons in a triton is ______________.
Q5) Which type of hydrogen is referred to as "heavy hydrogen"?
A) Tritium
B) Hydronium
C) Protium
D) Deuterium
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Chapter 11: The Chemical Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most modern definition of element is
A) a substance that cannot be further separated by chemical methods.
B) the simplest form of matter.
C) a substance in which all the atoms have the same number of protons.
D) a substance that contains no neutrons.
Q2) Which of the following is not matter?
A) Air
B) Heat
C) Charcoal
D) Electrons
Q3) The molecular formula of "buckyball" is ______________.
Q4) A chocolate chip cookie is a good example of
A) a compound.
B) an element.
C) a homogeneous mixture.
D) a heterogeneous mixture.
Q5) The elements that hardly ever react with other elements to form compounds are called the ______________.
Q6) The three allotropes of carbon are graphite,the fullerenes,and ______________.
Q7) A solid solution of two or more metals is called a(n)______________.
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Chapter 12: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) When sodium and chlorine react to form sodium chloride,an ionic compound,
A) each sodium atom gains two electrons.
B) each sodium atom gains one electron.
C) each chlorine atom gains one electron.
D) each chlorine atom gains two electrons.
Q2) The percentage by mass of chlorine
A) would be the same in FeCl<sub>3</sub> as in FeCl<sub>2</sub>.
B) would be greater in FeCl<sub>3</sub> than in FeCl<sub>2</sub>.
C) would be less in FeCl<sub>3</sub> than in FeCl<sub>2</sub>.
D) cannot be determined without additional information.
Q3) The force responsible for chemical bonding is
A) nuclear.
B) electromagnetic.
C) none of these.
D) gravitational.
Q4) Another name for solid carbon dioxide is
A) heavy water.
B) Epsom salt.
C) dry ice.
D) quicksilver.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution with a pH of 14 is
A) strongly acidic.
B) weakly basic.
C) strongly basic.
D) weakly acidic.
Q2) A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when
A) no reactants are changing to products.
B) the forward and reverse reactions proceed at the same rate.
C) the total mass has become constant.
D) the temperature is no longer changing.
Q3) Which acid is present in vinegar?
A) HCl
B) H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
D) HC<sub>2</sub>H<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
Q4) An ionic compound formed from a cation other than H<sup>+</sup> and an anion other than OH<sup>-</sup> is called a(n)______________.
Q5) The definitions of an acid and a base as substances that give H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup> ions,respectively,in water were proposed by the chemist named
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Chapter 14: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) CH<sub>2</sub> OHCHOHCH<sub>2</sub> OH is the structural formula for the compound named ______________.
Q2) Hydrocarbons with the general formula C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2</sub><sub>n</sub><sub>+2</sub> are called ______________.
Q3) CH<sub>3</sub>COOH is the structural formula for the compound named ______________.
Q4) How many constitutional isomers that are dibromopropanes exist?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 7
D) 3
E) 6
Q5) The most common aromatic hydrocarbon is a clear,colorless liquid named A) naphthalene. B) hexane. C) benzene. D) ethanol. E) methane.
Q6) n-Butane and isobutane are the two ______________ of C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>.
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Chapter 15: Place and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shortest-daylight day for people in the Northern Hemisphere at latitudes greater than 30°N occurs at the
A) summer solstice.
B) vernal equinox.
C) winter solstice.
D) autumnal equinox.
Q2) On March 21,the noonday Sun is overhead at what latitude?
A) 0°
B) 23.5°N
C) 23.5°S
D) That of the Tropic of Cancer
Q3) A ______________ is always longer than a ______________ .
A) solar day; sidereal day
B) solar day; mean solar day
C) sidereal day; solar day
D) mean solar day; solar day
Q4) The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by the Sun is known as the ______________ solar day.
Q5) A line of equal latitude is called a(n)______________.
Q6) The main purpose of DST is to save ______________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest volcano on Earth is in ______________.
Q2) The Moon's albedo is ______________.
Q3) That a planet moves with different speeds in its orbit is given by which of Kepler's laws?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Q4) The point of a planet's orbit farthest from the Sun is called the ______________.
Q5) Other planetary systems are detected by a "wobbling" of the star as a consequence of ______________ effects of a planet.
Q6) The motion of a Foucault pendulum proves that Earth is
A) rotating.
B) revolving.
C) precessing.
D) an oblate spheroid.
Q7) The Great Red Spot is a feature of ______________.
Q8) The planet with the polar "ice caps" of frozen carbon dioxide is ______________.
Q9) In 1851,Earth's rotation was demonstrated using a(n)______________.
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Chapter 17: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long-period comets are believed to come from the ______________.
Q2) Spring tides occur close to the time of ______________ moon.
A) the new
B) the first-quarter
C) both the new and the full
D) the last-quarter
Q3) The highest tides are called ______________ tides.
Q4) The Moon completes one orbit around Earth about every
A) 29.5 days.
B) 7 days.
C) 365 days.
D) sidereal day.
Q5) The ______________ surrounds the nucleus of a comet.
Q6) At the time of a full moon,an astronaut on the Moon looking at Earth would see a A) full Earth moon.
B) first-quarter Earth moon.
C) last-quarter Earth moon.
D) new Earth moon.
Q7) A huge bull's-eye formation is a distinctive feature of Jupiter's moon
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Chapter 18: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Big Dipper is a(n)
A) cluster of galaxies.
B) constellation.
C) galaxy.
D) asterism.
Q2) A star of magnitude 0 is how many times brighter than a star of magnitude 6?
Q3) The Sun is a(n)______________.
Q4) Clusters containing clusters of galaxies are called ______________.
Q5) Our home galaxy is called the ______________.
Q6) Which of the following is thought to be a black hole?
A) Gleise 229B
B) Sirius B
C) Orion Nebula
D) Cygnus X-1
Q7) If the magnitude difference between one star and another is 8,the stars differ in brightness by a factor of A) 2.51.
B) 20.
C) 7.
D) 1580.
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Chapter 19: The Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) A normal lapse rate of 3.5 °F/1000 ft is equivalent to
A) 3.5 °C/m.
B) 1.9 °C/1000 ft.
C) 3.5 °C/1000 ft.
D) 6.5 °C/1000 ft.
Q2) The fraction of incident light that a body reflects is called its ______________.
Q3) If the ground-level air temperature is 20°C,what is the air temperature at the top of the troposphere (16 km),assuming a normal lapse rate?
Q4) The blueness of the sky results from
A) preferential scattering of light by gas molecules.
B) the lapse rate.
C) the greenhouse effect.
D) latent heat.
Q5) The second most abundant gas in the atmosphere is A) oxygen.
B) nitrogen.
C) water vapor.
D) carbon dioxide.
Q6) The ozone layer absorbs ______________ radiation.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Atmospheric Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lightning between a cloud and the surrounding air is called ______________.
Q2) Snowstorms accompanied by high winds and low temperatures are called A) blizzards.
B) ice storms.
C) hail storms.
D) tornados.
Q3) The low-pressure center of a hurricane is called the A) eye.
B) vortex.
C) lid.
D) cap.
Q4) Which of the following is formed by direct freezing of water droplets?
A) Dew
B) Snow
C) Sleet
D) Frost
Q5) A common fuel impurity in fossil fuels is ______________.
Q6) Conditions opposite to those of El Niño conditions are called ______________.
Q7) A color-coded ______________ Index is used to indicate how good or bad the air is,in terms of pollution.
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Chapter 21: Structural G Eology and P Late Tectonics
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Q1) The lowest places on Earth's surface are called ______________ trenches.
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the three types of plate boundaries?
A) Diverging
B) Converging
C) Fault-block
D) Transform
Q3) Because of the ______________ zones formed by S and P waves as they travel through Earth,the outer core is thought to be a viscous liquid.
Q4) A(n)______________ is manifested by the vibrating and sometimes violent movement of Earth's surface.
A) Moho
B) volcano
C) earthquake
D) asthenosphere
Q5) Evidence of seafloor spreading along the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is given by A) sea life.
B) remanent magnetism.
C) ocean currents.
D) glaciation.
Q6) The Himalayas in Asia are examples of ______________ mountains.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Minerals, rocks, and Volcanoes
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Q1) Molten rock material on Earth's surface is known as ______________.
Q2) The sedimentary rock known as ______________ consists of rounded pebbles cemented together by silica,calcium carbonate,or iron oxide.
Q3) Dikes are examples of ______________ plutons.
A) discordant
B) concordant
C) recordant
D) precordant
Q4) The existence of the Ring of Fire is best explained by the A) theory of plate tectonics.
B) principle of superposition.
C) concept of uniformitarianism.
D) law of catastrophism.
Q5) Magma viscosity depends on the ______________ content and the temperature of the magma.
Q6) Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock?
A) Sandstone
B) Schist
C) Slate
D) Marble
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Q1) What type of glacier is formed when a valley floor is covered with compressed glacial ice?
A) Continental glacier
B) Stream glacier
C) Valley glacier
D) Cirque glacier
Q2) The continuous circulation of Earth's water is known as the A) hydrologic cycle.
B) aqua cycle.
C) redistribution cycle.
D) hydrogeologic cycle.
Q3) The principal landform resulting from a stream's erosive power is its ______________-shaped valley.
A) V
B) W
C) M
D) I
Q4) A large body of permeable rock or soil through which groundwater moves is called a(n)______________.
Q5) Frost wedging is a common type of ______________ weathering.
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Q1) Which of the following is not a feature of a good index fossil?
A) Numerous specimens found
B) Occurrence limited to a few localities
C) Easily identified species
D) Limited time span of existence
Q2) The Jurassic is a(n)
A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q3) The Triassic period is part of which era?
A) Cenozoic
B) Mesozoic
C) Paleozoic
D) Jurrasic
Q4) Trilobites lived during which era?
A) Paleozoic
B) Cenozoic
C) Mesozoic
D) Archeozoic
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