General Psychology Textbook Exam Questions - 7014 Verified Questions

General Psychology

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

General Psychology provides a comprehensive introduction to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. The course covers foundational concepts including biological bases of behavior, learning, cognition, emotion, motivation, development across the lifespan, personality, psychological disorders, and social interactions. Students will explore key theories, research methods, and applications of psychology in everyday life, fostering an understanding of both individual and group behavior. Through lectures, discussions, and practical activities, the course aims to develop critical thinking skills and an appreciation of psychologys relevance to personal and societal issues.

Recommended Textbook

Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by

Sandra E. Hockenbury

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70 Chapters

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which perspective in contemporary psychology was influenced by Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow? What does this perspective focus on?

Answer: The answer should include the following information: The humanistic perspective was influenced by Carl Rogers and Maslow's development of a theoretical framework for motivation. This approach focuses on the motivation of people to grow psychologically, the influence of interpersonal relationships on a person's self-concept, and the importance of choice and self-direction in striving to reach one's potential.

Q2) As a critical thinker, it is important to follow four steps when determining the validity of a particular claim presented in a research study. List the four steps.

Answer: The answer should include the following information:Answer: Identify the claim.Answer: Evaluate the evidence.Answer: Consider alternative explanations.Answer: Consider the source of the research or claim.

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3

Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Who made the statement "Behaviorism, on the contrary, holds that the subject matter of human psychology is the behavior of the human being. Behaviorism claims that consciousness is neither a definite nor a usable concept. The behaviorist, who has been trained always as an experimentalist, holds, further, that belief in the existence of consciousness goes back to the ancient days of superstition and magic."?

A)Sigmund Freud

B)Edward B. Titchener

C)William James

D)John B. Watson

Answer: D

Q2) _____ is to structuralism as _____ is to functionalism.

A)Wilhelm Wundt; Edward Titchener

B)William James; Mary Whiton Calkins

C)Edward Titchener; William James

D)Mary Whiton Calkins; Wilhelm Wundt

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods

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Sample Questions

Q1) Random assignment helps ensure that potential differences among participants are spread out evenly across all experimental conditions.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Independent variable is to dependent variable as deliberately varied is to measured.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Studying the differences among various cultures that exist in the world today and examining their influence on behavior are the fundamental goals of cross-cultural psychology.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) William James played a key role in establishing psychology in the United States.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Sigmund Freud's school of thought, called _____, emphasized the role of unconscious conflicts in determining behavior and personality.

A)structuralism

B)functionalism

C)psychoanalysis

D)behaviorism

Q2) Professor Wallace studied over 3,000 elderly individuals for a decade and found a statistically significant relationship between survival rate and number of close friends. Specifically, he found that elderly individuals with few close friends had a much higher death rate. To say that the results of his study are "statistically significant" means that:

A)the finding has great practical value and significance.

B)there is a cause-and-effect relationship between the two variables.

C)the finding does not have to be replicated to be accepted by the scientific community.

D)the results are unlikely to have occurred by chance.

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6

Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) While watching television late one evening, Marla tuned into an infomercial that claimed you could lose at least 5 pounds of fat each week by simply taking a natural herbal supplement. Suspicious, Marla conducted some research on the supplement and found that the sponsors of the infomercial were accused of presenting an irrefutable or nonfalsifiable claim. This means that the weight loss claim:

A)is supported by empirical evidence.

B)cannot be disproved or tested in any meaningful way.

C)is true, but only for certain people, such as those who are already physically fit. D)has been tested in the laboratory.

Q2) Of the following correlation coefficients, which represents the WEAKEST relationship between two factors or variables?

A)-)67

B)+)53

C)+)32

D)-)12

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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) What are the key structures of the hindbrain and what roles do they play?

Q2) Byron is left handed. His parents have told Byron that his handedness means he is right- hemisphere-dominant. Are Byron's parents correct?

Q3) What are the key structures of the midbrain and what roles do they play?

Q4) What are the functions of the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system?

Q5) What does it mean to say that a neuron is polarized?

Q6) Describe the differences in male and female brains and discuss what conclusions can be drawn from research on gender differences and the brain.

Q7) What is the primary motor cortex? What is the degree of representation on the primary motor cortex?

Q8) Describe the goals of the Human Connectome Project, the diffusion spectrum imaging technique, and the challenges faced by the Project.

Q9) Compare and contrast the effects of agonist and antagonist drugs.

Q10) What is meant by the phrase lateralization of function?

Q11) What is the refractory period, and what takes place during that period?

Q13) Define and give an example of an agonist drug. Page 8

Q12) What are the key structures of the limbic system?

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Page 9

Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ remove waste products from the nervous system, including dead and damaged neurons.

A)Microglia

B)Astrocytes

C)Oligodendrocytes

D)Schwann cells

Q2) During a rest stop while hiking, Phil was bitten by a black widow spider. Shortly after being bitten he started having breathing difficulties and then experienced muscle spasms. The symptoms he experienced occurred because the black widow spider's venom:

A)blocked acetylcholine receptor sites on motor neurons.

B)blocked the release of serotonin from sending neurons.

C)shut down the functioning of the substantia nigra in Phil's brain.

D)caused acetylcholine to be continuously released by the motor neurons.

Q3) Although disproved, phrenology was valuable in:

A)generating interest in the idea of cortical localization.

B)stressing the role of nutrition in endocrine and brain disorders.

C)emphasizing the importance of hormones in human behavior.

D)inspiring modern methods of treating brain disease and mental disorders.

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Page 10

Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The myelin sheath is a white fatty covering that surrounds the axons of some neurons.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Each neuron produces only one type of neurotransmitter.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The term functional plasticity refers to the brain's capacity to shift functions from one area to another.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The drug curare blocks acetylcholine receptor sites, causing virtually instantaneous paralysis. Thus, curare is an agonist.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Studies with split-brain patients have demonstrated that the corpus callosum serves no particular purpose in the brain.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) The resting potential is:

A)the length of time that a neuron is incapable of activating after an action potential.

B)the term used to describe how the sympathetic nervous system reduces arousal and conserves energy.

C)a state in which a neuron has a negative electrical charge of about -70 millivolts.

D)a state in which a neuron has a positive electrical charge of +70 millivolts.

Q2) Reduced brain levels of the neurotransmitter _____ is most notably involved in the progressive memory loss that characterizes Alzheimer's disease.

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)dopamine

D)acetylcholine

Q3) The brainstem is made up of the _____ and the _____.

A)forebrain; midbrain

B)cerebellum; medulla

C)reticular formation; pons

D)midbrain; hindbrain

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Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Although _____ has been shown to be a pseudoscience, it helped introduce the idea that functions were _____ in the brain.

A)phrenology; lateralized

B)neuroscience; plastic or flexible

C)neuroscience; lateralized

D)phrenology; localized

Q2) The _____ is the part of the limbic system that is involved in emotional responses and memories with a strong emotional component.

A)amygdala

B)thalamus

C)hypothalamus

D)medulla

Q3) What happens during a refractory period?

A)The neuron becomes polarized for the first time.

B)The neuron reestablishes the negative-inside/positive-outside condition.

C)Neurotransmitters are blocked by dendrites.

D)Dopamine reaches its peak levels.

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13

Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) Describe and contrast the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color vision.

Q2) Describe the functions of each of the key structures involved in hearing.

Q3) What sensory receptors and pathways are associated with painful sensations? How are these sensations produced?

Q4) Describe the two types of sensory thresholds and give an example of each.

Q5) What is the kinesthetic sense and where are its sensory receptors located?

Q6) According to the Focus on Neuroscience box: Vision, Experience, and the Brain, what do Mike's visual abilities reveal about the development of visual pathways in the brain?

Q7) How are ganglion cells different from bipolar cells?

Q8) Briefly describe the key structures of the eye including the function of each structure.

Q9) What are pheromones and what evidence is there for the existence of human pheromones?

Q10) Distinguish between sensation and perception.

Q11) How does the gate-control theory explain the perception of pain?

Q12) What is the blind spot and why don't we notice it under normal circumstances?

Q13) Discuss the sense of touch including the nature and location of sensory receptor cells. Page 14

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Page 15

Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nina was trying to convince a skeptical friend that she has ESP. "So how can you explain what happened yesterday when I knew it was Connor on the phone before I answered it?" she demanded. Nina's friend explained that we tend to remember coincidental events that seem to confirm our beliefs about unusual phenomena and to forget all the instances that do not. This tendency is called:

A)the mere exposure effect.

B)precognition.

C)the law of Prägnanz.

D)the fallacy of positive instances.

Q2) As light waves enter the eye, which three structures do they pass through first?

A)pupil, iris, lens

B)cornea, iris, pupil

C)cornea, pupil, lens

D)fovea, iris, pupil

Q3) According to the text which body areas are MOST sensitive to pain?

A)the tip of your nose, soles of your feet, and balls of your thumbs

B)your ankles, your wrists, and your earlobes

C)the back of your knee, your neck, and the bend of your elbows

D)your fingertips, your toes, and your upper arms

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Page 16

Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) The Culture and Human Behavior box: Ways of Seeing, discusses research that demonstrated that U.S. participants had greater brain activation while making relative judgments, whereas the East Asians had greater brain activation in making absolute judgments.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The technical name for the sense of taste is gustation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Place theory describes the perception of pitch; frequency theory describes the perception of loudness.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Umami is the name for a fifth taste sensation and means "yummy" or "delicious" in Japanese.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Human pheromones can affect mood and emotional states.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) _____, a Gestalt psychologist, was the first person to study the phenomenon of induced motion.

A)Max Wertheimer

B)Roger Shepard

C)Karl Duncker

D)Johann Müller-Lyer

Q2) Cones are concentrated in the _____ and specialized for _____.

A)center of the retina; distance vision and feature detection

B)fovea; color vision and visual acuity

C)fovea; peripheral vision and vision in low-light conditions

D)periphery of the retina; color vision and visual acuity

Q3) As Jericho rounded second base, he immediately felt a tear in his calf muscle. Jericho's injury stimulated his _____, which are specialized sensory receptors for pain.

A)proprioceptors

B)exteroceptors

C)nociceptors

D)kinesthetic receptors

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18

Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) While watching a movie at the theater, Vernessa perceives the images on the screen as moving smoothly. However, the movie is actually produced by a series of still photographs that are projected onto the screen. Vernessa's perception of the images as moving smoothly rather than as a jerky series of images is an example of:

A)motion parallax.

B)stroboscopic motion.

C)induced motion.

D)the dot-and-frame principle.

Q2) The sensory receptor cells for hearing are:

A)located in the primary auditory cortex of the brain.

B)embedded in the tiny bones (anvil, hammer, stirrup) in the middle ear.

C)embedded in the basilar membrane in the cochlea of the inner ear.

D)located along the length of the auditory nerve.

Q3) _____ provide more specific information and function best in bright light, while _____ provide less specific information and function best in dim light.

A)Cones; rods

B)Rods; cones

C)Bipolar cells; ganglion cells

D)Ganglion cells; bipolar cells

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Page 19

Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) What are the potential benefits of meditation?

Q2) What are the main characteristics of narcolepsy, and how are cataplexy and sleep paralysis involved?

Q3) What happens to people who are sleep deprived?

Q4) List four strategies for preventing sleep problems.

Q5) Professor Albertson is interested in the most common themes that appear in adults' dreams. List these themes.

Q6) Discuss the contributions of the invention of the electroencephalograph and the discovery of REM sleep to modern sleep research.

Q7) Explain the role of sunlight and darkness, clocks, and other environmental time cues, in regulating the sleep-wake cycle.

Q8) Why do we sleep?

Q9) What characterizes each of the different NREM sleep stages?

Q10) Describe the two categories of meditation, and discuss the general effects of meditation.

Q11) What are the effects that can be produced by hypnosis?

Page 20

Q12) According to research presented in your textbook, is it possible to control your dreams?

Q13) Distinguish between sleep thinking and dreams.

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Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is a therapy used to treat:

A)obstructive sleep apnea.

B)cataplexy.

C)narcolepsy.

D)sexsomnia.

Q2) In a study examining the brains of people who practice meditation, MRI scans showed that:

A)cortical thickness was positively correlated with meditation experience.

B)several cortical areas were thinner in the meditators' brains than in the nonmeditators.

C)the meditators had less gray matter in regions associated with attention, emotion, and sensory processing.

D)meditators and nonmeditators have identical brains.

Q3) The best candidates for hypnosis are people who:

A)are very shy

B)can easily become immersed in fantasy and imaginary experiences.

C)seldom remember their dreams.

D)frequently have lucid dreams.

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Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) In contrast to the activation-synthesis model, the neurocognitive model of dreaming emphasizes the continuity between waking and dreaming cognition.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Parasomnias are sleep disorders involving disruptions in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep, and include insomnia, obstructive sleep apnea, and narcolepsy.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The word circadian is derived from a combination of Latin words meaning "sleep" and "cycle."

A)True

B)False

Q4) In general, tasks that are very different are more likely to interfere with each other. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Westerbrook did not notice when his wife, Priscilla, got her hair cut because he wasn't paying attention to her appearance when she walked into the house. Mr. Westerbrook's failure to notice that Priscilla cut her hair is most likely an example of:

A)attention deficit.

B)change blindness.

C)the cocktail party effect.

D)mindfulness.

Q2) Sleep restriction studies have shown that:

A)research participants adapted to the four-hour-per-night sleep schedule by the end of the first week and showed no cognitive or physical impairments over the course of the experiments.

B)there were some beneficial effects in terms of memory consolidation, reaction time, and immune system functioning.

C)immune system functioning, concentration, vigilance, reaction time, memory skills, and ability to gauge risk were all diminished.

D)there is no evidence to support the notion that REM and NREM sleep deprivation result in REM and NREM rebound effects.

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Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Caffeine:

A)is the most widely used psychoactive drug in the world.

B)gets its stimulant effects by promoting the release of adenosine in the brain's prefrontal cortex.

C)achieves its stimulant effects by blocking the reuptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.

D)is the most widely used non-physically addictive drug in the world.

Q2) A state of increased physiological arousal along with a sensation of falling refers to a condition called:

A)narcolepsy.

B)obstructive sleep apnea.

C)sleep terrors.

D)somnambulism.

Q3) Research indicates that yawning is:

A)caused by an overproduction of carbon dioxide in the body.

B)not contagious.

C)caused by too little oxygen in a person's blood.

D)generally followed by an increase in activity level.

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25

Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning

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Q1) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning in terms of types of behavior studied, responses conditioned, extinction processes, and cognitive and evolutionary influences on each.

Q2) Describe the basic process of classical conditioning, using an original example. Be sure to identify the UCS, UCR, CS, and CR.

Q3) What did Skinner and other behaviorists believe should be the appropriate subject matter of psychology? That is, what should we study?

Q4) Explain how the idea of biological preparedness can be applied to human phobias.

Q5) Pick two of the four basic schedules of reinforcement, describe them, and give at least one example of the reinforcement schedule operating in daily life.

Q6) Define punishment, describe the two types of punishment, and explain the drawbacks of using punishment.

Q7) Describe three learning principles that you can use to improve self-control.

Q8) Based on Pavlov's research with dogs, describe and provide examples of the following concepts: generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, extinction, and spontaneous recovery in classical conditioning.

Q9) Discuss criticisms of the famous "Little Albert" study.

Page 26

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning

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Q1) When competitive swimmers stayed focused on their practice techniques during swim team practice, they were rewarded by their coach playing popular music over the loudspeakers in the pool area. When they were inattentive or started ''goofing off,'' the coach played recordings of gloomy, off-key organ music. In this example, the coach is using _____ to help his swimmers stay focused.

A)biological preparedness

B)latent learning

C)classical conditioning

D)behavior modification

Q2) Classical conditioning involves _____, while operant conditioning involves _____.

A)reflexive behaviors; voluntary behaviors

B)responses emitted by organisms; responses elicited by unconditioned stimuli

C)responses acquired through observational learning; responses acquired through imitation

D)voluntary behaviors; reflexive behaviors

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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning

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Q1) In his experiments with dogs, Pavlov found that after a classically conditioned response had been extinguished, the dog returned to its original unconditioned state and was unable to relearn the response.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The law of effect helps to explain how classically conditioned responses develop from pairing a biologically significant UCS with a neutral stimulus.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Once acquired, learned helplessness cannot be overcome.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to Albert Bandura, motivation to imitate a behavior is crucial to the actual performance of the learned behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Motivation is not a factor in Albert Bandura's model of observational learning. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning

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Q1) When Anna was three years old, her aunt's pet parakeet landed on her head and pecked at her scalp, hurting her. Following this incident, Anna was afraid of the parakeet. But over time, Anna has become afraid of anything that flies, including butterflies, large flying insects, and wild birds. This example illustrates the phenomenon of _____ in _____ conditioning.

A)instinctive drift; operant

B)stimulus discrimination; classical

C)biological preparedness; operant

D)stimulus generalization; classical

Q2) According to Focus on Neuroscience, neurons that fire both when action is performed and when action is simply perceived are called: A)glial cells.

B)mirror neurons.

C)interneurons.

D)reflective cells.

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29

Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning

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Q1) Sarah gets a weekly allowance, but only if all of her chores are completed by 5 P.M. on Friday night. Although Sarah does some work around the house during the week, most of her chores are done in a burst of activity after she comes home from school on Friday afternoon. Sarah's behavior is being maintained on a _____ schedule of reinforcement.

A)variable-ratio (VR)

B)fixed-ratio (FR)

C)variable-interval (VI)

D)fixed-interval (FI)

Q2) In the famous "Little Albert" study, what was the conditioned stimulus?

A)the white rat

B)fear of the loud clang

C)fear at the sight of the rat

D)the loud clang

Q3) The _____ served as the foundation for what Pavlov eventually referred to as classical conditioning.

A)development of learned helplessness in dogs that were given inescapable shock

B)use of food rewards in training dogs

C)training of rats to navigate a maze

D)role of saliva in digestion

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Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory

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Q1) Compare and contrast the characteristics of suppression and repression, giving an example of each.

Q2) Describe Richard F. Thompson's work on the classically conditioned eye blink response.

Q3) What is memory consolidation, and how can it be disrupted in humans?

Q4) Describe the duration and capacity of short-term memory.

Q5) Summarize what has been learned about memory from the famous case of H.M.

Q6) Explain how source amnesia, inattentional blindness, and encoding failure account for déjà vu experiences.

Q7) Identify and describe the functions of each component in psychologist Alan Baddeley's model of working memory, and give an everyday example that demonstrates the relationships among working memory components.

Q8) What did George Sperling's classic experiment reveal about our visual memory system?

Q9) Describe the progression and symptoms of Alzheimer's disease, including changes in the brain.

Q10) Your textbook lists seven factors that can contribute to the development of false memories. Pick four factors and explain them, giving an example of each.

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory

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Q1) Which psychologist trained a rat to run a maze, then tried to identify the location of the memory by removing a tiny portion of the rat's brain?

A)Karl Lashley

B)Elizabeth Loftus

C)Hermann Ebbinghaus

D)Richard F. Thompson

Q2) According to the working memory model developed by British psychologist Alan Baddeley, the "central executive":

A)is in charge of controlling attention, integrating information, and initiating retrieval.

B)is involved in organizing information in a complex network.

C)is specialized for spatial and visual material.

D)is specialized for verbal material.

Q3) The decline and impairment of memory, reasoning, language, and other cognitive functions is called:

A)amnesia.

B)dementia.

C)long-term potentiation.

D)inattentional blindness.

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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory

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Q1) Today, researchers agree that decay is the primary cause of forgetting.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Recent studies suggest that the true "magical number" for the capacity of short-term memory is more likely to be four, plus or minus one, than seven, plus or minus two.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Long-term memory functions much like a tape recorder or camera; it captures, stores, and maintains a perfect record of everything that a person experiences.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The Focus on Neuroscience on mapping brain changes in Alzheimer's disease summarized a study that showed that brain regions that handle visual and sensory tasks were spared until the late stages of the disease.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory

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Q1) The _____ model describes the way in which information is organized in long-term memory.

A)interference

B)serial position

C)pragmatic

D)semantic network

Q2) When seven-year-old Grace had to recite the Girl Scout Pledge in front of the other members of her Brownie troop, she had trouble remembering some of the lines in the middle of the pledge. This illustrates:

A)the serial position effect.

B)state-dependent retrieval.

C)source confusion.

D)mood congruence.

Q3) According to George Miller, the capacity of short-term memory:

A)is about four items of information, plus or minus one.

B)can be increased by clustering.

C)can be increased by maintenance rehearsal of the information.

D)is about seven items of information, plus or minus two.

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Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory

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Q1) When Kate got home, Guy rummaged through the grocery sack, then said, "Kate, you forgot the dental floss and the coffee creamer! They were the last two things I told you to get! Don't you remember me saying that?" That Kate remembered to get the first items on the list is a pattern of remembering called:

A)a tip-of-the-tongue experience.

B)the recency effect.

C)the primacy effect.

D)encoding specificity.

Q2) Whenever Carlos reaches for the silverware, he keeps reaching for the drawer that used to contain the silverware. Carlos's failure to remember the new location of the silverware is probably due to:

A)encoding failure.

B)retroactive interference.

C)the misinformation effect.

D)proactive interference.

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Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) How do we use the availability heuristic and the representativeness heuristic to help estimate the probability of an event's occurring?

Q2) Define stereotype threat, and provide an example of psychological research that has demonstrated its effects on test performance.

Q3) Explain what is meant by autism spectrum disorder, intellectual disability, and neurodiversity, from the In Focus Box, "Neurodiversity: Beyond IQ."

Q4) Describe the two-stage model of intuition.

Q5) Describe Lewis Terman's contribution to intelligence testing.

Q6) Contrast the ways in which formal concepts and natural concepts are formed, and give an original example of each.

Q7) Describe three strategies that can be used to make a decision among several alternatives.

Q8) Describe at least three suggestions that can enhance your ability to think creatively.

Q9) What was Alfred Binet's role in the development of intelligence tests?

Q10) Describe the experimental procedure and major findings of Kathleen O'Craven and Nancy Kanwisher's fMRI study of mental imagery involving faces and places.

Page 36

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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) The Focus on Neuroscience box, "Seeing Faces and Places in the Mind's Eye," reported on an fMRI study of mental imagery. In comparing perception and imagery, the researchers found that:

A)compared to imagining a face or place, perceiving a face or place evoked a stronger brain response.

B)looking at faces activated the parahippocampal place area (PPA) and imagining faces activated the fusiform facial area (FFA).

C)compared to imagining a face or place, perceiving a face or place evoked a much weaker brain response.

D)looking at places activated the parahippocampal place area (PPA) and imagining places activated the fusiform facial area (FFA).

Q2) When decisions are complex and involve the comparison of many choices that have multiple features, people usually use:

A)only the single-feature model.

B)both the single-feature model and the additive model.

C)both the elimination by aspects model and the additive model.

D)both the single-feature model and the elimination by aspects model.

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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Elderly people who were made aware of the stereotype of the elderly as having poor memories scored lower on a memory test than elderly people who were made aware of the stereotype of being wise. This is an example of stereotypical threat.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An algorithm is a method that always produces the correct solution when it is followed step by step.

A)True

B)False

Q3) People from some cultural backgrounds may use different problem-solving strategies than those that are required for solving problems on standardized intelligence tests.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Functional fixedness is a tendency to view objects as only functioning in their usual or customary way.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Juliana is equally proficient in both English and Spanish. Julia has achieved:

A)telegraphic speech.

B)bilingual pragmatics.

C)balanced proficiency.

D)bilingual code switching.

Q2) Davion and Angelo are identical twins. At birth, their mother gave the babies up for adoption. Davion was adopted by a couple in California, while Angelo was adopted by a family in New York. Despite growing up in different homes, both boys have similar IQ scores. This finding illustrates the importance of _____ on intelligence.

A)genes

B)environment

C)geographical context

D)parenting

Q3) Rick asks you how many stop signs you encounter on your drive home. To answer his question, you probably rely on a:

A)mental image.

B)linguistic concept.

C)map of your city.

D)natural concept.

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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Your text describes research with participants who lived in remote Amazon tribes and spoke languages that lacked a counting system or specific words for numbers. What conclusion did the researchers reach?

A)Language has a powerful effect on perception; people who speak different languages have a completely different view of the world.

B)Language categories can affect how individuals think about particular concepts. Without a number concept, the indigenous people were only able to use relative terms like "few," "some," and "many" instead of exact numbers to describe quantities.

C)The study showed that, even though the languages of the isolated tribes lacked number words, they had sophisticated systems for describing colors.

D)The study showed that, without a number concept, the indigenous people were unable to distinguish between "few," "some," and "many."

Q2) Research indicates that bilingualism may serve as a protective factor against:

A)Parkinson's disease.

B)bipolar disorder.

C)Alzheimer's disease.

D)schizophrenia.

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Page 40

Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Describe Abraham Maslow's theory of motivation, and list the qualities that characterize self-actualized people.

Q2) Describe how arousal theory accounts for motivation and the qualities that characterize people who are sensation seekers.

Q3) Explain the James-Lange theory of emotion, and discuss four lines of evidence against this approach to explaining emotion.

Q4) Describe the two brain pathways involved in triggering fear, how they differ, and their evolutionary significance.

Q5) Rosa and Nancy are women in their mid-fifties. They have been friends since they were children. Over time, they've noticed some differences in their body weight. Rosa has a tendency to be underweight (her BMI is consistently a 17) even though she eats a normal healthy diet and exercises moderately. Nancy was normal weight for most of her early life, gained weight in her thirties, and since then has found it very difficult to modify her weight from this new, larger value. Define basal metabolic rate and set-point theory and describe how these concepts apply to the situations of Rosa and Nancy.

Q6) Explain the James-Lange theory of emotion, and describe three lines of evidence in support of this approach to explaining emotion.

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Page 41

Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Nate wonders how his friend Jim can wake up at 5:00 AM every morning to swim laps before school. When he asks about it, Jim replies that he simply wants to realize his highest personal potential in swimming. According to Maslow's theory of motivation, Jim is satisfying:

A)physiological needs.

B)safety needs.

C)belongingness and love needs.

D)the need for self-actualization.

Q2) The two most basic dimensions of emotion are _____ and _____.

A)pleasantness; arousal.

B)depression; elation.

C)stability; instability.

D)good emotions; bad emotions.

Q3) Social context and relationships are an especially important part of private emotional experience in:

A)individualistic countries like the United States and Canada.

B)collectivistic countries like Japan.

C)rural areas as opposed to urban areas or cities.

D)urban areas or cities as opposed to rural areas.

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Page 42

Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Maslow's most important contribution to psychology was to energize the discipline to focus on the motivations and development of psychologically healthy people.

A)True

B)False

Q2) After watching the CNN reporter announce the U.S. Supreme Court's landmark decision in the Jones vs. California case, Hunter reacted by spewing out a string of profanities while Christopher kept shouting, "Yes! Yes! Yes!" Although Hunter and Christopher both experienced similar physiological arousal to identical information, they had two very different emotional reactions. This example poses a major problem for the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Homeostasis refers to the notion that the body monitors and maintains internal states, such as body temperature and energy supplies, at relatively constant levels.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) According to Focus on Neuroscience: Emotions and the Brain, when recalling emotional memories, the _____ is activated, which contributes to our ability to feel an emotion.

A)visual cortex

B)hippocampus

C)somatosensory cortex

D)hypothalamus

Q2) Rats with a damaged amygdala:

A)cannot acquire a classically conditioned fear response.

B)overproduce leptin and become extremely lean, despite eating several times their normal amount of calories daily.

C)are more easily classically conditioned to fear-inducing stimuli than rats with intact brains.

D)display the characteristics of starving animals, have voracious appetites, and have five times the amount of body fat as normal rats.

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Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Karen has a BMI of 28, which means that she is:

A)underweight.

B)in the healthy weight range.

C)overweight, but not obese.

D)obese.

Q2) Measures of achievement motivation are correlated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A)productivity and worker output.

B)relationship satisfaction.

C)job performance.

D)academic success.

Q3) Charles Darwin:

A)contended that nonhuman animals do not experience emotions.

B)believed that anthropomorphism was the best methodology for scientifically investigating emotions in nonhuman animals.

C)believed that the capacity to experience emotion is an evolved trait that humans share with lower animals.

D)argued that emotional expression in humans is completely different from the instinctive displays of nonhuman animals.

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Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Marissa and Blake are concerned that their daughter, Peige, is approaching her teenage years. They have commented to friends that they are terrified of the idea of peer pressure and wonder if they should place restrictions on Peige's activities and friends. Would you recommend that Marissa and Blake respond in this way? Explain, citing research from the textbook in your answer.

Q2) Describe the major research findings on the effects of aging on cognitive and intellectual abilities in late adulthood.

Q3) Carl and Andy are both toddlers. Carl is securely attached and Andy is insecurely attached. They are enrolled in a research study in which they will be exposed to the Strange Situation. What is the Strange Situation and how would you expect Carl and Andy to differ in terms of their reactions?

Q4) Describe the positive effects of aerobic exercise on cognitive functioning in old age, and summarize evidence from experimental research that supports these claims.

Q5) Explain the four different parenting styles described by Diana Baumrind and other psychologists, and describe how a parent from each style might deal with a child who wants to spend an excessive amount of time watching cartoon programs on television.

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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) In Piaget's theory, the term irreversibility refers to the:

A)ability to reverse mental operations.

B)inability to reverse mental operations.

C)inability to focus on all relevant aspects of a situation.

D)ability to comprehend that some actions cannot be undone.

Q2) Frank now uses his first pronouns, phrases, and sentences. If he is like most children in terms of language development, he is approximately:

A)9 months old.

B)15 months old.

C)24 months old.

D)18 months old.

Q3) Each level in Kohlberg's theory of the development of moral reasoning is based on the degree to which a person:

A)conforms to conventional standards of society.

B)can think logically and rationally, and deal with abstract concepts.

C)obeys the law.

D)has resolved the major psychosocial conflicts associated with each developmental stage he or she has passed through.

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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Puberty is the stage of adolescence in which an individual reaches sexual maturity and becomes physiologically capable of sexual reproduction.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A newborn child is extremely nearsighted.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The best known, although not the most common, pattern of allele variation is the simple dominant-recessive gene pair.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The human genome is the complete set of DNA in the human organism.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Insecure attachment may result when parents are insensitive or unresponsive to an infant's needs, moods, and behaviors.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Females have an XY combination in the 23rd pair of chromosomes.

B)Each gene in every gene pair contains 23 chromosomes.

C)Each chromosome contains 23 genes.

D)Males have an XY combination in the 23rd pair of chromosomes.

Q2) India has developed the skills for walking up steps. According to Figure 9.3: Milestones in Infant Motor Development, India is probably between the ages of _____ and _____ months.

A)7: 14

B)10; 13

C)11; 15

D)14; 22

Q3) Diamond is 12 years old and has just experienced her first menstrual period. Diamond has experienced:

A)spermarche.

B)menarche.

C)atypical puberty.

D)the pubertal spurt.

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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Henry and Heidi are proud new parents. Based on the information in the text, you can predict that Lauren, their new baby, will MOST likely:

A)walk easily before she is 10 months of age.

B)be able to sit without support before she will be able to roll over.

C)be able to roll over before she will be able to sit without support.

D)begin walking at exactly the same age as her older brother did.

Q2) _____ influence(s) how people pay attention to, perceive, interpret, and remember gender-relevant behavior.

A)Gender schemas

B)Genetic predisposition

C)Gender roles

D)Sexual norms

Q3) Nine-year-old Faith patiently helped her four-year-old brother, Cole, learn how to fold a piece of paper and cut it to make a paper snowflake. This example illustrates which of the following?

A)Vygotsky's zone of proximal development

B)Baillargeon's event-specific expectations

C)Bem's gender schema theory of gender-role development

D)Kohlberg's conventional level of moral reasoning

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Page 50

Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality

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Q1) What is the Oedipus complex? According to Freud, how is the Oedipus complex manifested and resolved in boys and girls?

Q2) What are the two major criticisms of the humanistic perspective on personality?

Q3) What is a self-report inventory? Describe the MMPI, the CPI, and the 16PF personality tests, and explain what each one is used for.

Q4) Briefly describe the five stages of psychosexual development in Freud's personality theory.

Q5) Compare the views of Sigmund Freud and Albert Bandura on human aggression.

Q6) List the key strength and two weaknesses associated with the social cognitive perspective on personality.

Q7) What are some important criticisms of the trait perspective on personality?

Q8) Describe the five-factor model of personality, and list surface traits associated with each factor.

Q9) What is a surface trait? What is a source trait? What are the basic assumptions of the trait perspective on personality?

Q10) Describe Karen Horney's key ideas, including her views on Freud's interpretation of female development.

51

Q11) What are three important criticisms of Freud's theory of personality?

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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality

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Q1) The two basic types of personality tests are:

A)aptitude and achievement tests.

B)personality type tests and self-report inventories.

C)personality trait inventories and personality type inventories.

D)projective tests and self-report inventories.

Q2) According to Eysenck's theory, the four basic personality types are:

A)psychotic-extraverted, psychotic-introverted, psychotic-stable, and psychotic-unstable.

B)extraverted-neurotic, extraverted-stable, introverted-neurotic, and introverted-stable.

C)extraverted-introverted, sensing-intuitive, thinking-feeling, and perceiving-judging.

D)conscientious, agreeable, open to experience, and extraverted.

Q3) Freud's famous technique of free association involved patients:

A)spontaneously reporting mental images, thoughts, and feelings as they came to mind.

B)looking at inkblots and interpreting what they saw.

C)making up a story about an ambiguous picture.

D)instantly responding to each of 50 words that Freud read to them.

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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sexual urges are expressed freely during the latency stage of Freud's psychosexual stages.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The ego is ruled by the pleasure principle.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Hans Eysenck's trait theory is the most widely accepted theory of personality today.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Personality theories can generally be grouped under four main perspectives: psychoanalytic, humanistic, social-cognitive, and trait theories.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The reality principle requires the capacity to postpone gratification until the appropriate time or circumstances exist in the external world.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality

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Q1) Which of the following theorists had a strong influence on Freud's early career, introducing him to the use of hypnosis in treating patients with psychological problems?

A)Alfred Adler

B)Erik Erikson

C)Carl Jung

D)Joseph Breuer

Q2) According to research on identical twins separated at birth and raised in different families, similarities in personality traits are due to _____, whereas differences in personality traits are due to _____.

A)genetic influences; environmental influences

B)environmental influences; genetic influences

C)emergenic influences; heritability of traits

D)heritability of traits; emergenic influences

Q3) The MOST widely used self-report inventory is the:

A)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, or MMPI.

B)Thematic Apperception Test, or TAT.

C)Rorschach Inkblot Test.

D)California Personality Inventory (CPI).

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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality

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Q1) According to _____, each person is highly motivated to act in a way that is consistent with his or her _____.

A)Albert Bandura; possible self

B)Carl Rogers; self-concept

C)Carl Jung; anima or animus

D)Raymond Cattell; surface traits

Q2) Which of the following is a self-report test designed to assess personality types rather than personality traits?

A)Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF)

B)California Personality Inventory (CPI)

C)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

D)Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)

Q3) According to Table 10.5 in the textbook, Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr., are key personality theorists associated with the _____ perspective.

A)trait

B)psychoanalytic

C)humanistic

D)social-cognitive

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Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology

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Q1) What was the Robbers Cave Experiment? How did psychologist Muzafer Sherif create and then reduce tensions between two groups of boys at a summer camp?

Q2) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of the social categorization process.

Q3) Describe the Stanford Prison Experiment, and explain how the results of that study help explain the mistreatment of prisoners at Abu Ghraib.

Q4) Describe the four principles that guide person perception, and give a "real world" example of each.

Q5) What is a stereotype, and what is stereotype threat? What scientific evidence exists to support the notion of stereotype threat?

Q6) What is conformity? How is it influenced by normative and informational social influence, and culture?

Q7) What aspects of the experimental situation in Milgram's obedience experiment increased the likelihood of destructive obedience?

Q8) Describe research findings on the use of fMRI scans of people's brains while they looked at photos of physically attractive people, and identify the brain areas that were activated. Also, identify brain areas that are responsive to the reward value of attractive faces.

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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology

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Q1) The most widely used test to measure implicit attitudes and preferences is the _____, developed by psychologist Anthony Greenwald and his colleagues.

A)Implicit Association Test (IAT)

B)Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

C)Rorschach test

D)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

Q2) While they were shopping, 6-year-old Elliot came running around one of the store aisles and excitedly asked his mother if she would buy him a $299 Microsoft Xbox 360 game console to use with their television at home. When his mother immediately refused, Elliot looked very dejected but apologized for asking. A few moments later, Elliot asked, "Well, can I get a new basket for my bicycle?" Clever Elliot appears to be using the _____ technique to persuade his mother.

A)foot-in-the-door

B)door-in-the-face

C)that's-not-all

D)low-ball

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Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology

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Q1) The branch of psychology that studies how a person's thoughts, feelings, and behavior are influenced by the presence of other people and by the social and physical environment is called social psychology.

A)True

B)False

Q2) To quickly evaluate others we rely on automatic, nonconscious thought processes and rarely, if ever, do we use explicit cognition.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The deliberate, conscious mental processes involved in perceptions, judgments, decisions, and reasoning are called explicit cognition.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Explicit attitudes are evaluations that are automatic, unintentional, difficult to control, and are sometimes, but not always, unconscious.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology

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Q1) Cross-cultural research reveals that conformity:

A)tends to be higher in collectivistic cultures compared with individualistic cultures.

B)tends to be lower in collectivistic cultures compared with individualistic cultures.

C)is similar in both collectivist and individualistic cultures.

D)is more harmful to group harmony in collectivist than individualistic cultures.

Q2) Michael has a class with Brittany. During his interactions with Brittany, Michael feels drawn to her and experiences many positive thoughts and feelings. Michael is experiencing:

A)attraction.

B)magnetism.

C)a biased attribution.

D)a fight-of-flight response.

Q3) Which of the following is a fairly common attributional bias?

A)hindsight bias

B)the in-group bias

C)the "feel good, do good" effect

D)diffusion of responsibility

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59

Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology

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Q1) In order to remove any doubts about the legitimacy of the shock generator in Milgram's obedience study, the:

A)"teachers" were given a sample shock.

B)"teachers" were allowed to give the experimenters a shock.

C)"learners" were given a sample shock.

D)"learners" were allowed to give the "teachers" a shock.

Q2) According to the textbook, which of the following was NOT a factor that contributed to the mistreatment of prisoners at Abu Ghraib?

A)conformity

B)prejudice and stereotyping

C)altruism

D)cognitive dissonance

Q3) A technique used to promote cooperation that involves students working together in small, ethnically diverse groups on a mutual project is called the:

A)foot-in-the-door technique.

B)jigsaw classroom technique.

C)conform-to-the-norm technique.

D)the in-group bias effect.

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Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) According to the In Focus box: "Providing Effective Social Support," what are the three most commonly studied broad categories of social support? Give original examples of each.

Q2) How can social support help buffer the effects of stress? Does social support have to come from human sources?

Q3) Contrast the general patterns of coping in individualistic versus collectivistic cultures.

Q4) What gender differences have been found in the effects of social support?

Q5) Describe the role of major life events and change in producing stress. Next, list some of the limitations of the life events approach to measuring the impact of stress on health.

Q6) What kinds of social support efforts are LEAST likely to be perceived as helpful? What is "invisible support"?

Q7) Describe the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome.

Q8) Describe the Type A and Type B behavior patterns, and identify the personality dimension or dimensions that seem to produce the highest health risks.

Q9) What is a placebo, and how are placebos used in biomedical research?

Q10) What kinds of social support efforts are MOST likely to be perceived as helpful?

Page 61

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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Early stress researchers Thomas Holmes and Richard Rahe:

A)showed that disruptions in personal relationships were the strongest predictors of heart disease and cancer.

B)developed the theory called general adaptation syndrome (GAS).

C)demonstrated that the immune system could be classically conditioned.

D)believed that any change that required a person to adjust his or her behavior or lifestyle would cause stress.

Q2) One of the most constructive emotion-focused coping strategies is _____ because the person who uses this tactic not only tries to minimize the negative emotional aspects of the situation but also tries to create positive meaning by focusing on personal growth.

A)denial

B)positive reappraisal

C)escape-avoidance

D)distancing

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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Escape-avoidance is an emotion-focused coping strategy in which the person shifts his or her attention away from the stressor and toward other activities.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In one study, researchers found that people who were socially isolated were twice as likely to die over a given period, than people with strong social relationships.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Mindfulness meditation tends to exacerbate the psychological effects of stress because it focuses awareness on negative thoughts and prolongs negative thinking about the stressor.

A)True

B)False

Q4) People in the highest socioeconomic levels of society tend to have the highest levels of psychological distress and physical illness.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) _____ refers to a negative emotional state occurring in response to events that are perceived as taxing or exceeding a person's resources or ability to cope.

A)Stress

B)Anxiety

C)An attitude

D)An appraisal

Q2) The relationship between psychological factors and illness, stress, and coping are all topics that are studied in the field of _____, which is guided by the _____ model.

A)health psychology; psychoneuroimmunology

B)health psychology; biopsychosocial

C)behavioral medicine; psychoneuroimmunology

D)behavioral medicine; general adaptation

Q3) As compared with members of individualistic cultures, members of collectivistic cultures are more likely to _____ to cope with stress.

A)seek social support and use emotion-focused coping strategies

B)resort to confrontive coping and planful problem solving

C)seek social support and use problem-focused coping strategies

D)assume personal responsibility and use multiple coping strategies

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64

Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) The discovery that the immune system could be affected by psychological processes, such as classical conditioning, launched the field of:

A)health psychology.

B)psychoneuroimmunology.

C)immunology.

D)microaggressions.

Q2) _____ is guided by the biopsychosocial model of health, illness, and well-being.

A)Clinical psychiatry

B)Health psychology

C)Psychoneuroimmunology

D)Developmental psychology

Q3) Lisa and Xavier are both middle-aged people who are under a great deal of stress. Which of the following statements about Lisa and Xavier is TRUE?

A)Xavier is more likely than Lisa to avoid his problems.

B)Lisa is more likely than Xavier to seek out social support.

C)Lisa is more likely than Xavier to engage in confrontive coping.

D)Xavier and Lisa are equally likely to turn to alcohol to cope.

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Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Joel has persistent and recurring complaints of bodily symptoms that are accompanied by abnormal thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. For instance, when Joel gets a headache, he panics, calls his wife, and tells her he has a brain tumor. After eating certain foods, Joel sometimes gets heartburn. On three occasions, he has gone to the hospital to make sure he wasn't having a heart attack. What disorder does Joel likely have? What clues suggest that Joel has this disorder?

Q2) Describe the behavior of a person with antisocial personality disorder. What is the difference between a sociopath and a psychopath?

Q3) List the symptoms of borderline personality disorder, and describe possible causes of the disorder, including reference to the biosocial developmental theory.

Q4) Describe the characteristics of dissociative identity disorder, and discuss the factors that have been implicated in its development. Why are many psychologists and other mental health professionals skeptical about the validity of this disorder?

Q5) What evidence seems to support the role of genetic factors in the development of schizophrenia?

Q6) What kinds of themes are commonly present in delusional thinking?

Q7) What symptoms characterize bipolar disorder?

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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Present in virtually all cases of dissociative identity disorder are symptoms of:

A)hallucinations and delusions.

B)substance misuse and anorexia.

C)obsessions and compulsions.

D)amnesia, memory lapses, and memory problems.

Q2) According to the Critical Thinking section on media and mental illness, which of the following is FALSE?

A)Most violent individuals are not psychotic and most psychotic individuals are not violent.

B)The incidence of violent behavior among current or former mental patients is exaggerated in media portrayals.

C)Most violent individuals are psychotic, and most psychotic individuals are violent.

D)The overall contribution of mental disorders to the total level of violence in society is exceptionally small.

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Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) When talking to a friend who has expressed suicidal intentions, it is important not to minimize the person's feelings but instead to help them consider alternative solutions to their problems.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The most common symptoms of a panic attack are a pounding heart, rapid breathing, breathlessness, and a choking sensation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Panic disorder is unusual in that it is a psychological disorder that occurs primarily in the United States.

A)True

B)False

Q4) One new theory suggests that schizophrenia is caused by too much dopamine in certain parts of the brain, such as the limbic system, and too little dopamine in other parts, such as the cortex.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) A commonly observed _____ symptom that occurs in schizophrenia is _____.

A)negative; delusions

B)positive; alogia

C)negative; flat affect

D)positive; avolition

Q2) Lloyd and Bentley are college roommates. Lloyd becomes anxious around large groups of people and, therefore, avoids going to most parties. He feels much more secure when spending time alone or with small groups of friends. Bentley also experiences anxiety in large crowds. He often talks about mass shootings and tells friends and family, "It's just a matter of time until it happens right here." In class, Bentley always arrives early to get a seat by the door in case someone barges into the classroom with an intent to do harm. He is always scanning the environment to make sure he doesn't spot someone suspicions. Which of the following statements about Lloyd and Bentley is TRUE?

A)Both young men are demonstrating signs of pathological anxiety.

B)Bentley is showing signs of pathological anxiety, while Lloyd is showing signs of typical anxiety.

C)Lloyd has agoraphobia, while Bentley likely suffers from generalized anxiety disorder.

D)Bentley has panic disorder, while Lloyd has agoraphobia.

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Page 69

Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) _____ is a long-lasting disorder that develops in response to being exposed to a severe and often life-threatening trauma.

A)Schizophrenia

B)Generalized anxiety

C)Antisocial personality disorder

D)Posttraumatic stress disorder

Q2) Research indicates that _____ occur(s) more often among creative writers and artists than among the general population.

A)depressive and bipolar disorders

B)personality disorders

C)schizophrenia

D)kleptomania and pyromania

Q3) Research indicates that anxiety:

A)interferes with all aspects of functioning, even in the short term.

B)can be adaptive, helpful, and beneficial when it alerts people to a realistic threat.

C)can cause emotional ups and downs but has little impact on health.

D)generally requires pharmacological interventions.

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Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies

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Q1) What are some of the advantages of group therapy compared with individual therapy?

Q2) According to Aaron Beck, what are some of the cognitive biases that operate in depressed people?

Q3) How do the cultural values inherent in Western psychotherapy sometimes clash with the values of other cultures?

Q4) Compare the impacts of psychotherapy and antidepressant medication on brain function in patients with major depressive disorder. Which treatment is more effective?

Q5) What are the basic assumptions and processes in Aaron Beck's cognitive therapy (CT)?

Q6) Describe cognitive-behavioral therapy. What techniques does a cognitive-behavioral therapist use?

Q7) How does psychotherapy differ from biomedical therapy? Are the two always used separately?

Q8) How do insight-oriented therapies (e.g., psychodynamic and humanistic therapies) differ from behavior therapy?

Q9) What are some of the important points that someone should keep in mind if he or she is considering psychotherapy?

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies

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Q1) Because of the various side effects associated with the first (or typical) antipsychotic medications:

A)the number of people hospitalized for schizophrenia and other serious mental disorders steadily increased during the 1960s and 1970s.

B)patients were required to undergo daily blood tests to monitor liver function and prevent liver failure.

C)patients who had been discharged from mental hospitals often quit taking the medication and had to be rehospitalized.

D)schizophrenic patients no longer received neuroleptic medications during the 1960s and 1970s.

Q2) Electroconvulsive therapy, abbreviated ECT, involves:

A)a brief burst of electricity to the brain that induces a seizure.

B)surgically implanting a neurostimulator in the chest wall that sends electrical signals to electrodes in the brain.

C)injecting the patient with insulin or another chemical that induces a seizure.

D)the surgical implantation of a device in the chest wall that delivers intermittent electrical stimulation to the brainstem via the left vagus nerve.

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Page 72

Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies

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Q1) The therapy technique called systematic desensitization was developed by Mary Cover Jones and is an application of operant conditioning.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Mary Cover Jones was the first female psychoanalytic therapist.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The medication Thorazine and other typical antipsychotic medications work by increasing brain levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine.

A)True

B)False

Q4) To help promote self-directed change in the client, a client-centered therapist strives to display genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and empathic understanding.

A)True

B)False

Q5) ECT involves electrically inducing a seizure in the brain.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies

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Q1) To help Woody conquer his fear of driving, Dr. Furlong develops a treatment plan that includes shaping, positive reinforcement, systematic desensitization, and challenging Woody's irrational beliefs. Dr. Furlong is probably practicing which form of psychotherapy?

A)virtual reality (VR) therapy

B)short-term dynamic therapy (STDT)

C)cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

D)interpersonal therapy (IPT)

Q2) The FIRST step in rational-emotive therapy is a focus on identifying:

A)problem behaviors.

B)unconscious conflicts.

C)anger-provoking events

D)core irrational beliefs.

Q3) The FIRST effective antipsychotic medications were:

A)lithium and Buspar.

B)Valium and Librium.

C)reserpine and chlorpromazine.

D)Prozac, Zoloft, and Paxil.

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Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies

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Q1) Some people experience a less severe form of depressive disorder that is characterized by chronic low-grade depression with symptoms persisting for two years or longer. This less intense type of depression is called _____ disorder.

A)seasonal affective

B)cyclothymic

C)persistent depressive

D)dissociative

Q2) The viral infection theory of schizophrenia:

A)contends that schizophrenia is caused by the same virus that causes bipolar disorder. B)suggests that men who are over 45 years of age, and who have had a history of viral infections, are more likely to have children who go on to develop schizophrenia.

C)contends that the development of schizophrenia is related to exposure to a virus during prenatal development or early infancy.

D)suggests that a viral infection can cause inflammation that reduces or blocks dopamine activity in the brain.

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