General Psychology Test Preparation
Course Introduction
General Psychology introduces students to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. The course covers foundational topics such as perception, learning, memory, development, emotion, motivation, personality, and psychological disorders. Students will explore key theories, research methods, and applications within real-world contexts, gaining an understanding of how psychological principles shape human thought and action. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, evidence-based reasoning, and the role of psychology in promoting well-being and addressing societal issues.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by
Sandra E. Hockenbury
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70 Chapters
7014 Verified Questions
7014 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3760
Page 2
Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75003
Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast the behavioral perspective with the cognitive perspective. Answer: The answer should include the following information: The behavioral perspective focuses on observable behaviors and the fundamental laws of learning. The primary interest is in how behavior is acquired or modified by environmental causes. On the other hand, the cognitive perspective is interested in how mental processes influence behavior. These mental processes include memory, perception, intelligence, language, judgment, and thinking.
Q2) In a scientifically conducted survey, describe how participants should be selected and explain the importance of the selection process.
Answer: The answer should include the following information: Scientists randomly select a sample of participants to be included in a study. Random selection means that every member of the larger group or population may have an equal opportunity to be included in the sample.
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Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods
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237 Verified Questions
237 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The research method that is used to demonstrate a cause-and-effect relationship between changes in one variable and the effects on another variable is called _____ research.
A)descriptive
B)correlational
C)experimental
D)meta-analytic
Answer: C
Q2) To identify which brain areas are most active when a person suffering from schizophrenia has hallucinations, researchers could use a(n) _____ scan to track the use of radioactively tagged glucose throughout the brain.
A)MRI
B)PET
C)fMRI
D)ECT
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods
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188 Verified Questions
188 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ivan Pavlov demonstrated that dogs could learn to associate a neutral stimulus, such as the sound of a bell, with an automatic response, such as reflexively salivating to food.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The dependent variable is the factor that is observed and measured for change in an experiment and is thought to be influenced by the independent variable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Apes and monkeys are, by far, the most commonly used nonhuman animals in psychological research in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A correlational study is useful because it can:
A)provide compelling evidence of cause-and-effect relationships.
B)examine how strongly two variables are related to one another.
C)provide a detailed description of a single individual.
D)promote the acceptance of pseudosciences.
Q2) Psychologists who take the evolutionary perspective assume that psychological processes are:
A)subject to the principles of natural selection.
B)unconscious.
C)overt and observable.
D)dynamic and ever changing.
Q3) Ginsburg wants to study possible gender differences in the willingness of young children to engage in risky behaviors. To gather data, Ginsburg and a co-researcher carefully observe the willingness of boys and girls to try risky behaviors at a local zoo, such as petting a burro or feeding different animals. Dr. Ginsburg is using _____ to gather data.
A)naturalistic observation
B)a survey
C)the case study method
D)a representative sample
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Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ perspective contended that psychology should focus its scientific investigations strictly on observable conducts that could be objectively measured and verified.
A)psychodynamic
B)humanistic
C)behavioral
D)biological
Q2) _____ dominated American psychology for the first half of the twentieth century.
A)Behaviorism
B)Psychoanalysis
C)Humanism
D)Structuralism
Q3) Professor Newberg decided to study preferences of living senior adults, so he visited a local retirement village and invited residents to participate in a lengthy survey. Professor Newberg's survey results are probably invalid because he did not use:
A)a valid hypothesis.
B)an operational definition.
C)independent and dependent variables.
D)random selection of participants.
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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Julian is 50 years old. He played football for over 20 years, starting in middle school. After college, he played semi-pro football until he injured his knee, which required multiple surgeries to repair. Over the course of his football career, Julian sustained repeated concussions. Julian's family has noticed that he has become increasingly anxious and depressed over the past few years. Although he was never impulsive before, Julian now gambles and goes on spending sprees-sometimes buying items that he will never use. He has difficulty remembering important dates, complains that he can't concentrate, and he becomes angry when distracted as he struggles to sustain his attention for more than a few minutes. According to the In Focus Box: Traumatic Brain Injury: From Concussions to Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy, what condition does Julian likely have? Will his doctor be able to diagnose the condition at his next physical? Why or why not?
Q2) Byron is left handed. His parents have told Byron that his handedness means he is right- hemisphere-dominant. Are Byron's parents correct?
Q3) What is the primary motor cortex? What is the degree of representation on the primary motor cortex?
Q4) What contributions did Pierre Paul Broca and Karl Wernicke make to the understanding of the brain?
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Page 8
Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior
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272 Verified Questions
272 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 75 percent of left-handed people are:
A)left-hemisphere-dominant for language.
B)right-hemisphere-dominant for language.
C)bilateral, using both hemispheres for language functions.
D)sometimes left-hemisphere-dominant, sometimes right-hemisphere-dominant, depending upon the nature of the speech or language task.
Q2) Prozac and cocaine are very different drugs, but they achieve their effects through the same mechanism of action. What is that mechanism?
A)Both drugs block GABA.
B)Both drugs mimic GABA.
C)Both drugs interfere with the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters.
D)Both drugs occupy the receptor sites for opiates.
Q3) The phrase white matter in the brain refers to:
A)myelinated axons.
B)the large spaces on the interior of the brain called ventricles.
C)unmyelinated axons, glial cells, and cell bodies.
D)neurons that manufacture endorphins.
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Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experience has little or no effect on brain functioning or structures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The implication of Pereira's study on exercise and neurogenesis was that exercise promotes the growth of new neurons in the human brain just as it does in other mammals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Humans and nonhuman primates are born with all the brain neurons they will ever have, and there is no evidence that new neurons grow and develop after birth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fight-or-flight response is triggered by the activation of the sympathetic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Dendrites receive information from other neurons.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ lobe primarily control's a person's ability to plan, initiate, and carry out voluntary movements and actions.
A)frontal
B)occipital
C)parietal
D)temporal
Q2) The _____ functions as the main link between the nervous system and the endocrine system.
A)adrenal medulla
B)adrenal cortex
C)amygdala
D)hypothalamus
Q3) Psychologist and neuroscientist Roger Sperry is BEST known for:
A)his efforts to debunk the pseudoscientific claims of phrenology.
B)the discovery of neurogenesis in the adult human brain.
C)his studies on split-brain patients.
D)identifying the specific brain areas involved in different forms of aphasia.
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Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although _____ has been shown to be a pseudoscience, it helped introduce the idea that functions were _____ in the brain.
A)phrenology; lateralized
B)neuroscience; plastic or flexible
C)neuroscience; lateralized
D)phrenology; localized
Q2) Broca is to _____ as Wernicke is to _____.
A)expressive aphasia; receptive aphasia
B)the left cerebral hemisphere; the right cerebral hemisphere
C)structural plasticity; functional plasticity
D)receptive aphasia; expressive aphasia
Q3) According to research presented in your text, stress, exercise, and environmental complexity can affect the rate of _____ in the brains of monkeys, rodents, and birds.
A)neuroplasticity
B)cortical localization
C)myelination
D)neurogenesis
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Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the moon illusion and how has it been explained?
Q2) Describe the two types of sensory thresholds and give an example of each.
Q3) How do rods and cones differ?
Q4) What is the blind spot and why don't we notice it under normal circumstances?
Q5) How does the sensation of taste occur?
Q6) Describe and contrast the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color vision.
Q7) What is the kinesthetic sense and where are its sensory receptors located?
Q8) What properties of a sound wave correspond to our perception of sound?
Q9) How does the gate-control theory explain the perception of pain?
Q10) What are pheromones and what evidence is there for the existence of human pheromones?
Q11) How do frequency theory and place theory explain the perception of pitch?
Q12) Your roommate, Ben, believes that subliminal stimuli are embedded in all forms of electronic media-movies, television shows, YouTube, commercials, and music videos. He gets upset every time he comes home and finds you watching television in the living room, as he does not want to be influenced by these messages. Is Ben correct that subliminal stimuli can affect your thoughts and behavior? Explain your answer. Page 13
Q13) How are ganglion cells different from bipolar cells?
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Page 14
Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception
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305 Verified Questions
305 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensation results when sensory receptor cells are stimulated by:
A)some form of energy.
B)substance P.
C)messages transmitted from the brain.
D)monocular cues.
Q2) A large group of students were tested for their ability to distinguish among different tones. Although tone A and tone B were slightly different, more than half of the group thought that they sounded exactly the same. The contrast between tone A and tone B can be said to be less than the:
A)difference threshold, or just noticeable difference.
B)absolute threshold, or average absolute threshold.
C)subliminal threshold.
D)Weber's threshold.
Q3) Axons from the _____ are bundled together to form the _____.
A)bipolar cells; optic chiasm
B)photoreceptors; optic nerve
C)rods and cones; optic chiasm
D)ganglion cells; optic nerve
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15
Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception
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169 Verified Questions
169 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a pioneering study of human pheromones, it was found that the menstrual cycles of female college roommates became synchronized over time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cornea is a clear membrane that covers the front of the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Morphine and other opiate painkillers are effective in blocking the sharp pain transmitted by the fast pain system but not the chronic pain transmitted by the slow pain system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People from different cultures do not literally see the world differently, but they notice different things about what they do see.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Every human voice has its own distinctive timbre.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research shows that repeated exposure to a particular stimulus leads to increased liking for that stimulus. This is referred to as:
A)the mere exposure effect.
B)psychokinesis.
C)perceptual constancy.
D)sensory adaptation.
Q2) The optic disk produces:
A)color vision.
B)night vision.
C)the blind spot.
D)proprioception.
Q3) Researchers have found that human pheromones appear primarily to:
A)affect mood and emotional states.
B)enhance general arousal.
C)trigger sexual attraction.
D)increase hormone levels.
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17
Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term sensation refers to:
A)a vague feeling of excitement or pleasure.
B)the process of detecting a physical stimulus such as light, sound, heat, or pressure.
C)the transformation of physical energy into chemical energy.
D)the interpretation and organization of sensory stimuli.
Q2) While helping his friends move, Ben dropped a box of books on his big toe. The immediate, sharp sensation of pain was carried by _____, while the throbbing pain that lasted for the next few days was transmitted by _____.
A)nociceptors; substance P
B)A-delta fibers; C fibers
C)Pacinian corpuscles; nociceptors
D)C fibers; A-delta fibers
Q3) Without _____, our perception of reality would be in a continual state of flux.
A)perceptual constancy
B)sensation
C)motion cues
D)depth perception
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18
Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What situations can produce symptoms of jet lag?
Q2) What characterizes each of the different NREM sleep stages?
Q3) Mel, aged 68, has been an avid fan of meditation since he was a young college student. His brother-in-law, Dave, believes that mediation is a waste of time with no lasting benefits. According to research presented in the Focus on Neuroscience box: Mediation and Brain: in your textbook, which man is correct?
Q4) Discuss the contributions of the invention of the electroencephalograph and the discovery of REM sleep to modern sleep research.
Q5) What are the effects that can be produced by hypnosis?
Q6) What are the potential benefits of meditation?
Q7) Professor Albertson is interested in the most common themes that appear in adults' dreams. List these themes.
Q8) According to research presented in your textbook, is it possible to control your dreams?
Q9) How are sleepwalking and sleep-related eating disorders similar? Also explain how they differ.
Q10) Distinguish between sleep thinking and dreams.
Page 19
Q11) What is exploding head syndrome? Is this a rare condition? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations
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225 Verified Questions
225 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a study examining the brains of people who practice meditation, MRI scans showed that:
A)cortical thickness was positively correlated with meditation experience.
B)several cortical areas were thinner in the meditators' brains than in the nonmeditators.
C)the meditators had less gray matter in regions associated with attention, emotion, and sensory processing.
D)meditators and nonmeditators have identical brains.
Q2) Although he was fast asleep, 12-year-old Scott got out of bed and walked to the kitchen with slow but automatic movements and began to fumble with the lock on the back door. Scott has had a number of such _____ episodes and rarely remembers anything about them in the morning.
A)cataplexic
B)narcoleptic
C)sleepwalking
D)hypnagogic
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20
Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations
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183 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans are the only mammals to experience sleep cycles in which REM sleep alternates with slow-wave NREM sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Caffeine's adenosine-blocking ability stimulates indirect and mild dopamine release in the brain's reward system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under hypnosis, people temporarily lose their sense of initiative and voluntarily follow the hypnotist's instructions, yet they cannot be forced to do something against their will.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research has substantiated that yawning is often contagious.
A)True B)False
Q5) Decreased blood levels of melatonin make you sleepy.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____, a famous American psychologist, described consciousness as being like a river or a stream.
A)William James
B)Erik Erikson
C)J. Allan Hobson
D)Sigmund Freud
Q2) _____ promote(s) wakefulness, mental alertness, vigilance, and faster thought processes by stimulating the release of dopamine in the brain's prefrontal cortex and by blocking adenosine's sleep-inducing effects.
A)Nicotine
B)Caffeine
C)Cocaine
D)Amphetamines
Q3) According to Focus on Neuroscience: The Addicted Brain, alcohol, heroin, nicotine, cocaine, and the amphetamines primarily affect the:
A)suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B)left hemisphere of the brain.
C)areas of the brain responsible for balance.
D)dopamine reward system.
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Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is TRUE?
A)Circadian rhythms are regulated by the release of the neurotransmitter melatonin by the suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B)Circadian rhythms remain stable regardless of the sleep-wake schedule people adopt.
C)There are more than 100 different bodily processes that systematically vary over the course of each day, including blood pressure, the secretion of hormones, and pain sensitivity.
D)There are two important neurotransmitters, serotonin and dopamine, that regulate the 24-hour biological clock.
Q2) The notion that hypnosis can allow you to relive early childhood experiences is called:
A)repression.
B)dissociation.
C)hypermnesia.
D)age regression.
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23
Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning
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36 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss criticisms of the famous "Little Albert" study.
Q2) Describe the school or approach to psychology that John Watson founded, and explain why he founded it.
Q3) Describe at least three strategies that can be used to change behavior without resorting to punishment.
Q4) Based on Pavlov's research with dogs, describe and provide examples of the following concepts: generalization and discrimination, higher order conditioning, extinction, and spontaneous recovery in classical conditioning.
Q5) Define learning and conditioning as psychologists use the terms, and give examples of three forms of learning.
Q6) Define a discriminative stimulus, and give at least two examples of a discriminative stimulus not used in the text.
Q7) Describe a study that shows indirect evidence of mirror neurons in humans.
Q8) Describe the famous "Little Albert" study, including the implications of the study's results.
Q9) Who was Edward Thorndike, and what were his contributions to the study of learning?
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Q10) Explain how the idea of biological preparedness can be applied to human phobias.
Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning
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251 Verified Questions
251 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steven Spielberg's classic movie Jaws was a thriller about a great white shark that terrorized tourists at a local beach. Just before the shark's appearance, eerie music began playing. As the unseen shark came closer, the tempo of the music picked up. After the audience had experienced this a few times, the sound of the music triggered the emotional reaction of fear in the audience even though the shark still had not appeared. At that point, fear in response to the sound of the eerie music was a(n):
A)unconditioned response (UCR).
B)conditioned response (CR).
C)conditioned stimulus (CS).
D)unconditioned stimulus (UCS).
Q2) If you reinforce successively closer approximations of a behavior until the desired behavior is displayed, you are using the operant conditioning procedure called:
A)negative reinforcement.
B)stimulus discrimination.
C)shaping.
D)generalization training.
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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both Albert Bandura and Edward Tolman demonstrated that reinforcement was not necessary for learning to take place.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The conditioned response (CR) in the "Little Albert" study was the fear response to the loud clang.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After a dog has gone through the process of extinction and no longer salivates to the sound of a bell, the conditioned response will spontaneously reappear if the dog is given a period of rest and the sound of the bell is again presented.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The respect of your peers, the approval of your instructors or managers, a smile, a touch, or a nod of recognition can all be possible examples of conditioned reinforcers. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) In psychology, the formal definition of "learning" is:
A)knowledge that can be measured by an intelligence or achievement test.
B)any knowledge or skill that has been acquired in a school or in a formal training program.
C)behavior that is the result of genetic programming.
D)a process which produces a relatively enduring change in behavior or knowledge as a result of past experience.
Q2) A group of rats was run through a maze for 12 days. On days 1 through 10, there was no food reward at the end of the maze, and the rats made many errors as they slowly moved through the maze. On day 11, a food reward was placed at the end of the maze. After the food reward was introduced, the rats ran the maze very quickly and with few errors. According to psychologist _____, this experiment demonstrated a phenomenon called _____.
A)B. F. Skinner; stimulus discrimination
B)Edward L. Thorndike; the law of effect
C)Albert Bandura; observational learning
D)Edward C. Tolman; latent learning
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Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an action is negatively reinforced, it is _____ likely to be repeated. If an action is positively reinforced, it is _____ likely to be repeated.
A)less; more
B)more; less
C)less; less
D)more; more
Q2) Madison met her first serious boyfriend when she was working a summer job at a café on the beach at an oceanfront resort. Years later, when Madison smells the distinctive smell of saltwater and sand, she still feels a twinge of sadness, remembering the ending of their romance at the end of the summer when they both returned to their separate colleges. In this example, the conditioned stimulus is _____ and the conditioned response is _____.
A)the smell of the ocean; sadness
B)sadness; the smell of the ocean
C)the smell of the ocean; sexual arousal
D)the smell of the ocean; memories of being a waitress at the café
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Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Summarize what has been learned about memory from the famous case of H.M.
Q2) What is a flashbulb memory, and in what ways is it similar to and/or different from an ordinary memory?
Q3) Explain how interference theory contributes to the notion of forgetting, and discuss two types of interference that may affect memory.
Q4) Define imagination inflation, and describe how it has been created experimentally.
Q5) According to the Focus on Neuroscience box: "Assembling Memories: Echoes and Reflections of Perception," what did fMRI research reveal about memory of common objects?
Q6) How does the semantic network model describe the organization of information in long-term memory?
Q7) Compare and contrast maintenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal.
Q8) Describe the duration and capacity of short-term memory.
Q9) Identify and describe the functions of each component in psychologist Alan Baddeley's model of working memory, and give an everyday example that demonstrates the relationships among working memory components.
Q10) Define memory, and summarize its three fundamental processes.
Page 29
Q11) What do tip-of-the-tongue experiences demonstrate about retrieval cues?
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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory
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254 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) "What is that noise?" Jennifer asked. Her roommate Brooke explained, "That's my timer going off. I set it to remind myself to call my instructor as soon as her office hours begin." Brooke is using one of the strategies suggested in your psychology text to:
A)improve her prospective memory.
B)counteract memory consolidation.
C)enhance source monitoring.
D)avoid imagination inflation.
Q2) As you are taking this exam, you are actively retrieving information that you have learned and stored in your long-term memory. The information that you are able to consciously recall is an example of which subsystem of long-term memory?
A)explicit memory
B)implicit memory
C)procedural memory
D)nondeclarative memory
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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory
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163 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Source confusion is a common cause of false memories.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Psychologist George Sperling is one of the most widely recognized authorities on eyewitness memory and the different ways it can go awry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the working memory model developed by British psychologist Alan Baddeley, the "phonological loop" is the component that is specialized for spatial or visual material, such as remembering the layout of a room or city.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The maximum duration of short-term memory is about 20 seconds, unless the information is actively rehearsed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chunking is one way of increasing the storage capacity of short-term memory.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory
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Q1) Brain scans of Alzheimer's patients over the course of two years indicates that the disease first attacks the:
A)brain stem.
B)temporal lobes.
C)limbic system.
D)hypothalamus.
Q2) When you are in a positive mood, you are more likely to recall positive memories. This phenomenon is referred to as _____, and it is one form that _____ can take.
A)source amnesia; source monitoring
B)mood congruence; the encoding specificity principle
C)inattentional blindness; encoding failure
D)mood congruence; long-term potentiation
Q3) Your _____ is/are the brain region(s) that is/are responsible for retrieving and organizing information that is associated with episodic and autobiographical memories.
A)frontal lobes
B)cerebellum
C)amygdala
D)hypothalamus
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Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory
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Q1) Which of the following statements about long-term memory is FALSE?
A)Information stored in long-term memory can potentially last a lifetime.
B)The amount of information that can be held in long-term memory is limitless.
C)The three components of long-term memory are the phonological loop, the visuospatial sketchpad, and the central executive.
D)One category of long-term memory is semantic memory.
Q2) Short-term memory is also called _____ memory.
A)working
B)semantic
C)episodic
D)sensory
Q3) As discussed in your textbook, the famous patient known for years as H. M. suffered from a severe case of:
A)Alzheimer's disease.
B)anterograde amnesia.
C)schizophrenia.
D)atypical Parkinson's.
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33
Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) Who was David Wechsler, and what is he famous for?
Q2) Define stereotype threat, and provide an example of psychological research that has demonstrated its effects on test performance.
Q3) Define and discuss creativity.
Q4) Describe the field of comparative cognition, and describe some important findings from this active area of psychological research.
Q5) According to the In Focus box, "Does a High IQ Score Predict Success in Life?" were all of Terman's gifted subjects successful? Explain your answer, comparing outcomes of the A group and the C group.
Q6) For individuals who are genetically related, how does similarity in IQ scores vary with degree of genetic relatedness?
Q7) How do we use the availability heuristic and the representativeness heuristic to help estimate the probability of an event's occurring?
Q8) Describe two examples of research investigating the use of symbolic communication in nonhuman animals.
Q9) What was Alfred Binet's role in the development of intelligence tests?
Q10) Define heritability and explain heritability estimate.
Page 34
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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) Functional fixedness is defined as the:
A)tendency to view objects as functioning only in their usual or customary way.
B)process of coming to a conclusion or making a judgment without conscious awareness of the thought processes involved.
C)tendency to persist in solving problems with solutions that have worked in the past.
D)sudden realization of how a problem can be solved.
Q2) A characteristic of human language is that we can use it to communicate meaningfully about ideas, objects, and activities that are not physically present. This characteristic is called:
A)syntax.
B)symbolism.
C)displacement.
D)generativity.
Q3) In many ways, creativity depends on:
A)functional fixedness.
B)usefulness.
C)heuristics.
D)problem finding.
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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) Heritability estimates suggest that about 75 percent of the differences in IQ scores within a particular population is due to environmental factors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Divergent thinking is another name for functional fixedness and is a major obstacle to creative problem solving.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The representativeness heuristic occurs when a rare event makes a vivid impression on people, and they overestimate the likelihood of the event occurring again.
A)True
B)False
Q4) By being flexible and imaginative, people seeking creative solutions generate many different responses. This approach is called divergent thinking because it involves moving away from the problem and considering it from a variety of perspectives. A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) For his independent project in Cooking 101, Henry decides to develop a new dip for raw vegetables, using sour cream and herbs. He tries one combination of ingredients after another, adjusting the seasoning as he goes along. What problem-solving strategy is Henry using?
A)working backward heuristic
B)additive model
C)single-feature algorithm
D)trial and error
Q2) When a psychological test is administered to the same group of people on different occasions and it produces very similar scores for each of the participants, it is said to be:
A)reliable.
B)standardized.
C)a "culture-free" test.
D)valid.
Q3) The term _____ refers to the rules for combining words in a particular language.
A)"generative"
B)"displacement"
C)"syntax"
D)"exemplar"
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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence
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Q1) One day, Ethan had "a feeling" that he was going to get a phone call from a long-lost friend. That evening, an old high school classmate called, inviting him to attend a class reunion. Now Ethan is telling everyone that he is psychic. According to your textbook, which cognitive bias provides the BEST explanation for Ethan's belief?
A)the overestimation effect
B)the belief-bias effect
C)confirmation bias
D)the fallacy of positive instances
Q2) The study of animal cognition focuses on:
A)memory, problem solving, planning, cooperation, and even deception.
B)comparing animal to human intelligence.
C)the reproductive goals of nonhuman primates.
D)the role of genetic influences on intelligence.
Q3) Research indicates that bilingualism may serve as a protective factor against:
A)Parkinson's disease.
B)bipolar disorder.
C)Alzheimer's disease.
D)schizophrenia.
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Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Describe the two brain pathways involved in triggering fear, how they differ, and their evolutionary significance.
Q2) Contrast competence motivation and achievement motivation, and give an original, real-life example of each.
Q3) Describe what a polygraph measures. List some problems with using a polygraph to detect lies, and describe the reading of microexpressions as an alternate method of detecting deception
Q4) Describe how arousal theory accounts for motivation and the qualities that characterize people who are sensation seekers.
Q5) Describe the relationship between dopamine receptor density and the reinforcing effects of pleasurable stimuli, such as addictive drugs. How does this phenomenon compare with the results of the PET scan study (described in the Focus on Neuroscience box), which investigated differences in the number of dopamine receptors in normal weight and obese individuals?
Q6) Describe the role of the sympathetic nervous system, including the physiological signs of the fight-or-flight response, in the experience of intense emotions.
Q7) How do genes and environmental factors interact in the development of obesity?
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Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Which of the following forms of emotional expression is NOT universal and is LEAST likely to be recognized by members of different cultures?
A)nonverbal vocal cues, such as tone of voice
B)facial expressions
C)emblems
D)the sequence of physical movements indicating embarrassment
Q2) The Focus on Neuroscience box, "Dopamine Receptors and Obesity," discussed a study in which women each drank a rich chocolate shake and had her brain scanned with fMRI. Six months later, the women returned and had their brains scanned again after drinking a shake. What happened to the women whose weight remained stable in the six-month interval between the brain scans?
A)They showed no difference in dopamine response to the milkshake between the two scans.
B)They showed an increase in dopamine response to the milkshake during the second scan.
C)They showed a decrease in dopamine response to the milkshake during the second scan.
D)They showed no dopamine response to the milkshake during the second scan.
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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) The small intestines secrete a hormone called cholecystokinin, which signals satiation.
A)True B)False
Q2) Achievement motivation has been measured by a test called the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).
A)True B)False
Q3) The main source of energy in your body is cholecystokinin (CCK).
A)True B)False
Q4) The general idea of instinct theories is that some human behaviors are innate and genetically influenced.
A)True B)False
Q5) Studies have shown that reducing the amount a person sleeps has no effect on blood levels of the hormones leptin and ghrelin.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) Ryan is enrolled in a fitness and nutrition course. He is currently learning a theory that posits the following: The natural or optimal weight that the body maintains by increases or decreases in hunger and basal metabolic rate is called the set-point weight. This is called _____ theory.
A)basil nutrition
B)energy saturation
C)basal metabolic
D)set-point
Q2) As a junior in college, Nicholas has made good grades in all of his classes. Despite this, he has kept putting off enrolling in English Composition I and II because he is convinced that he lacks the writing skills necessary to succeed in those classes. According to Psych for Your Life: Turning Your Goals into Reality, Nicholas's beliefs about his writing skills reflect a:
A)low level of self-actualization.
B)low degree of self-efficacy.
C)high level of activation, but a low degree of persistence.
D)normal degree of self-efficacy.
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Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion
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Q1) MOST researchers conclude that basic emotions consist of:
A)happiness, disgust, rage, and relaxation.
B)guilt, pride, embarrassment, and envy
C)regret, fear, guilt, contentment, rage, resentment, pity, and joy.
D)sadness, happiness, disgust, fear, surprise, and anger.
Q2) Psychologist Peter Gollwitzer developed an approach that helps people achieve their goals. What are the two key strategies of Gollwitzer's approach?
A)creating mastery experiences and developing self-efficacy
B)meeting basic needs and achieving self-actualization
C)developing competence and achieving autonomy
D)forming goal intentions and creating implementation intentions
Q3) Bae walked into a haunted house and immediately encountered an individual who appeared to have most of his face missing. Which brain structure was likely activated immediately when Bae encountered this frightening face?
A)the hypothalamus
B)the amygdala
C)the cerebellum
D)the medulla
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Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development
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Q1) What cognitive abilities and limitations characterize a child's thinking during the sensorimotor and preoperational stages?
Q2) Compare the typical sleeping arrangements of families with infants in the United States with those of other cultures, and discuss how these differences reflect different cultural beliefs and norms.
Q3) Explain the four different parenting styles described by Diana Baumrind and other psychologists, and describe how a parent from each style might deal with a child who wants to spend an excessive amount of time watching cartoon programs on television.
Q4) Describe the consequences of early and late maturation in adolescence, and state how these consequences differ for boys and girls.
Q5) List and describe factors that can affect the timing of puberty.
Q6) Marissa and Blake are concerned that their daughter, Peige, is approaching her teenage years. They have commented to friends that they are terrified of the idea of peer pressure and wonder if they should place restrictions on Peige's activities and friends. Would you recommend that Marissa and Blake respond in this way? Explain, citing research from the textbook in your answer.
Q7) Define and compare the adult development milestones of menopause and andropause.
Page 44
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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development
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Q1) The Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget is best known for his:
A)information-processing theory of social development.
B)extensive studies on how parenting styles influence the social behavior of children and adolescents.
C)theory proposing that children progress through distinct stages of cognitive development.
D)influential theory of psychosocial development throughout the lifespan.
Q2) Generally, well-nourished and healthy children begin puberty _____ children who have experienced serious health problems or inadequate nutrition.
A)earlier than
B)later than
C)at the same time as
D)either much earlier or much later than
Q3) Matt is awaiting his baby's first words. Matt can expect his baby to say his first word when the baby is _____ months old.
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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development
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Q1) By the fourth month of prenatal development the fetus is capable of reflexive movements and is able to move its arms, legs, and head.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some teratogens such as cocaine, cigarette smoke, and alcohol can damage the developing organism during the germinal fetal periods but not in the embryonic period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the Focus on Neuroscience box, "Boosting the Aging Brain," dozens of studies have shown that remaining sedentary can improve cognitive functioning in old age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to Mary Ainsworth's procedure called the "Strange Situation", securely attached infant will show no distress when her mother leaves the room.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development
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Q1) Sky is an early-maturing girl. Stone is an early-maturing boy. Compared with Sky, Stone will:
A)tend to have more positive experiences.
B)tend to have more negative experiences.
C)experience greater psychological difficulty coping with and understanding the physical changes that have taken place.
D)have more negative feelings about his body image and pubertal changes.
Q2) Which theorist proposed the zone of proximal development?
A)Piaget
B)Darwin
C)Kohlberg
D)Vygotsky
Q3) According to _____ theory of gender-role development, gender roles are learned through reinforcement, punishment, and modeling.
A)evolutionary
B)social learning
C)gender schema
D)biological
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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development
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Q1) Renée Baillargeon has conducted research on the cognitive abilities of very young infants. Baillargeon's research is based on which of the following premises?
A)Infants will turn away from events that they find puzzling or confusing.
B)Infants will notice and pay attention to events that violate their expectations.
C)Infants express their cognitive abilities through their physical actions.
D)Infants' comprehension vocabulary is much larger than their production vocabulary.
Q2) A newborn baby will turn its head and continue gazing at which type of moving stimulus?
A)a human face
B)an animal graphic
C)an orange ball
D)a yellow block
Q3) According to Piaget, each child:
A)passively acquires information about the world.
B)is born equipped with the tools needed to acquire language.
C)progresses through a series of eight stages of cognitive development.
D)actively tries to make sense of his or her environment.
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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality
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Q1) Define graphology, and describe the scientific research investigating the claims of graphologists. State what conclusions can be drawn about this topic.
Q2) Humanistic psychology is a view of personality that emphasizes human potential, self-actualization, self-awareness, and free will. This approach differs from Freud's pessimistic view that people were motivated by unconscious sexual and destructive instincts. Rather, humanistic psychology posits that people are innately good. The humanistic approach focuses on the healthy personality rather than on psychologically troubled people. This approach also differs from the behaviorist view that human and animal behavior is driven largely by to environmental reinforcement and punishment. In contrast, humanistic psychologists believe that people are motivated by the need to grow psychologically. As a consequence, humanistic psychologists doubted the use of rats and pigeons as experimental models of the essence of human nature. In fact, humanistic psychologists held that the most important factor in personality is the individual's conscious subjective perception of his or her self.
Q3) What are some important criticisms of the trait perspective on personality?
Q4) Describe the four major theoretical perspectives on personality.
Q5) What is the social cognitive perspective on personality, and how does it differ from psychoanalytic and humanistic perspectives?
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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality
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Questions
Q1) Serena's psychologist asked her to look carefully at several ambiguous images and say what she sees in the images. Serena's psychologist is using what kind of personality test?
A)a graphology test
B)a projective test
C)a personality type inventory
D)a self-report inventory
Q2) Despite the fact that Jacob is actually incompetent at many of the tasks that his job entails, he is constantly bragging about his accomplishments, abilities, and skills. Alfred Adler would probably suggest that Jacob has developed a(n) _____ to cover up his weaknesses.
A)high level of self-efficacy
B)"possible self"
C)superiority complex
D)inferiority complex
Q3) Humanistic psychology is a view of personality that emphasizes:
A)reciprocal determinism.
B)the study of psychologically healthy people.
C)the importance of genetic factors in personality.
D)unconscious determinants of personality and behavior.
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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality
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Q1) In general, situational factors have more influence on behavior than personality traits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For boys, successfully resolving the Oedipus complex involves the development of the incest taboo and identification with the father.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Oedipus complex refers to a child's sexual attraction to the same-sex parent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Personality theories can generally be grouped under four main perspectives: psychoanalytic, humanistic, social-cognitive, and trait theories.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A person's self-efficacy beliefs can vary greatly from one situation to another.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality
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Q1) The five-factor model of personality describes personality in terms of:
A)psychoticism, stability, extraversion, neuroticism, and conscientiousness.
B)extraversion, introversion, psychoticism, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.
C)extraversion, emotional stability, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.
D)neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.
Q2) According to research on identical twins separated at birth and raised in different families, similarities in personality traits are due to _____, whereas differences in personality traits are due to _____.
A)genetic influences; environmental influences
B)environmental influences; genetic influences
C)emergenic influences; heritability of traits
D)heritability of traits; emergenic influences
Q3) The MOST widely used self-report inventory is the:
A)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, or MMPI.
B)Thematic Apperception Test, or TAT.
C)Rorschach Inkblot Test.
D)California Personality Inventory (CPI).
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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality
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Q1) _____ contended that, "I dare to believe that when the human being is inwardly free to choose whatever he deeply values, he tends to value those objects, experiences, and goals that will make for his own survival, growth, and development, and for the survival and development of others."
A)Carl Jung
B)Carl Rogers
C)Anna Freud
D)Alfred Adler
Q2) Which of the following perspectives on human personality emphasizes the study of individual differences?
A)psychoanalytic
B)social cognitive
C)trait
D)neo-Freudian
Q3) _____ is considered the "third force" in psychology.
A)Humanistic psychology
B)Evolution
C)Psychoanalysis
D)Behaviorism
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Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology
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Q1) Describe the Stanford Prison Experiment, and explain how the results of that study help explain the mistreatment of prisoners at Abu Ghraib.
Q2) Define the rules of reciprocity and commitment, provide an example of each, and indicate how persuasion tactics can be resisted.
Q3) Describe research findings on the use of fMRI scans of people's brains while they looked at photos of physically attractive people, and identify the brain areas that were activated. Also, identify brain areas that are responsive to the reward value of attractive faces.
Q4) What is implicit cognition, and what is an implicit personality theory? Why do these reactions occur, and how can they potentially lead to faulty perceptions of other people?
Q5) Do attitudes always guide behavior? Describe the conditions under which a person is most likely to behave in a way that is consistent with his or her attitudes.
Q6) Describe the findings of Solomon Asch's research on conformity.
Q7) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of the social categorization process.
Q8) What was the basic experimental setup in Stanley Milgram's original obedience experiment?
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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology
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Q1) Altruism is to _____ as prosocial behavior is to _____.
A)expectation of reward; selfishness
B)helping another person with no expectation of reward; either selfless or self-serving behavior
C)the rule of commitment; the rule of reciprocity
D)selfless or self-serving behavior; helping another person with no expectation of reward
Q2) During their yearly pledge drive The Money for Good Works Foundation mails their prospective donors a packet of individualized mailing labels, along with a donation form. This is an example of:
A)foot-in-the-door technique.
B)door-in-the-face technique.
C)rule of reciprocity.
D)highball technique.
Q3) Albert Bandura's classic Bobo Doll experiments demonstrated which of the following ideas?
A)Aggression is largely a genetic phenomenon.
B)Aggression is at least partly a learned phenomenon.
C)Aggression does not have a genetic component.
D)Learning is not a significant influence on aggression.
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Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology
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Q1) The subjects assigned to the role of "teacher" in Milgram's original obedience study showed very little emotion or concern for the obvious pain they inflicted on the learner when they administered intense electric shocks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In Milgram's original obedience study, when the two volunteer participants arrived at the lab they were randomly assigned to their respective roles as either the "teacher" or the "learner."
A)True
B)False
Q3) We have a tendency to take credit for our successes and a tendency to distance ourselves from our failures. This is called the self-serving bias.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Person perception is the conscious mental process of categorizing people into groups or social categories on the basis of their shared characteristics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology
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Q1) Which of the following is a fairly common attributional bias?
A)hindsight bias
B)the in-group bias
C)the "feel good, do good" effect
D)diffusion of responsibility
Q2) When people feel good, successful, happy, or fortunate, they are more likely to help others. This is called:
A)diffusion of responsibility.
B)the bystander effect.
C)"feel-good, do-good."
D)a halo bias.
Q3) According to Critical Thinking: Abuse at Abu Ghraib, the Stanford Prison experiment demonstrated that _____ is more likely in confusing or ambiguous situations.
A)normative social influence
B)aggression
C)antisocial behavior
D)prosocial behavior
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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology
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Q1) "I don't care what kind of lawyer he is! I can't believe that Mia is going to marry a lawyer! They're all just money-grubbing, bloodless leeches. You know what you call an honest lawyer? An impossibility!" Kathy laughed. Kathy's view that all lawyers share the same qualities is an example of:
A)the out-group homogeneity effect.
B)the fundamental attribution error.
C)an implicit personality theory.
D)blaming the victim.
Q2) The tendency to blame oneself for one's failures, attributing them to internal, personal causes, while downplaying one's successes by attributing them to external, situational causes, is called:
A)the self-serving bias.
B)the fundamental attribution bias.
C)hindsight bias.
D)the self-effacing, or modesty, bias.
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Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) Define burnout, explain the characteristics of burnout, and describe work situations that are likely to lead to burnout, as well as steps that can be taken to prevent burnout.
Q2) Describe the Type A and Type B behavior patterns, and identify the personality dimension or dimensions that seem to produce the highest health risks.
Q3) Describe the experience of the fight-or-flight response, and explain the conditions under which fight-or-flight may be helpful or harmful to physical health.
Q4) Provide an original example of a stressful experience, and use it to illustrate the definition of stress, noting the role of cognitive appraisal in stress.
Q5) What is emotion-focused coping? Describe the six forms of emotion-focused coping that are summarized in your textbook.
Q6) How can social support help buffer the effects of stress? Does social support have to come from human sources?
Q7) Describe instances in which social support can have negative consequences.
Q8) What gender differences have been found in the effects of social support?
Q9) How do social isolation and diverse social networks impact health?
Q10) What kinds of social support efforts are MOST likely to be perceived as helpful?
Page 59
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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping
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240 Verified Questions
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Q1) When Sabrina tried to talk to her husband Adam about the problems she was having with her boss, Adam interrupted her saying that she is overreacting. He went on to explain to her why her reaction was irrational, how she should be feeling instead, and what she should say and do if the situation ever occurred again. Based on the criteria discussed in the In Focus box, ''Providing Effective Social Support,'' how would you evaluate Adam's attempt to provide social support for Sabrina?
A)Adam's helpful advice will significantly lessen Sabrina's distress, especially if she does what he tells her to do.
B)Because Adam is providing emotional support but not tangible or informational support, Sabrina will probably turn to another confidant.
C)Adam's response will not help Sabrina and may even make her feel worse.
D)Sabrina will experience a heightened sense of personal control, which should significantly lower her level of stress and decrease her chance of illness.
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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) Problem-focused coping efforts are primarily aimed at directly changing or managing a threatening or harmful stressor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research has now shown that certain personality traits, such as cheerfulness and having a positive attitude, can cure cancer and other serious illnesses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Relationships with others can be a significant cause of stress, especially if they involve negative interactions with other people.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Martin Seligman's research on explanatory style demonstrated that the characteristic way in which people explain negative events does not have a significant impact on their physical health or psychological well-being.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) Brenda forgot to set her alarm clock, overslept, missed her train, and was late to work. When she got to her office, she realized that she'd left the power adapter for her laptop at home. By afternoon, Brenda had a mountain of work on her desk and a tension headache. Brenda's high level of stress:
A)is due to her Type B behavior pattern.
B)can best be explained as the cumulative effect of daily hassles.
C)can best be explained by the social contagion effect.
D)is due to the release of the hormone oxytocin by the adrenal medulla.
Q2) The MOST damaging component of the Type A behavior pattern appears to be:
A)time urgency and impatience.
B)lack of personal control.
C)hostility.
D)competitiveness.
Q3) _____ refers to a negative emotional state occurring in response to events that are perceived as taxing or exceeding a person's resources or ability to cope.
A)Stress
B)Anxiety
C)An attitude
D)An appraisal
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Page 62
Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping
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Q1) After Clarissa broke her foot during a karate tournament, her friend Emma drove her to the clinic for doctor's appointments, brought her home-cooked meals and groceries, helped her make up the class work she'd missed, and called her at least once a day just to keep Clarissa's spirits up. Emma is:
A)providing informational social support.
B)providing tangible AND emotional social support.
C)demonstrating the tend-and-befriend response.
D)probably suffering from the stress contagion effect because she is using an emotion-focused coping strategy to help her friend.
Q2) According to Critical Thinking: Do Personality Factors Cause Disease?, which of the following is personality traits is LEAST likely to be associated with poor health habits?
A)high extraversion
B)high sensation seeking
C)low sensation seeking
D)low conscientiousness
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Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) What evidence seems to support the role of genetic factors in the development of schizophrenia?
Q2) What evidence is there to support, and to contradict, the dopamine hypothesis as an explanation of schizophrenia?
Q3) Describe the learning principles involved in the development of some phobias, including the role of biological preparedness. Include "real world" examples for each.
Q4) What kinds of themes are commonly present in delusional thinking?
Q5) Identify the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), panic attacks, panic disorder, and explain how agoraphobia is related to panic disorder.
Q6) Distinguish between the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, and give at least two examples of each.
Q7) Define major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and describe the similarities and differences between these three disorders.
Q8) What is a personality disorder? Describe the symptoms, behaviors, and personality characteristics associated with the three conditions that are included in the odd, eccentric cluster of personality disorders.
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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) According to the Critical Thinking box on smoking and psychological disorders, what is one possible explanation for the fact that people with psychological disorders have a much higher rate of smoking than people who do not have a psychological disorder?
A)People with a psychological disorder may tend to use cigarettes as a form of self-medication.
B)People who smoke heavily develop psychological disorders because the drug nicotine in cigarettes is a main cause of mental illness.
C)People with a psychological disorder smoke heavily because nicotine decreases the production of dopamine and inhibits activity in multiple brain structures involved in producing rewarding sensation.
D)Heavy cigarette smoking causes severe psychological disorders, and the development of psychological disorders, in turn, causes people to smoke even more heavily.
Q2) Pathological anxiety:
A)is often normal in high-stress contexts.
B)can motivate people to work harder.
C)is synonymous with generalized anxiety.
D)is irrational and disruptive.
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65
Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Over the last year, Emily's fear of having a panic attack in a public place and being unable to escape has intensified to the point that she rarely leaves her house or goes to new places. Emily appears to be suffering from agoraphobia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Researcher David Silbersweig and colleagues used PET scans to take a "snapshot" of brain activity during schizophrenic hallucinations. At the moment of hallucination, PET results showed activity in the left auditory and visual areas of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You can help a person who has expressed suicidal intentions by identifying potential solutions to their problems, even though none of the solutions may be perfect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When anxiety alerts a person to a realistic threat, it is normal and adaptive.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Compared with during the spring months, during the winter months the number of suicides in the United States:
A)doubles.
B)triples.
C)quadruples.
D)is at its lowest rate.
Q2) Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by:
A)sudden, intense, and short-lived bouts of anxiety.
B)panic attacks that occur frequently and unexpectedly.
C)recurring mental images of a specific traumatic incident.
D)ongoing, global, and persistent anxiety.
Q3) _____ is a culture-bound disorder in which people become virtual recluses for years at a time, locking themselves away to play video games or surf the internet.
A)Saladera
B)Windigo
C)Hikkomori
D)Amok
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Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders
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Q1) Brain-imaging studies reveal that rapid loss of gray matter in the temporal lobes and the frontal lobes is associated with:
A)PTSD.
B)bipolar disorders.
C)dissociative disorders.
D)schizophrenia.
Q2) Dalpiez is conducts research on the _____ theory of borderline personality disorder. According to this theory, borderline personality disorder is the outcome of a unique combination of biological, psychological, and environmental factors.
A)sociocultural
B)psychoanalytic
C)evolutionary
D)biosocial developmental
Q3) The _____ describes more than 260 specific psychological disorders.
A)National Mental Health Association
B)MMPI
C)DSM-5
D)National Council for Behavioral Health
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68
Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies
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Q1) How do short-term dynamic therapies differ from traditional psychoanalysis?
Q2) List and describe at least three drawbacks of early antipsychotic medications.
Q3) How are the operant conditioning procedures of positive reinforcement and extinction used to modify behaviors?
Q4) Describe the psychotherapy techniques that were developed by Sigmund Freud, and explain their therapeutic functions.
Q5) How do paraprofessionals and lay counselors differ?
Q6) According to Carl Rogers, what therapeutic conditions foster change in the therapy client, and why?
Q7) What are some of the advantages of group therapy compared with individual therapy?
Q8) How do the cultural values inherent in Western psychotherapy sometimes clash with the values of other cultures?
Q9) Contrast the assumptions of behavior therapy with those of cognitive therapy.
Q10) Describe the basic assumptions and techniques of rational-emotive behavior therapy, including the "ABC" model.
Page 69
Q11) Describe cognitive-behavioral therapy. What techniques does a cognitive-behavioral therapist use?
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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Historically, medical treatments for psychological disorders:
A)were not developed until the 1980s.
B)were developed by European and North American physicians in the late 1800s, but were not used in Asian or Middle Eastern societies.
C)predate modern medicine by many centuries and were based on the medical knowledge of the time.
D)were originally designed to punish the person with a psychological disorder, and thus were cruel and inhumane.
Q2) Developed by South African psychiatrist Joseph Wolpe in the 1950s, _____ involves learning a new conditioned response (relaxation) that is incompatible with or inhibits the old conditioned response (fear and anxiety).
A)contingency management
B)eye movement desensitization reprocessing (EMDR)
C)systematic desensitization
D)rational-emotive therapy
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Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies
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Q1) ECT involves electrically inducing a seizure in the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Psychoanalysis was founded by Carl Rogers and is based on his theory of personality.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The text described the successful use of operant conditioning techniques in the treatment of a 4-year-old girl with various bedtime and sleep-related problem behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Contingency management involves reinforcing carefully specified behaviors with concrete rewards that are "earned" by the individuals enrolled in outpatient treatment programs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mary Cover Jones was the first female psychoanalytic therapist.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies
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Q1) Self-help groups, such as Alcoholics Anonymous, follow _____ approach.
A)the client-centered
B)the behaviorist
C)a 12-step
D)a mindfulness
Q2) When he goes to graduate school, Darrin would like to do research that might help overcome the trial-and-error nature of prescribing psychotropic medications. He is excited by a new field of study, called _____, which is concerned with how genes influence an individual's response to drugs.
A)psychopharmacology
B)contingency management
C)psychoneuroleptics
D)pharmacogenetics
Q3) _____, a treatment for major depressive disorder, does NOT involve applying an electrical current to the patient.
A)TMS
B)VNS
C)ECT
D)DBS
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Page 72
Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies
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Q1) Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by:
A)a rigid preoccupation with orderliness, cleanliness, and rituals that interfere with completing tasks.
B)erratic, unstable relationships and desperate efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment.
C)extreme social inhibition due to feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to criticism or disapproval.
D)pervasive but unwarranted distrust and suspiciousness, and assumptions that other people intend to deceive, exploit, or harm them.
Q2) In terms of suicidal behavior, one consistent gender difference is that men:
A)are less likely than women to tell someone that they are planning to commit suicide.
B)outnumber women in suicide deaths because men use more lethal methods.
C)are more likely than women to attempt suicide after a failed relationship.
D)outnumber women in the number of suicide attempts.
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