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General Psychology is an introductory course that explores the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. Covering fundamental concepts, theories, and research methods, this course examines topics such as perception, learning, memory, motivation, emotion, personality, psychological disorders, and social behavior. Students gain insights into how biological, psychological, and socio-cultural factors influence human thought and action, and develop critical thinking skills by analyzing human behavior from multiple perspectives. The course provides a foundational understanding of psychology, preparing students for further study in the field and helping them apply psychological principles to everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology 9th Edition by James W. Kalat
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Q1) Someone who believes that all behaviors have a physical cause is an adherent of which philosophical position?
A) hereditarianism
B) environmentalism
C) free will
D) determinism
Answer: D
Q2) Titchener is known for his studies of
A) the structures of the mind.
B) the functions of various mental elements.
C) overt behavior.
D) the subconscious.
Answer: A
Q3) A health psychologist would be likely to study a question such as
A) "How does smoking and drinking affect a person's health?"
B) "What are the major types of schizophrenia?"
C) "How accurate is a line-up when attempting to identify a criminal?"
D) "How are brain abnormalities involved in attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?"
Answer: A
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Q1) Explain the difference between structuralism and functionalism.
Answer: Structuralists are primarily interested in understanding the structures that compose the mind or understanding all of the elements that make up our conscious experiences. Functionalists are more interested in understanding how the mind works in a dynamic manner. A structuralist would be interested in using introspection to understand every element involved in an experience (e.g. sensory information) and a functionalist would be interested in a behavior in terms of understanding whether the behavior/experience is functionally adaptive and whether or not it will be repeated in the future.
Q2) ____________________ are specialists in the psychological condition of students, usually in kindergarten through the 12th grade.
Answer: School psychologists
Q3) The research field of ____________________ and ____________________ studies how behavior depends on the outcomes of past behaviors and current motivations. or
Answer: learning, motivation motivation, learning
Q4) ____________________ is credited with being the founder of American psychology.
Answer: William James

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Q1) In both science and a criminal trial, who has the "burden of proof"-that is, the obligation to demonstrate that their claims are correct?
A) the side that should be able to produce good evidence, if they are right
B) the side that has more to lose, if they fail to convince others
C) the side with more money to spend
D) the side that is defending the status quo (that is, the current set of beliefs)
Answer: A
Q2) Random assignment is
A) a means of deciding which participants will be in the experimental group.
B) a means of eliminating the effects of independent variables.
C) the procedure administered to the control group while the experimental group is receiving the treatment.
D) a means of keeping the dependent variable constant for all groups.
Answer: A
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Q1) The ____________________ is a measurement of the amount of variation among scores in a normal distribution.
Q2) Dr. Jones finds a correlation of +.5 between variables A and B. Dr. Jones can logically conclude that changes in variable A caused the changes observed in variable B.
A)True B)False
Q3) A ____________________ study is a procedure in which investigators measure the correlation between two variables without controlling either of them.
Q4) ____________________ is a highly desirable feature of a scientific study.
Q5) Two serious objections to claims of extrasensory perception are that the explanations are not ____________________ and that the results are not
Q6) The burden of proof concept argues that it is up to the skeptic to prove that no person can demonstrate psychic abilities.
A)True B)False
Q7) A ____________________ is the entire group of individuals to be considered.
Q8) Mathematical summaries of results are known as ____________________.
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Q1) Compared to the electroencephalograph (EEG) , the positron-emission tomography (PET) provides
A) information on a millisecond-by-millisecond basis.
B) more precise information about where the brain is active.
C) information about the specific thoughts that a person is having.
D) the best technique for measuring people's reactions to lights and sounds.
Q2) The all-or-none law applies to A) nervous system arousal.
B) the release of neurotransmitters.
C) whether a person has neurons or glia.
D) the sending of an action potential.
Q3) Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs often prescribed for use as A) nocebos.
B) stimulants.
C) painkillers.
D) tranquilizers.
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Q1) Hormones and neurotransmitters are similar in that each is carried through the body by our blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Parkinson's disease is thought to be caused by a deficiency in the activity of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) technique can indicate which brain areas are the most active while the person performs some mental activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The action potential remains equally strong along the entire length of the axon, no matter how long the axon is.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Nicotine is classified as a ____________________.
Q6) Parkinson's disease can be helped by taking pills that contain
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Q1) Olfaction refers to the sense of A) balance.
B) touch.
C) limb position.
D) smell.
Q2) Which sensory system detects the position and acceleration of the head?
A) vestibular system
B) olfactory system
C) auditory system
D) somatosensory system
Q3) Which of the following is an example of motion parallax?
A) You feel tension in your eye muscles when you focus on a nearby object.
B) As you travel in a car, nearby objects pass by faster than distant objects do.
C) An illuminated point in an otherwise dark room appears to move.
D) People notice a slowly moving object even if they had not been paying attention to it before it started to move.
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Q1) In the human ear, the ability to perceive low frequencies (up to about 100 Hz) depends on neurons working according to the ____________________ principle.
Q2) Visual perception in humans is best described by feature detectors, and visual perception in other species of mammals is best described by the Gestalt view.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some people report continuing sensations, including pain, in a limb long after it has been amputated. This phenomenon is known as ____________________.
Q4) Briefly describe hyperopia and myopia and how these two common disorders of vision differ.
Q5) Sound waves with greater amplitude are perceived as having a higher pitch than sound waves with lower amplitude.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Gestalt psychologists described several principles of how we organize perceptions into meaningful wholes. Define the principles of (a) proximity, (b) similarity, (c) continuation, and (d) closure.
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Q1) Variations in one gene are known to affect the likelihood that people will consume large amounts of dairy products. The way that gene affects behavior is by influencing
A) the response of taste buds to the sugars and fats of dairy products.
B) the structure of certain parts of the brain responsible for hunger.
C) people's ability to metabolize a sugar found in dairy products.
D) the velocity of action potentials in the nerves controlling salivation.
Q2) What evidence do we have that babies can hear, even in the first 3 days after birth?
A) They babble more loudly if they need to in order to hear themselves over the background noise.
B) They respond differently to their own mother's voice than to that of other women.
C) They cry whenever they hear any sound, no matter how loud or soft.
D) Babies who are spoken to in the first 3 days develop language faster than other babies do.
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Q1) A cohort is a group of people born at a particular time or a group of people who enter an organization at a particular time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although new mothers may claim that their newborns (less than 3 days old) can recognize the sound of their voice, there is no research evidence to support this claim.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Newborns who hear the same sound repeatedly show ____________________, which means ____________________.
Q4) Piaget called the third stage of intellectual development the sensorimotor stage.
A)True B)False
Q5) Research on twins separated at birth has led scientists to begin identifying the genes that cause specific behaviors, such as hobbies and other preferences. A)True
B)False
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Q1) You attend every new movie that appears at your local theater. You find that most of them are dull (not reinforcing) but really enjoy about one-fourth of them. This is an example of a __________ schedule of reinforcement.
A) fixed-ratio
B) variable-ratio
C) fixed-interval
D) variable-interval
Q2) After a subject has developed a classically conditioned response, an investigator begins presenting the conditioned stimulus by itself. Which of the following is likely to occur?
A) extinction
B) acquisition
C) spontaneous recovery
D) stimulus generalization
Q3) What is spontaneous recovery?
A) a learned decrease in responding
B) an increase in responding after a delay following extinction
C) a response to a stimulus that resembles the stimulus used in training
D) a conditioned response to a stimulus that followed the unconditioned stimulus
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Q1) Psychologists are nearly unanimous in their agreement that physical punishment (spanking) effectively reduces the likelihood of unwanted responses over extended periods of time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In classical conditioning, responding decreases in both ____________________ and ____________________.
Q3) In classical conditioning, responding increases in both ____________________ and ____________________.
Q4) Pavlov presumed that animals are born with certain automatic connections-called unconditioned reflexes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ____________________ refers to the previously established association to one stimulus blocks the formation of an association to the added stimulus.
Q6) A rat learns to press a lever to escape from an electric shock. This is an example of
Q7) Another name for negative punishment is ____________________.
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Q1) Studies of the neurological patient H.M. and similar patients lead to the conclusion that
A) people have several separate kinds of memories.
B) once something is learned, it is never completely forgotten.
C) the visual cortex is essential for all memories, even those that do not involve vision.
D) electrical stimulation of the brain can cause people to confuse a memory of one event with the memory of another, later event.
Q2) Prolonged deficiency of vitamin B-1 leads to a condition that is characterized by severe memory problems. The name of that condition is
A) Kleine-Levin syndrome.
B) Korsakoff's syndrome.
C) Cotard's syndrome.
D) Turner's syndrome.
Q3) Research in the 1950's suggested that the capacity of short-term memory is
A) one or two items.
B) about seven items.
C) about the same as long-term memory.
D) unlimited.
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Q1) A police officer is interviewing a young child, Alex, to try to determine whether or not the child was physically abused by another child during a recent visit to the park. The police officer first asks Alex if he was hit or hurt during his visit to the park. The officer then gives Alex two dolls and asks him to use the dolls to act out what occurred at the park. Finally, when Alex continues to struggle to describe any abusive event, the officer plays a tape in which a different child is describing a fight that took place at the park. The officer then asks Alex if he now remembers the event. Give at least two examples of strategies used by the officer that may negatively influence the accuracy of Alex's report.
Q2) You memorize a list of paired associates including "stone-rock." Later someone asks you what word on the list refers to a kind of music, and you do not think of the word "rock." This result is an example of the ____________________ principle.
Q3) Increased recall at the beginning and end of a list of information suggests ____________________ and ____________________ effects, respectively.
Q4) Individuals with amnesia typically have problems with ____________________ memories while ____________________ memories remain intact.
Q5) Remembering how to play the piano is an example of ____________________ memory.
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Q1) A student in one experiment is showing the Stroop effect. Which change in the usual procedure would probably stop the student from showing this effect?
A) Have the student hold the page closer to his or her eyes.
B) Write the words in a language the student does not know.
C) Write the words in all capital letters.
D) Encourage the student to speak as rapidly as possible.
Q2) In decision making, __________ means searching only until you find something that is good enough.
A) satisficing
B) availability heuristic
C) representative heuristic
D) maximizing
Q3) Language is easily learned by humans because the human brain
A) is far bigger and more complex than any other brain.
B) can learn a series of simple words easier than the complex sounds of whales or dolphins.
C) has areas that are specialized for language.
D) processes sound energy at an earlier age than it processes visual energy.
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Q1) In general, it is easier to learn a second language during high school once you have mastered grammar for your primary language.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Psychologists use the term __________ to refer to your tendency to respond to or to remember some stimuli more than others at any given time.
Q3) According to the Stroop effect, you would be likely say, "__________" if you were asked to name the color of ink of the word yellow written in blue ink.
Q4) Transformational grammar, is a system for converting a deep structure into a surface structure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In decision making, the maximizing strategy approximates the use of __________ whereas satisficing is more of a __________ approach.
Q6) When experts made predictions about U.S. and world politics over the next several years, their accuracy was generally__________, and they were __________ confident in their predictions.
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Q1) If the questions on a given test accurately represent the information the test is supposed to cover, then we can say that the test has high
A) predictive validity.
B) concurrent validity.
C) content validity.
D) utility.
Q2) What percentage of people would we expect to score more than two standard deviations above the mean on an IQ test?
A) 2%
B) 20-25%
C) 50%
D) 5%
Q3) The original purpose of IQ tests, and still their primary function, is to?
A) measure the effectiveness of different teaching methods.
B) promote creativity.
C) predict performance in school.
D) help researchers test theories of intelligence.
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Q1) Identical twins typically are ____________________ similar in intelligence than fraternal twins, fraternal twins typically are ____________________ similar in intelligence than single birth siblings.
Q2) The ____________________ is the phenomenon that raw scores on IQ tests have been increasing from decade to decade.
Q3) Intelligence quotient (IQ) tests attempt to measure an individual's probable performance in school and similar settings.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A five-year-old who has a Stanford-Binet IQ score of 116 is more intelligent than an eight-year-old who also scores 116.
A)True
B)False
Q5) On average, people with high IQ scores have fewer car accidents than people with low IQ scores.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____________________ is a possible explanation for the Flynn effect.
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Q1) Most employees who are asked to work at different 8-hour shifts on different days find it easier to adjust to the schedule when
A) they shift to a work schedule that starts 8 hours later.
B) they shift to a work schedule that starts 8 hours earlier.
C) the work times shift randomly from one day to the next.
D) they stay on each shift for only a week at a time before rotating to the next one.
Q2) Dement deprived some young men of REM sleep for seven consecutive nights. Which of the following was NOT one of the consequences?
A) He had to awaken them more and more often each night.
B) They had nightmares for weeks after the end of the experiment.
C) They complained of anxiety and irritability on the days following deprivation.
D) When permitted to sleep without interruption, they spent more time than usual in REM sleep.
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Q1) The research evidence supports the claim that hypnosis can help people accurately recall forgotten memories from childhood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Spatial neglect occurs in certain cases where there is damage to parts of the right hemisphere, spatial neglect is rare when there is damage to the left hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Phi effect patients insist relatives and close friends are unfamiliar, and that their relatives are impostors who just resemble their relatives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is spatial neglect? Describe what you would expect to see in someone with spatial neglect trying to read a book. Lastly, is it more likely that someone with spatial neglect has damage to the left or right hemisphere?
Q5) The ____________________ experience is the sense that an event is uncannily familiar.
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Q1) Which of the following must occur in a man following orgasm, but not necessarily in a woman, before orgasm occurs again?
A) excitement
B) plateau
C) refractory period
D) sex flush to the skin
Q2) At the apex of Maslow's hierarchy is the need for
A) will to meaning.
B) will to power.
C) drive to succeed.
D) self-actualization.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding job satisfaction?
A) Job satisfaction is heritable.
B) Job satisfaction depends entirely on the job itself.
C) Women tend to report greater job satisfaction than men.
D) Younger workers tend to report greater job satisfaction than older workers.
Q4) Job satisfaction is __________ correlated with job performance.
A) positively
B) negatively
C) not

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Q1) An important source of energy for all parts of the body, and the main source of energy for the brain, is ____________________.
Q2) Research suggests that there are different types of psychological factors that arouse individuals to act towards meeting a desired goal. Psychologists distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic motivations. Define intrinsic and extrinsic motivation and give an example of each type of motivation in the context of reading a book.
Q3) Like many other important concepts in psychology, motivation is difficult to understand. There are four theories of motivation described in your text. Select two of the theories and briefly describe the views proposed in the theories.
Q4) Fat cells in your body release the hormone leptin, which signals your brain that you should stop eating.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cases of bulimia have only been found in cultures that have a strong Western influence.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The area of psychology that deals with the ways people's behavior can enhance health and prevent illness is called __________ psychology.
A) functional
B) behavioral
C) Gestalt
D) health
Q2) You have impulsively volunteered for an experiment on the effects of electric shock on performance. You now have a choice among three schedules for receiving exactly twenty shocks. Which of these schedules, if any, would probably prove to be the most stressful?
A) shocks delivered exactly once a minute for 20 minutes
B) 20 shocks delivered on an irregular basis, but each one preceded by a warning signal
C) 20 shocks delivered on an irregular basis, without any warning signal
D) It makes no difference; all these schedules would be equally stressful.
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Q1) The ____________________ nervous system prepares you for a burst of vigorous activity, the ____________________ nervous system generally supports nonemergency functions.
Q2) The full expression including the muscles around the eyes is called the ____________________.
Q3) In response to prolonged stress, higher amounts of cortisol are released from the ____________________.
Q4) Psychologists sometimes speak of ____________________, the ability to perceive, imagine, and understand emotions and to use that information in making decisions.
Q5) Elaine visualizes receiving an A on her next psychology test. Elizabeth visualizes herself going to the library, organizing her notes and reading the book. Elizabeth is more likely to be successful than Elaine.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The greatest difficulty facing the developers of tests of emotional intelligence is determining what the correct answers are.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to the primacy effect in impression formation, you will be more influenced by?
A) ordinary information than by unusual information.
B) physical characteristics than by nonverbal behaviors.
C) information received first, rather than that received later.
D) peripheral rather than central traits.
Q2) A speaker tries to persuade people to do something by describing the dangers they face if they fail to act. The speech is most likely to be persuasive if the danger seems __________ and if the listeners believe that they __________ do something about it.
A) real...can
B) real...cannot
C) exaggerated...can
D) exaggerated...cannot
Q3) One important reason why people sometimes fail to help a person in distress is
A) group polarization.
B) the difference between high self-monitors and low self-monitors.
C) cognitive dissonance.
D) diffusion of responsibility.
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Q1) If a jury convenes to decide on a verdict and sentence in a criminal trial and every juror thinks the defendant is guilty from the start of the deliberation, they are likely to decide on a harsher sentence for the defendant as a group than if they were individually asked to determine the sentence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To measure the maturity of someone's moral judgments, Kohlberg devised a series of moral dilemmas, which are problems that pit one moral value against another.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Altruistic behavior refers to helping others despite some cost or risk to others.
A)True
B)False
Q4) People listening to a message on a topic that they consider of little importance will probably follow the ____________________ route to persuasion.
Q5) ____________________ is defined as the behavior of helping others despite some cost or risk to oneself.
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Q1) Carl Rogers assumed that
A) people have a natural drive to fulfill their potential.
B) the sex drive and the striving for superiority are equally strong.
C) without social pressures, people would be inactive or destructive.
D) there is a collective unconscious as well as a personal unconscious.
Q2) The defense mechanism of regression is
A) motivated forgetting.
B) presenting oneself as the opposite of what one actually is.
C) a refusal to believe something.
D) a return to juvenile behavior.
Q3) The "biggest" of the big five personality traits (those that have the largest influences on people's behavior) are extraversion and
A) neuroticism.
B) agreeableness.
C) conscientiousness.
D) openness to experience.
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Q1) You describe a friend as being friendly, energetic, and having a good sense of humor. This description would be consistent with the ____________________ approach to personality.
Q2) Attributing one's own undesirable characteristics to other people is known as projection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of releasing an emotion, getting it out of one's system, is called ____________________.
Q4) The idea that individuals are basically destructive and have to be held in check by society are views that were expressed by ____________________ and ____________________. or
Q5) Striving for success is to ____________________ as collective unconscious is to ____________________.
Q6) One of the major strengths of Freud's theory is that it is highly parsimonious. A)True B)False
Q7) Freud's theory of personality is an example of a ____________________ theory.
30
Q8) According to research, our personality gets more ____________________ as we age.
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Q1) A personality disorder is a:
A) maladaptive, inflexible manner of behaving.
B) temporary change in a person's level of anxiety or depression.
C) condition that the person complains about even though other people regard it as normal.
D) physical symptom that has no apparent medical cause.
Q2) Meta-analysis refers to
A) a form of therapy based on Freud's teachings.
B) an extended therapy session that may last for several hours.
C) an interpretation of dream content.
D) combining the results of many experiments.
Q3) Which kind of psychotherapy gives people the least direction and advice, simply providing sympathy, acceptance, and encouragement for people to solve their own problems?
A) person-centered therapy
B) behavior therapy
C) psychoanalysis
D) rational-emotive therapy
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Q1) You are seeing a therapist to help treat your anxiety. Your therapist is completely accepting of you, but rarely offers suggestions or advice, and instead paraphrases and restates what you have just said. Your therapist is employing cognitive therapy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Insanity refers to the defendant's ____________________ at the time of the crime.
Q3) It is possible for a cognitive therapist to practice family systems therapy simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A therapist who uses many methods, depending on what seems to work in an individual case, is said to be ____________________.
Q5) People who have been involuntarily committed to a mental hospital still have the legal right to refuse a particular form of treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____________________ means the removal of patients from mental hospitals.
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Q1) One reason why the disease concept of drug dependence is controversial is that
A) medical doctors today insist on a very precise definition of "disease".
B) no drug or chemical is helpful for those who are trying to overcome alcoholism.
C) addicts are morally weak, not physically weak.
D) addicts do not always grow worse and worse over time.
Q2) Obsessive-compulsive checkers, in contrast to obsessive-compulsive cleaners:
A) are more similar to people with phobias.
B) are more frequently women.
C) have shorter rituals.
D) have more gradual onset and are less likely to feel better after their ritual.
Q3) According to the neurodevelopmental hypothesis, schizophrenia results mainly from abnormalities of brain development at what age?
A) around the time of birth
B) early childhood
C) adolescence
D) young adulthood
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Q1) Some people who suffer from the seasonal affective disorder experience periods of depression during the summer months.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process of addiction changes the organization of several brain areas, including areas involved in motivation and attention.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In John B. Watson's analysis of phobia learning, the conditioned stimulus was ____________________ and the unconditioned stimulus was
Q4) People with panic disorder (PD) have frequent periods of anxiety and occasional attacks of panic-rapid breathing, increased heart rate, chest pains, sweating, faintness, and trembling. One of the possible treatments for panic disorders is cognitive-behavioral therapy. Describe the lessons taught in cognitive-behavioral therapy in terms of panic disorders.
Q5) A ____________________ is an extreme, persistent fear that interferes with normal living.
Q6) _____________________ is a fear of open or public places.
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Q1) A person with bipolar disorder wants to get a prescription for lithium. That person should make an appointment to see a
A) clinical psychologist.
B) biopsychologist.
C) psychiatrist.
D) behaviorist.
Q2) Which of the following effects has NOT been demonstrated by psychologists?
A) People undergoing hypnosis can lower their perception of pain.
B) People who comply with a small request are much more likely to later comply with a large request.
C) One portion of the hypothalamus, important for sexual motivation, is more similar in some homosexual men to heterosexual women than it is to that of heterosexual men.
D) Subliminal messages, such as backward speech in music recordings, can strongly influence people's behavior.
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