General Psychology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
General Psychology provides an introduction to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. This course covers fundamental topics such as the history of psychology, research methods, biological bases of behavior, sensation and perception, learning, memory, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social interactions. Through lectures, discussions, and practical examples, students gain a comprehensive understanding of key psychological concepts, theories, and real-world applications, laying a foundation for further study in the field or for understanding human behavior in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by
David G. Myers
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56 Chapters
9156 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Veenstra conducts basic research on the impact of racial prejudice on behavior.Dr.Veenstra is most likely a(n)________ psychologist.
A) clinical
B) social
C) biological
D) industrial-organizational
Answer: B
Q2) Efforts to discover whether the intelligence of children is more heavily influenced by their biology or by their home environment are most directly relevant to the debate regarding
A) structuralism and functionalism.
B) conscious and unconscious thought.
C) observation and introspection.
D) nature and nurture.
Answer: D
Q3) Thinking about your academic expectations and goals,explain how you can use what you know about psychology to become a better student.
Answer: no answer
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3
Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biggest danger of relying on case-study evidence is that it
A) is based on naturalistic observation.
B) may be unrepresentative of what is generally true.
C) overestimates the importance of operational definitions.
D) leads us to underestimate the causal relationships between events.
Answer: B
Q2) Debriefing refers to
A) a technique for assessing the attitudes of those who respond to a survey.
B) repeating a research study with a different set of participants than those in the original study.
C) a procedure designed to inhibit the placebo effect.
D) explaining a research study to participants after the study is completed.
Answer: D
Q3) Researchers make no effort to manipulate or control factors when they engage in A) naturalistic observation.
B) the double-blind procedure.
C) replication.
D) experimentation.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which measure of variation is affected most by a few extreme scores?
A) standard deviation
B) mean
C) median
D) range
Answer: D
Q2) Variation is to central tendency as range is to A) mode.
B) bar graph.
C) median.
D) skewed.
Answer: A
Q3) The range is
A) the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution.
B) the most commonly used measure of variation.
C) the average deviation of scores from the mean.
D) the most frequently occurring score in a distribution of scores.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The slowdown of neural communication in multiple sclerosis results from the degeneration of the A) amygdala.
B) endorphins.
C) myelin sheath.
D) pituitary gland.
Q2) Many years of intensive guitar practice have led to changes in Karyasa's motor cortex that enable her skilled finger movements.This best illustrates the value of A) reuptake.
B) echolocation.
C) plasticity.
D) localization of function.
Q3) The tremors of Parkinson's disease result from the death of nerve cells that produce the A) serotonin.
B) ACh.
C) GABA.
D) dopamine.
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6
Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ project enables researchers to examine differences between the brains of healthy people and those with various disorders.
A) optogenetics
B) diffusion spectrum imaging
C) PsychENCODE
D) MRI
Q2) The release of gamma waves from radioactive blood sugar in different regions of the brain is detected by
A) an MRI scan.
B) an EEG.
C) a PET scan.
D) fMRI.
Q3) To identify which specific brain areas are most active during a particular mental task,researchers would be most likely to make use of a(n)
A) fMRI.
B) microelectrode insertion.
C) MRI.
D) brain lesion.
Q4) Compare and contrast the various ways that neuroscientists study the brain.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Stoyka was a child,a brain disease required the surgical removal of her left cerebral hemisphere.Stoyka is now a successful college student who lives a normal life.Her success best illustrates the importance of A) cognitive neural prosthetics.
B) neurogenesis.
C) MRI scans.
D) plasticity.
Q2) The process of forming new neurons within the brain is called A) lateralization.
B) cognitive neural prosthetics.
C) neurogenesis.
D) plasticity.
Q3) The brain devotes more tissue within the ________ for body areas requiring the most precise movement control such as the fingers.
A) hippocampus
B) corpus callosum
C) occipital lobes
D) motor cortex
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8
Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to the twentieth century,psychology was considered to be the study of A) observable behavior.
B) evolutionary change.
C) states of consciousness.
D) parallel processing.
Q2) Felix was so preoccupied with his girlfriend's good looks that he failed to perceive any of her less admirable characteristics.This best illustrates an unfortunate consequence of A) sequential processing.
B) selective attention.
C) blindsight.
D) change blindness.
Q3) Describe what is meant by parallel processing and sequential processing,and explain why the simultaneous occurrence of both parallel and sequential processing illustrates our two-track mind.Identify one advantage and one disadvantage of both parallel processing and sequential processing.
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9
Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Delta waves are most clearly associated with ________ sleep.
A) NREM-1
B) NREM-2
C) NREM-3
D) REM
Q2) Sleep is best defined as
A) a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle.
B) a periodic natural loss of consciousness that involves distinct stages.
C) a state of hibernation or general anesthesia.
D) episodes of fast and jerky eye movements accompanied by frequent muscle spasms.
Q3) Greg remembered a recent dream in which his girlfriend suddenly grabbed the wheel of his speeding car.Greg's therapist suggested that the dream might be a representation of the girlfriend's efforts to avoid sexual intimacy.According to Freud,the therapist was attempting to reveal the ________ of Greg's dream.
A) paradoxical content
B) circadian rhythm
C) latent content
D) manifest content
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10
Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) After drinking three cans of beer,Akiva felt less guilty about the way he mistreated his wife and children.Akiva's reduced guilt most likely resulted from the fact that his alcohol consumption has
A) destroyed some of his brain cells.
B) reduced his self awareness.
C) directed his attention to the future.
D) increased his level of sympathetic nervous system arousal.
Q2) Which of the following is true in relation to serotonin and Ecstasy?
A) Ecstasy interferes with serotonin's control of the circadian clock.
B) Ecstasy encourages the reuptake of serotonin.
C) Ecstasy doubles the reuptake of serotonin.
D) Ecstasy use promotes serotonin's control of the circadian clock.
Q3) The three main categories of psychoactive drugs are depressants,stimulants,and A) amphetamines.
B) tranquilizers.
C) hallucinogens.
D) endorphins.
Q4) Brenda is 16-years-old and has experimented with several drugs.She has tried marijuana,alcohol,and cocaine.What are the biological,psychological,and social-cultural explanations for her experimentation?
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Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosomes are threadlike structures made of A) serotonin molecules.
B) epigenetic molecules.
C) DNA molecules.
D) dizygotic molecules.
Q2) Sex differences in heritable personality traits cannot necessarily be attributed to male-female genetic differences because A) biological maturation proceeds at a different rate for males and females. B) variations in temperament contribute to male-female differences.
C) heritable traits can be influenced by social environments.
D) males and females are also affected by their different sex hormones.
Q3) In one study of more than 900 New Zealanders,emotionally reactive and impulsive 3-year-olds developed into somewhat more impulsive,aggressive,and conflict-prone 21-year-olds.This best illustrates the long-term stability of A) temperament.
B) adaptive capacity.
C) epigenetic marks.
D) shared family environments.
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Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with lesbians,gay men report ________ responsiveness to visual sexual stimuli and ________ interest in their partner's physical attractiveness.
A) more;less
B) less;more
C) more;more
D) less;less
Q2) Evolutionary psychology would be most likely to suggest that human preferences for sweets and fats in fast-food outlets
A) illustrate a universal moral grammar.
B) are genetically predisposed.
C) vary widely between males and females.
D) are triggered by a sexual overperception bias.
Q3) Compared with women,men are ________ likely to feel comfortable about having casual sex with different partners and ________ likely to cite affection as a reason for their first sexual intercourse.
A) less;more
B) more;less
C) less;less
D) more;more
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term spermarche refers to the
A) development of secondary sex characteristics.
B) cessation of menstruation.
C) display of both masculine and feminine traits.
D) first ejaculation.
Q2) Social roles are especially likely to be central to people's self-identity in ________ cultures.
A) individualist
B) ethnically diverse
C) collectivist
D) democratic
Q3) Adults are most likely to be adaptable and to recover more easily from bad events if they
A) prefer androgyny.
B) have an intersex condition.
C) have been gender-typed.
D) have experienced spermarche.
Q4) Describe how differences between individualist and collectivist cultures are likely to manifest themselves in the processes of mate selection,career development,and political organization.
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Chapter 13: Vision
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109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reflex refers to
A) decreasing responsiveness to repeated stimulation.
B) an epigenetic effect that is observable at birth.
C) an automatic response to sensory stimulation.
D) the consistency of temperament over time.
Q2) It could be said that ________ provides our identity,while ________ allows us to adapt and grow with experience.
A) nature;nurture
B) continuity;stages
C) predictability;unpredictability
D) stability;change
Q3) One research team observed that out-of-control 3-year-olds were the most likely to become out-of-control adult gamblers.This finding is most central to the issue of A) stability and change.
B) habituation and attention.
C) continuity and stages.
D) nature and nurture.
Q4) What are the three major issues in developmental psychology? Provide an example of each.
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Some individuals constantly crave acceptance in romantic relationships but remain highly vigilant and sensitive to any signs of possible rejection.These people are said to demonstrate an insecure
A) avoidant attachment style.
B) egocentric attachment style.
C) anxious attachment style.
D) preoperational attachment style.
Q2) According to Piaget,children gain the ability to reverse simple mathematical operations and understand conservation during the ________ stage.
A) preoperational
B) sensorimotor
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational
Q3) Edith abuses both her 3-year-old and 1-year-old daughters.Her behavior is most likely related to a lack of
A) childhood experience with younger brothers and sisters.
B) maturation.
C) an early and secure attachment to her own parents.
D) formal operational intelligence.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Lambers refuses to pay income taxes because his conscience will not allow him to support a government that spends billions of dollars on military weapons.Mr.Lambers' reasoning best illustrates Kohlberg's ________ stage.
A) postconventional
B) concrete operational
C) preconventional
D) conventional
Q2) When surrounded by men,a woman may become mindful of her gender because ________ often forms around one's distinctiveness.
A) social identity
B) moral intuition
C) intimacy
D) a sense of competence
Q3) A student who does not cheat on tests because he doesn't want to violate classroom rules is in Kohlberg's ________ stage.
A) preconventional
B) preoperational
C) conventional
D) postconventional
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with younger adults,older adults are ________ attentive to positive news and they have ________ problems in their social relationships.
A) more;more
B) less;fewer
C) more;fewer
D) less;more
Q2) Shriveled protein filaments in the cell bodies of acetylcholine-producing neurons is a telltale abnormality associated with A) menopause.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) brain plasticity.
D) pneumonia.
Q3) The preferred age for retirement is quite different in Mexico than in Western Europe.This best illustrates that ________ differs from culture to culture.
A) the maturational cycle
B) an empty nest
C) terminal decline
D) the social clock
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18
Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pablo sees 75-watt light bulbs as giving off more light than 60-watt bulbs.His wife sees them as giving off the same amount of light.Pablo apparently has a ________ threshold for light than his wife.
A) smaller difference
B) lower absolute
C) larger difference
D) higher absolute
Q2) The study of relationships between the physical characteristics of stimuli and our psychological experience of them is called
A) transduction.
B) signal detection.
C) psychophysics.
D) Weber's law.
Q3) The process by which we organize and interpret sensory information in order to recognize meaningful objects and events is called
A) sensory adaptation.
B) sensation.
C) perception.
D) signal detection.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organization of two-dimensional retinal images into three-dimensional perceptions is called
A) retinal disparity.
B) depth perception.
C) perceptual constancy.
D) closure.
Q2) Sensory restriction is much more likely to hinder visual development in early infancy than during other times of life.This suggests that there is a(n)________ for normal visual development.
A) difference threshold
B) accommodation
C) critical period
D) blind spot
Q3) The receptor cells that are concentrated in the fovea are called A) bipolar cells.
B) ganglion cells.
C) cones.
D) feature detectors.
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Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Areas of the brain involved in memory are closest to areas of the brain responsible for our sense of
A) touch.
B) smell.
C) vision.
D) hearing.
Q2) If we see a speaker mouthing day while actually hearing someone else saying may,we may perceive a third syllable bay that blends both inputs.This phenomenon is known as
A) sound compression.
B) synesthesia.
C) embodied cognition.
D) the McGurk effect.
Q3) The process of transforming air pressure waves into neural messages that the brain interprets as meaningful sound is known as
A) sensory interaction.
B) the vestibular sense.
C) kinesthesia.
D) audition.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Samantha's cat salivates in response to the taste of food in its mouth.Each morning,Samantha places the cat's food on the back porch.When the door to the porch opens,a bell rings.So,each time Samantha opens the door the bell rings.Now,Samantha's cat salivates when the bell rings.Which of the following is the unconditioned stimulus in this example?
A) food
B) salivation
C) the door
D) the bell on the door
Q2) Male Japanese quail became sexually aroused by a red light that was repeatedly associated with the presentation of a female quail.The sexual arousal triggered by the red light was a
A) UR.
B) US.
C) CR.
D) CS.
Q3) Describe how our capacity for associative learning enables us to anticipate events,develop highly adaptive skills,and replace bad habits with beneficial ones.
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Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) On Monday,Johnny's mother gave him cookies and milk after he had played quietly for 10 minutes.On Tuesday,she required 20 minutes of quiet play before treat time.On Wednesday,she gave him cookies only after he played quietly for a full half hour.Johnny was taught to play quietly for extended periods through
A) secondary reinforcement.
B) spontaneous recovery.
C) shaping.
D) fixed-ratio scheduling.
Q2) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered an important component of effective student instruction involving the use of online adaptive quizzing?
A) respondent behavior
B) immediate reinforcement
C) operant behavior
D) shaping
Q3) Resistance to extinction is most strongly encouraged by ________ reinforcement.
A) delayed
B) intermittent
C) conditioned
D) negative
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea that any perceivable neutral stimulus can serve as a CS was challenged by A) Garcia and Koelling's findings on taste aversion in rats.
B) Pavlov's findings on the conditioned salivary response.
C) Rescorla's findings about the effects of expectations on an animal's conditioned response.
D) Bandura's findings on observational learning and aggression in children.
Q2) The desire to engage in an activity for the sake of its enjoyment alone involves A) instinctive drift. B) modeling.
C) intrinsic motivation.
D) latent learning.
Q3) Explain how biological constraints affect operant and classical conditioning.
Q4) Children of violent parents can often learn to be aggressive by imitating their parents.This best illustrates the impact of A) operant conditioning.
B) observational learning.
C) classical conditioning.
D) extrinsic motivation.
Q5) Explain how cognitive processes affect operant and classical conditioning.
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Forming conscious mental images of the location of your bedroom door requires A) procedural memory.
B) working memory.
C) shallow processing.
D) echoic memory.
Q2) Effortful processing most clearly requires A) iconic memory.
B) implicit memory.
C) echoic memory.
D) working memory.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of the memory process,according to the information-processing model?
A) encoding B) relearning C) storage
D) retrieval
Q4) Describe two mnemonic techniques that would enable you to remember the following list of grocery items: milk,eggs,margarine,oranges,rhubarb,ice cream,eggplant,and sausage.Explain why each would be effective.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has been tested for use as a memory-blocking drug?
A) glutamate
B) propranolol
C) CREB
D) epinephrine
Q2) Nonspeaking children have not learned the words that we use to index much of our explicit memory.This most clearly helps to explain the occurrence of
A) mood-congruent memory.
B) long-term potentiation.
C) flashbulb memory.
D) infantile amnesia.
Q3) Psychologist Karl Lashley found that rats retained at least a partial memory of how to navigate a maze after he
A) administered a drug to the rats that prevented LTP.
B) removed small pieces of the rats' cortex.
C) injected the rats with stress hormones.
D) deprived the rats of any opportunity to sleep.
Q4) Detail how emotions impact memory.Provide some real-life examples.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Sample Questions
Q1) Several months after watching a science fiction movie about spaceship travel and alien abductions,Steve began to remember that he had been abducted by aliens and personally subjected to many of the horrors portrayed in the movie.His mistaken recall best illustrates
A) implicit memory.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) source amnesia.
D) proactive interference.
Q2) Karl and Dee had a joyful wedding ceremony and reception.After their painful divorce,however,they began to remember the wedding as a somewhat hectic and unpleasant event.Their recollections best illustrate the nature of A) proactive interference.
B) memory construction.
C) repression.
D) anterograde amnesia.
Q3) During the process of psychotherapy,Elaine recovered some long-forgotten and painful memories from her childhood.This experience led her to conclude that these memories must have been repressed for many years.Discuss the issues involved in assessing Elaine's claim.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Q1) Anika resisted changing her answer to a test question after reminding herself that "it's always best to stick with your first answer." Anika's decision best illustrates the use of A) insight.
B) an algorithm.
C) trial and error.
D) a heuristic.
Q2) After learning that her two best friends had lost their jobs,Mariah began to grossly overestimate the national unemployment rate.Mariah's reaction best illustrates the consequences of
A) confirmation bias.
B) the availability heuristic.
C) fixation.
D) belief perseverance.
Q3) Using beliefs to assess evidence,rather than using evidence to draw conclusions,is referred to as
A) the framing effect.
B) motivated reasoning.
C) belief perseverance.
D) the availability heuristic.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best illustrates productive language?
A) word comprehension
B) telegraphic speech
C) linguistic determinism
D) babbling
Q2) ________ is an early speech stage in which a child speaks like a telegram using mostly nouns and verbs.
A) Telegraphic speech
B) The two-word stage
C) The one-word stage
D) Babbling
Q3) Sounds that are not included in one's native language first begin to disappear from usage during the ________ stage of language development.
A) one-word
B) two-word
C) telegraphic
D) babbling
Q4) Compare and contrast the language abilities of humans and nonhuman animals.
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Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important aspect of social intelligence is called A) the g factor.
B) analytical intelligence.
C) grit.
D) emotional intelligence.
Q2) In 8 to 10 seconds,the late memory whiz Kim Peek could read and remember the contents of a book page.Yet,he had little capacity for understanding abstract concepts.Kim's mental capacities best illustrate
A) autism spectrum disorder.
B) creative intelligence.
C) emotional intelligence.
D) savant syndrome.
Q3) Geneva is the mayor of a small city.When a serious flood struck the city,she allocated people,financial resources,and temporary housing to help those whose homes were damaged by the flood.According to Sternberg,Geneva is demonstrating ________ intelligence.
A) practical
B) creative
C) emotional
D) analytical
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) When retested on the WAIS,people's second scores generally match their first scores quite closely.This indicates that the test has a high degree of A) reliability.
B) content validity.
C) eugenics.
D) predictive validity.
Q2) Block design puzzles are used in one of the subtests of the A) WAIS.
B) SAT Reasoning Test.
C) Stanford-Binet.
D) GRE.
Q3) Achievement tests are designed to
A) measure the desire and potential capacity to successfully meet challenges.
B) assess ability to produce novel and valuable ideas.
C) compare an individual's personality with those of highly successful people.
D) assess learned knowledge or skills.
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Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Q1) To qualify for the office manager's job,55-year-old Mariel must take a series of psychological tests.Her performance on the test of ________ is likely to be poorer than if she had taken it as a 25-year-old.
A) general knowledge
B) spelling
C) abstract reasoning
D) vocabulary
Q2) Educational programs for gifted children are most likely to be criticized for A) assuming that intelligence test scores can predict children's academic success. B) underestimating the extent to which general intelligence underlies success in a wide variety of tasks.
C) encouraging the segregation and academic tracking of intellectually advantaged students.
D) overemphasizing the genetic determinants of giftedness.
Q3) Imagine that you are a scientist who is examining how intelligence changes with age.Design both a cross-sectional and a longitudinal study to examine how intelligence changes from young to middle to late adulthood.What results would you expect from each type of study?
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Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Q1) Research on the determinants of intelligence indicates that A) interest in the heritability of intelligence has declined significantly during the past decade.
B) both genes and environment have some influence on intelligence scores.
C) there are no scientific methods for assessing the heritability of intelligence.
D) there is no relationship between people's position on the determinants of intelligence and their social or political attitudes.
Q2) Which of the following observations provides the BEST evidence that intelligence test scores are influenced by heredity?
A) Japanese children have higher average intelligence scores than do American children.
B) Identical twins raised together are more similar in their intelligence scores than identical twins raised separately.
C) The intelligence scores of children are positively correlated with the intelligence scores of their parents.
D) Identical twins raised separately are more similar in their intelligence scores than fraternal twins raised together.
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33
Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Q1) The arousal theory of motivation would be most helpful for explaining why
A) recreational skydivers jump out of airplanes.
B) hungry fishermen venture across dangerous ocean waters.
C) starving prisoners are preoccupied with thoughts of food.
D) sexually active teens learn to practice effective birth control.
Q2) Noah is extremely hungry after his 5-mile run,so he fixes a large breakfast.Noah's hunger is an example of
A) a drive.
B) a need.
C) homeostasis.
D) an incentive.
Q3) Although instincts cannot explain most human motives,the underlying assumption that genes predispose some species-typical behaviors continues in A) evolutionary theory.
B) the Yerkes-Dodson law.
C) arousal theory.
D) drive-reduction theory.
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Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Q1) Prisoners of war placed on a semistarvation diet in which their food intake is cut in half are likely to
A) lose half their original body weight.
B) show an increased interest in sex and politics.
C) spend a great deal of time daydreaming about food.
D) do all of these things.
Q2) Jana is visiting friends in Bangkok and is asked to try a local delicacy,sautéed grasshoppers.She is reluctant to do so as her ________,which was adaptive for our ancestors,makes Jana less willing to consume this odd food.
A) set point
B) basal metabolic rate
C) hypothalamus
D) neophobia
Q3) People are most likely to dislike the taste of ________ foods.
A) salty
B) starchy
C) novel
D) familiar
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Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Q1) One's sexual orientation refers to a(n)________ members of one's own sex,the other sex,or both sexes.
A) sexual response cycle triggered by B) erotic plasticity associated with C) enduring sexual attraction toward D) erotic plasticity in response to
Q2) Thirty-five-year-old Marta is menopausal as a result of a medically necessary hysterectomy.Marta's sex drive is now significantly lower,which has caused marital problems with her husband.Her physician is likely to recommend
A) estradiol-replacement therapy.
B) Viagra.
C) estrogen-replacement therapy.
D) testosterone-replacement therapy.
Q3) The descriptions of orgasm written by men and women are ________,and the subcortical brain regions active in men and women during orgasm are ________.
A) different;similar
B) similar;different
C) different;different
D) similar;similar
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Hunger
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Q1) Ostracism in the form of exile,imprisonment,or solitary confinement is used to punish,and therefore control,
A) chain migration.
B) narcissism.
C) social behavior.
D) self-disclosure.
Q2) Children who are neglected or who grow up in institutions without a sense of belonging are especially at risk for A) developing chain migration.
B) becoming narcissistic.
C) becoming withdrawn and frightened.
D) developing autonomy.
Q3) Jessica feels so self-important and is so self-focused that she unrealistically believes all of her teachers,classmates,and acquaintances are eager to read her hour-by-hour Facebook postings.Jessica best illustrates characteristics of A) chain migration.
B) ostracism.
C) self-disclosure.
D) narcissism.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
A) accelerates heart rate and slows digestion.
B) slows heart rate and accelerates digestion.
C) slows heart rate and slows digestion.
D) accelerates heart rate and accelerates digestion.
Q2) Tranquilizing drugs that inhibit sympathetic nervous system activity often reduce people's subjective experience of intense anxiety.Which theory of emotion would have the greatest difficulty explaining this effect?
A) James-Lange
B) Cannon-Bard
C) two-factor
D) Schachter-Singer
Q3) The sympathetic nervous system is to the parasympathetic nervous system as ________ is to ________.
A) inhibition of digestion;acceleration of digestion
B) decreasing heart rate;increasing heart rate
C) decreasing blood sugar;increasing blood sugar
D) contraction of pupils;dilation of pupils
Q4) Describe how polygraphs are intended to measure lying,and discuss their accuracy.
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Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Q1) Which of the following people would be able to more accurately determine if someone was lying?
A) David,who is an extraverted college student
B) Dr.Smith,who is looking in his students' eyes as they explain why they missed an exam
C) Officer Stott,who has pulled over a driver for speeding
D) Officer Thomas,who is on the scene of a hostage situation
Q2) Who suggested that,before our ancestors communicated in words,they used facial expressions to communicate threats,greetings,and submission,which had survival value?
A) Paul Ekman
B) William James
C) James Laird
D) Charles Darwin
Q3) Using both verbal and nonverbal cues,people find it most difficult to detect
A) angry expressions.
B) sad expressions.
C) deceiving expressions.
D) fearful expressions.
Q4) Describe the female advantage regarding nonverbal communication.
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Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humanistic psychologists
A) aimed at advancing human fulfillment.
B) studied human flourishing.
C) studied negative experiences.
D) researched basic human emotions.
Q2) Who said that "positive psychology is an umbrella term for the study of positive emotions,positive character traits,and enabling institutions"?
A) Ellen Langer
B) Martin Seligman
C) Julian Rotter
D) Sonja Lyubomirsky
Q3) Research on the experience of flow suggests that people experience the most happiness when they are
A) eating.
B) daydreaming.
C) highly self-aware.
D) absorbed in challenging activities.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Q1) Leesha developed a bacterial infection in a bad skin wound that resulted from a hard fall off a bicycle.Facing highly stressful end-of-semester exams may slow Leesha's recovery from her infection due to A) elevated oxytocin levels.
B) suppressed lymphocyte activity.
C) an elevated NK cell count.
D) diversion of blood from skeletal muscles to her internal organs.
Q2) The greatest number of deaths in the United States today result from A) AIDS.
B) strokes.
C) cancer.
D) heart disease.
Q3) Walter Cannon observed that a variety of stressors trigger activation of the sympathetic nervous system,which prepares the body for A) decreased respiration.
B) lowered blood sugar levels.
C) a fight-or-flight reaction.
D) an increase in the production of lymphocytes.
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Q1) Mindfulness meditation involves attending to our moment-to-moment experiences in a manner that is
A) aimless.
B) humble.
C) nonjudgmental.
D) emotionally arousing.
Q2) After picking one of 28 flavors of ice cream,people may feel regret over bypassing some of the remaining flavors.Their regret best illustrates a consequence of
A) an external locus of control.
B) the tyranny of choice.
C) emotion-focused coping.
D) the general adaptation syndrome.
Q3) In a famous study,when nursing home patients were encouraged to exert more personal control,93 percent became
A) fearful of making a mistake.
B) more withdrawn.
C) more alert and happier.
D) less active.
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Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Q1) Darcy is in the market to buy a new car.The salesperson shows her the features of each car she is considering,explaining the pros and cons of purchasing each.The salesperson's strategy illustrates
A) central route persuasion.
B) cognitive dissonance.
C) peripheral route persuasion.
D) role playing.
Q2) The impact of our actions on our attitudes is best illustrated by the A) fundamental attribution error.
B) foot-in-the-door phenomenon.
C) central route persuasion.
D) peripheral route persuasion.
Q3) After reflecting on the power of choice,participants in experiments became increasingly less likely to attribute the misfortunes of others to A) personality traits.
B) role playing.
C) situational influences.
D) cognitive dissonance.
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Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Q1) In group situations,the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint that fosters arousal and anonymity is called
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) social loafing.
C) deindividuation.
D) groupthink
Q2) The enhancement of a group's prevailing inclinations through group discussion is called
A) group polarization.
B) social facilitation.
C) mood linkage.
D) the chameleon effect.
Q3) Groupthink can be prevented by a leader who
A) is directive and makes his or her own position clear from the start.
B) invites outside experts to critique a group's developing plans.
C) tries to maintain high morale among group members.
D) emphasizes the importance of the issue under discussion.
Q4) Describe the research of Solomon Asch.Explain why participants in his study conformed to the group.
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Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Q1) After Ravi lost the student election for president of his high school class,he spread false rumors intended to spoil the newly chosen president's reputation.Ravi's behavior is best explained in terms of A) the hindsight bias.
B) outgroup homogeneity.
C) the frustration-aggression principle.
D) implicit associations.
Q2) The tendency to estimate the frequency of an event by how readily it comes to mind is referred to as A) explicit bias.
B) the just-world phenomenon.
C) the availability heuristic. D) ingroup bias.
Q3) Jessie has just arrived at a football stadium with one of his friends.As he and his friend take their seats,Jessie notices a Middle-Eastern fan taking his seat.Jessie remarks to his friend that they should keep their eye on him because he is "obviously dangerous." Explain Jessie's remarks in terms of the availability heuristic,explicit and implicit prejudice,and categorization.
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Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melissa regularly donates blood to an international blood bank simply because she believes she ought to help anyone with a medical need for a blood transfusion.Melissa's altruism best illustrates the impact of the
A) reciprocity norm.
B) bystander effect.
C) social-responsibility norm.
D) mere exposure effect.
Q2) The success of interracial cooperative learning in classroom settings best illustrates the value of ________ for reducing racial conflict.
A) equity
B) social responsibility
C) superordinate goals
D) a social trap
Q3) Which statement about companionate love is true?
A) Companionate love has a rapid onset.
B) Companionate love reaches its peak about a decade into a relationship.
C) Companionate love grows slowly throughout a relationship.
D) Companionate love begins to decrease when passionate love disappears.
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Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Q1) Some psychoanalysts in Freud's era believed that girls experienced unconscious sexual desires for their father during the phallic stage.These feelings,they thought,reflected
A) reaction formation.
B) an Electra complex.
C) an anal fixation.
D) a weak superego.
Q2) The theorist who opposed Freud's assumptions that women have weak superegos and suffer "penis envy," and who attempted to balance Freud's masculine bias was
A) Alfred Adler.
B) Karen Horney.
C) Carl Jung.
D) Drew Westen.
Q3) The Thematic Apperception Test requires people to respond to A) incomplete sentences.
B) ambiguous pictures.
C) unfamiliar melodies.
D) meaningless inkblots.
Q4) Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory?
A) It is an empirically derived test.
B) It can be administered and scored only by a trained psychologist.
C) It is the most widely used projective test.
D) It was designed to assess the personality traits of normal,psychologically healthy individuals.
Q2) Around the world,people describe others' personality traits in terms that are consistent with a set of factors called
A) self-esteem needs.
B) the MMPI.
C) the hierarchy of needs.
D) the Big Five.
Q3) Some modern personality researchers believe our identity may be helpfully revealed using ________,which involves collecting a rich narrative detailing our unique life history.
A) psychoanalysis
B) schemas
C) the life story approach
D) the Thematic Apperception Test
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jeremiah accepts himself as he is without being strongly affected by how others evaluate him.Jeremiah most clearly demonstrates A) narcissism.
B) secure self-esteem.
C) the spotlight effect.
D) reciprocal determinism.
Q2) In one analysis of 71 studies,most people shifted their performance expectations ________ shortly ________ receiving feedback on their actual performance. A) upward;before B) downward;before C) upward;after D) downward;after
Q3) Fifty-six percent of high school seniors believed that they would earn a graduate degree,although only 9 percent actually did so.These students were demonstrating A) unconditional positive regard.
B) unrealistic optimism. C) narcissism.
D) reciprocal determinism.
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Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Field trials indicate that the DSM-5 does NOT
A) include a very broad range of different psychological disorders.
B) estimate the frequency of different psychological disorders.
C) generate the same levels of diagnostic agreement for every different form of psychological disorder.
D) classify psychological disorders that have been shown to be genetically influenced.
Q2) Which of the following people is LEAST likely to commit a violent crime?
A) Jessica,who has a history of violence
B) Brandon,who is angry and has access to a loaded gun
C) Sam,who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder
D) John,who is intoxicated.
Q3) Successive editions of the ________ have provided guidelines for diagnosing psychological disorders.
A) OCD
B) DSM
C) ADHD
D) PTSD
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although the DSM-5 classifies posttraumatic stress disorder separately from disorders such as panic disorder,this disorder does involve
A) phobias.
B) agoraphobia.
C) OCD.
D) anxiety.
Q2) Julius is obsessed with avoiding germs and feels compelled to bathe at least 10 times a day.His therapist suggests that Julius continues his maladaptive bathing because this behavior temporarily reduced his anxiety on many past occasions.The therapist's suggestion most directly reflects a ________ perspective.
A) biological
B) conditioning
C) psychoanalytic
D) humanistic
Q3) A monkey responds more strongly to stress if its close biological relatives
A) have sensitive brain circuits.
B) are anxiously reactive.
C) have been conditioned to avoid stress.
D) are resilient.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that decrease mania tend to reduce levels of the neurotransmitter
A) glutamate.
B) norepinephrine.
C) dopamine.
D) serotonin.
Q2) Marissa has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder.The amounts of ________ and norepinephrine in her brain are likely to be depleted when she is depressed.
A) serotonin
B) Paxil
C) dopamine
D) Zoloft
Q3) The risk of suicide is greatest when people
A) anticipate the onset of a depressive episode.
B) experience the first symptoms of a depressive episode.
C) experience depressive symptoms at their most extreme levels of severity.
D) begin to rebound from their depression.
Q4) Daniel has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder.Describe the symptoms he most likely experienced prior to treatment.
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Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Q1) People conceived during the peak of World War II's Dutch famine developed ________ at twice the normal rate.
A) posttraumatic stress disorder
B) antisocial personality disorder
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) schizophrenia
Q2) Thirty-year-old Nellie has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.She is unable to ignore tiny unrelated stimuli,often giving her undivided attention to minutia (for example,a spotlight shining in a window).This type of attention problem is thought to contribute to A) hallucinations.
B) disorganized thoughts.
C) flat affect.
D) inappropriate emotions.
Q3) Schizophrenia that develops rapidly,seemingly as a reaction to stress,is called ________ schizophrenia.
A) chronic
B) catatonic
C) acute
D) process
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Page 53
Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vince is an adolescent male who aims to be excessively muscular.Which of the following factors is NOT associated with this pursuit?
A) high self-evaluation
B) fret about falling short of expectations
C) perfectionist standards
D) concern about how others view him
Q2) Disruptions in conscious awareness and sense of identity are most characteristic of A) borderline personality disorder.
B) bulimia nervosa.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) dissociative disorder.
Q3) Evidence that many DID patients have suffered abuse as children leads some psychologists to include dissociative disorders under the umbrella of A) borderline personality disorder.
B) avoidant personality disorder.
C) anorexia nervosa.
D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
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Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who emphasized the importance of active listening in the process of psychotherapy?
A) Mary Cover Jones
B) Carl Rogers
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Joseph Wolpe
Q2) Cognitive-behavioral therapy is designed to
A) combine drug therapy with psychotherapy.
B) focus attention on clients' negative as well as positive feelings toward their therapists.
C) modify clients' self-defeating thoughts and their maladaptive behaviors.
D) encourage clients to value their unique moment-to-moment feelings.
Q3) In which operant conditioning procedure are positive reinforcers given for desired behaviors?
A) a token economy
B) systematic desensitization
C) aversive conditioning
D) free association
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Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Therapists are vulnerable to experiencing the cognitive error(s)of
A) confirmation bias.
B) illusory correlation.
C) both confirmation bias and illusory correlation.
D) neither confirmation bias nor illusory correlation.
Q2) Jade suffers from depression.Which therapy or therapies would NOT be effective in treating her depression?
A) cognitive and cognitive-behavioral therapies
B) behavioral conditioning therapies
C) psychodynamic therapy
D) client-centered therapy
Q3) Which of the following has been demonstrated to provide relief for those with a seasonal pattern in their depression symptoms?
A) behavioral conditioning therapies
B) EMDR
C) psychoanalysis
D) light exposure therapy
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56
Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following treatments is most likely to be used only with severely depressed patients who have not responded to drug therapy?
A) a lobotomy
B) electroconvulsive therapy
C) therapeutic lifestyle change
D) the double-blind procedure
Q2) Long-term use of certain antipsychotic drugs can produce involuntary movements of the facial muscles,tongue,and limbs.This menacing condition is known as
A) serotonin reuptake inhibition.
B) tardive dyskinesia.
C) Parkinson's disease.
D) neurogenesis.
Q3) Antianxiety drugs are most likely to be used in combination with exposure therapy to treat
A) posttraumatic stress disorder.
B) bipolar disorder.
C) antisocial personality disorder.
D) schizophrenia.
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Chapter 56: Appendix
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Q1) Effectively designing physical environments-such as the layout of a kitchen in a way that maximizes safe and efficient meal preparation-is of special interest to
A) personnel psychologists.
B) organizational psychologists.
C) clinical psychologists.
D) human factors psychologists.
Q2) Human factors psychology is a distinct field that is allied with A) clinical psychology.
B) personnel psychology.
C) social psychology.
D) industrial-organizational psychology.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an interest type assessed by the U.S.Department of Labor Occupational Information Network?
A) realistic
B) investigative
C) conventional
D) interpersonal
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