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General Physiology provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental biological functions that sustain living organisms, with particular emphasis on humans. The course examines cellular structures, membrane dynamics, and the physiological mechanisms of major organ systems, including nervous, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, renal, and endocrine systems. By integrating molecular, cellular, and systemic perspectives, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how organisms regulate homeostasis, respond to internal and external stimuli, and adapt to changing conditions. The course combines theoretical concepts with practical laboratory experiences to build critical thinking and analytical skills essential for careers in health and biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology Global 10th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Q1) Identify the branch of biological science that deals with the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions.
A)genetics
B)physiology
C)embryology
D)anatomy
E)cytology
Answer: B
Q2) ________ results from the activities of the nervous or endocrine system.
A)Self-regulation
B)Automatic regulation
C)Intrinsic regulation
D)Extrinsic regulation
E)Autoregulation
Answer: D
Q3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs,heart,trachea,esophagus,thymus,major blood vessels connected to the heart
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Q1) AB A + B is to decomposition as A + B AB is to A)exchange.
B)synthesis.
C)combustion.
D)replacement.
E)metabolism.
Answer: B
Q2) Continuous breakdown and replacement of cellular molecules is termed A)metabolism.
B)metabolic turnover.
C)anabolic turnover.
D)catabolic turnover.
E)organic chemistry.
Answer: B
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
Q4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
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Q1) Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?
A)ribosomal endoplasmic reticulum
B)proteosomes reticulum
C)raised endoplasmic reticulum
D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
Q2) Imagine two rigid chambers separated by a rigid membrane that is freely permeable to water but impermeable to glucose.Side 1 contains a 10 percent glucose solution and side 2 contains pure water.At equilibrium,what will be the situation?
A)Water will continue to move from side 1 to side 2.
B)Water will continue to move from side 2 to side 1.
C)The volume of water will be greater in side 1.
D)The volume of water will be greater in side 2.
E)It is impossible to determine the answer.
Answer: C
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Q1) Which type of connective tissue is found in the trachea and between the ribs and sternum?
A)areolar connective tissue
B)hyaline cartilage
C)elastic cartilage
D)fibrous cartilage
E)dense regular connective tissue
Q2) Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue except A)tendons.
B)ligaments.
C)aponeuroses.
D)areolar tissue.
E)elastic tissue.
Q3) Transitional epithelium is found
A)lining the urinary bladder.
B)lining the ducts that drain sweat glands.
C)lining kidney tubules.
D)lining the stomach.
E)at the surface of the skin.
Q4) Which is likely to heal faster,a bone injury or a cartilage injury? Why?
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Q1) In a condition known as sunstroke,the victim appears flushed,the skin is warm and dry,and the body temperature rises dramatically.Explain these observations based on what you know concerning the role of the skin in thermoregulation.
Q2) Wrinkles in individuals are the result of
A)increased production of epidermal layers.
B)loss of elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the dermis.
C)increased keratinization of the epidermis.
D)the loss of glands and hair follicles from the skin.
E)decreased thickness of the dermis.
Q3) In a penetrating wound,________ divide to produce mobile cells that repair the dermis.
A)granulation cells
B)dendritic cells
C)macrophages
D)fibroblasts
E)muscle cells
Q4) Explain why warm,dry climates feel cooler than warm,humid climates,even though the air temperatures are the same.
Q5) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful?
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Q1) How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?
A)The bone would be less flexible.
B)The bone would be stronger.
C)The bone would be more brittle.
D)The bone would be more flexible.
E)The bone would be less compressible.
Q2) A fracture that affects the malleolus on both lower leg bones is called a ________ fracture.
A)carpal
B)Pott's
C)Colles
D)complex
E)double-split
Q3) Bone tissue formation begins when osteoblasts secrete
A)protein fibers.
B)mesenchyme.
C)silica.
D)hydroxyapatite.
E)calcium.
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Q1) The dens process is found on the A)atlas.
B)axis.
C)sacrum.
D)coccyx.
E)ribs.
Q2) Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose.After the nose heals,he starts to have sinus headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae.What is probably the cause of Frank's discomfort?
Q3) The ________ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone.
A)vomer
B)lacrimal
C)hyoid
D)atlas
E)ethmoid
Q4) Billy is injured during a high school football game.His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing.What might the problem be?
Q5) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
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Q1) On which bone does the tibia press?
A)1
B)7
C)9
D)2
E)3
Q2) The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.
A)rib pairs 1 and 2
B)manubria
C)coracoid processes
D)clavicles
E)acromial processes
Q3) The radius and ulna are bound to each other by a(n)________ ligament.
A)radioulnar
B)interosseous
C)antebrachial
D)lateromedial
E)intrabrachial
Q4) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
Q5) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
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Q1) The elbow joint is an example of a(n)________ joint.
A)saddle
B)gliding
C)condylar
D)hinge
E)pivot
Q2) The joint between the forearm bones and the wrist is a ________ joint.
A)saddle
B)glide
C)hinge
D)condylar
E)pivot
Q3) All of the following are structural classifications of synovial joints except A)hinge.
B)gliding.
C)rolling.
D)saddle.
E)pivot.
Q4) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts,what movements does it produce?
Q5) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
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Q1) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability to A)contract much more forcefully.
B)produce more ATP with little oxygen.
C)store extra DNA for metabolism.
D)produce large amounts of muscle proteins.
E)produce nutrients for muscle contraction.
Q2) During the recovery period following exercise,all of the following are true except A)lactic acid is removed from muscle cells.
B)the muscle actively produces ATP.
C)muscle fibers are unable to contract.
D)oxygen is consumed at above the resting rate.
E)heat is generated.
Q3) Active sites on the actin become available for binding after A)actin binds to troponin.
B)troponin binds to tropomyosin.
C)calcium binds to troponin.
D)calcium binds to tropomyosin.
E)myosin binds to troponin.
Q4) Describe a motor unit.How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
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Q1) A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the A)tibialis anterior.
B)tibialis posterior.
C)peroneus brevis.
D)soleus.
E)gastrocnemius.
Q2) The only knee flexor that originates superior to the acetabulum is the A)biceps femoris.
B)gracilis.
C)sartorius.
D)iliopsoas.
E)semimembranosus.
Q3) The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the A)occipital bone.
B)clavicle.
C)mastoid process.
D)sternum.
E)mandible.
Q4) Which three functional roles in a movement are used to characterize muscle groups? Give a brief description of each action.
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Q1) Which area of the graph shows when chemically gated sodium channels are open?
A)3
B)1
C)2
D)5
E)4
Q2) The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is formed by A)astrocytes.
B)satellite cells.
C)oligodendrocytes.
D)microglia.
E)Schwann cells.
Q3) ________ neurons are the most common structural class in the CNS.
A)Multipolar
B)Anaxonic
C)Unipolar
D)Bipolar
E)Sensory
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Q1) Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus are called
A)contralateral.
B)ipsilateral.
C)commensual.
D)involuntary.
E)parasympathetic.
Q2) In the spinal cord,white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as A)nuclei.
B)ganglia.
C)columns.
D)nerves.
E)horns.
Q3) Where do somatic motor neurons reside?
A)10
B)12
C)13
D)14
E)15
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Q1) What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows?
A)subdural space
B)dural sinus
C)falx cerebri
D)subarachnoid space
E)pia mater
Q2) Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve.
A)optic
B)oculomotor
C)trochlear
D)olfactory
E)abducens
Q3) The presence of many large,highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the A)pons.
B)medulla.
C)cerebral cortex.
D)cerebellar cortex.
E)arbor vitae.
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Q1) The conversion of the stimulus into an action potential to be interpreted by the brain is called
A)transformation.
B)transduction.
C)translation.
D)transcription.
E)transpotential.
Q2) Complex motor activities such as riding a bicycle
A)only require neural processing at the level of the cerebrum.
B)involve little input from the brain,with practice.
C)require the coordinated activity of several regions of the brain.
D)are largely controlled at the level of the spinal cord.
E)usually escape notice by the cerebellum.
Q3) Thalamic neurons that project to the primary sensory cortex are ________ neurons.
A)receptor
B)first-order
C)second-order
D)third-order
E)fourth-order
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Q1) List the different types of adrenergic receptors,the responses they produce,and by what mechanisms.
Q2) A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in
A)no change in vessel diameter.
B)a decrease in vessel diameter.
C)oscillation in vessel diameter.
D)a decrease in blood flow through the vessel.
E)an increase in blood flow through the vessel.
Q3) Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating A)constipation.
B)diarrhea.
C)excessive salivation.
D)excessive heart rate.
E)prostate disorders.
Q4) What effect would cutting the vagus nerve branch that innervates the stomach have on gastric function?
Q5) Mr.Martin is suffering from a condition known as ventricular tachycardia,in which his heart beats too quickly.Would an alpha-blocker or a beta-blocker help alleviate his problem? Why?
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Q1) The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the following except
A)integrating the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head.
B)relaying vestibular information to the cerebellum.
C)relaying vestibular information to the cerebral cortex.
D)sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord.
E)sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear.
Q2) Identify the space labeled " 1."
A)posterior cavity
B)posterior chamber
C)pupil
D)anterior chamber
E)vitreous chamber
Q3) Identify the structures labeled "3."
A)cochlea
B)semicircular canals
C)auricle
D)tympanic membrane
E)vestibule
Q4) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing?
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Q1) The heart secretes the hormone
A)progesterone.
B)oxytocin.
C)thymosin.
D)thyroxine.
E)atrial natriuretic peptide.
Q2) Membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones?
A)catecholamines
B)peptide hormones
C)eicosanoids
D)thyroid
E)catecholamines,peptide hormones,and eicosanoids
Q3) The ________ gland sits along the superior border of the kidney.
A)adipose
B)pineal
C)androgen
D)renal
E)suprarenal
Q4) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ?
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Q1) Soon after donating 0.5 liters of blood,one would expect
A)an increased reticulocyte count.
B)an increased platelet count.
C)an increased erythrocyte count.
D)an increased neutrophil count.
E)increased levels of clotting factors.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about platelets?
A)Platelets live for less than two weeks.
B)The spleen is a storage organ for a large platelet population.
C)Platelets are not cells.
D)Platelets clump together at a site of injury.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The clumping of red blood cells,when the specific antibody against the antigen on the cells is added,is called
A)coagulation.
B)agglutination.
C)hemostasis.
D)vascularization.
E)areolation.
Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
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Q1) The ________ is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it begins to refill.
A)ejection fraction
B)end-diastole volume
C)start-diastolic volume
D)end-systolic volume
E)stroke volume
Q2) Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the A)pons.
B)thalamus.
C)medulla oblongata.
D)hypothalamus.
E)higher centers.
Q3) What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph?
A)Ventricular ejection occurs.
B)AV valve closes.
C)Semilunar valve opens.
D)Semilunar valve closes.
E)AV valve opens.
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Q1) Identify the arteries labeled "9."
A)axillary
B)brachiocephalic
C)common carotid
D)aorta
E)brachial
Q2) The superior phrenic artery supplies blood to the
A)lungs.
B)heart.
C)diaphragm.
D)pharynx.
E)pancreas.
Q3) The continual movement of fluid through the interstitial spaces produced by capillary filtration serves which of the following functions?
A)accelerates the distribution of nutrients and hormones
B)assists the transport of insoluble substances that cannot enter the capillaries
C)helps carry toxins and bacteria to cells of the immune system
D)flushes hormones and wastes from the interstitial spaces
E)All of the answers are correct.
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Q1) CD8 markers are to ________ T cells as CD4 markers are to ________ T cells.
A)suppressor; cytoxic
B)cytoxic; helper
C)helper; suppressor
D)NK; cytoxic
E)plasma; NK
Q2) ________ occurs when antibodies and complement proteins bind to antigens and make it easier for phagocytes to engulf their target cells.
A)Agglutination
B)Inflammation
C)Opsonization
D)Adaptation
E)Activation
Q3) The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to
A)activate T cells.
B)display antigen fragments.
C)process antigens.
D)bind antigens to glycoproteins.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) List and briefly describe the four general properties of immunity.
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Q1) Tina is singing a song.At a certain point in the song,she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords.The sound that she produces is
A)low pitched and loud.
B)high pitched and loud.
C)low pitched and soft.
D)high pitched and soft.
E)medium pitched and soft.
Q2) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A)greater than intraalveolar pressure.
B)less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C)less than intrapulmonic pressure.
D)equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
E)greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
Q3) The larynx,trachea,bronchi,and bronchioles all make up the
A)upper respiratory tract.
B)lower respiratory tract.
C)internal respiratory tract.
D)alveoli of the respiratory tract.
E)respiratory mucosa.
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Q1) If digestion of a carbohydrate results in equal amounts of glucose and galactose,this carbohydrate is probably
A)sucrose.
B)maltose.
C)lactose.
D)cellulose.
E)glycogen.
Q2) The ________ duct is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct.
A)pancreatic
B)hepatopancreatic
C)gastric
D)common bile
E)duodenal
Q3) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus?
A)component of mucosa
B)sensory neural network
C)secretes a watery fluid
D)coordinates activity of muscularis externa
E)loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels
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Q1) Impaired fat absorption in the intestine would interfere with the absorption of
A)vitamin A.
B)vitamin B .
C)vitamin C.
D)niacin.
E)riboflavin.
Q2) Cells perform catabolism to generate ATP,which can be used for A)muscle contraction.
B)ion transport.
C)protein synthesis.
D)glycogen synthesis.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) What happens during protein catabolism? How is this related to nitrogen balance?
Q4) Someone with a total cholesterol level above their optimal range should A)modify their diet.
B)lose weight if overweight.
C)have annual checkups.
D)reduce the amount of saturated fat in the diet.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q5) Briefly outline the role of the liver in glucose metabolism.
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Q1) Physicians often ask for urine samples collected over a 24-hour period,rather than a single sample.Why?
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "1 1."
A)renal pelvis
B)minor calyx
C)ureter
D)major calyx
E)renal column
Q3) What is the creatinine clearance test? How can it be used to estimate GFR? How accurate is it?
Q4) Filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule normally contains A)hydrogen ions.
B)water.
C)nutrients.
D)urea.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q5) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
Q6) In glomerulonephritis,the normal filtration barrier is damaged and becomes far more permeable to plasma proteins,such as albumin along with other solutes.How would that affect glomerular filtration?
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Q1) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory alkalosis?
A)consequence of hyperventilation (for example,in fever or mental illness
B)consequence of prolonged vomiting
C)consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation (for example,due to COPD)
D)consequence of tissue hypoxia (for example,in ischemic conditions)
Q2) The extracellular fluid (ECF)consists of the A)plasma.
B)interstitial fluid.
C)cerebrospinal fluid.
D)lymph.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Which hormone plays a central role in determining the rate of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion?
A)ADH
B)aldosterone
C)BNP
D)ANP
E)epinephrine
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Q1) The space bounded by the labia minora is the A)fornix.
B)vestibule.
C)hymen.
D)clitoris.
E)isthmus.
Q2) Which of the following is not an action of estrogen?
A)stimulates bone growth
B)maintains female secondary sex characteristics
C)mimics the symptoms of menopause
D)maintains accessory reproductive organs
E)initiates repair of the endometrium
Q3) Which of the following statements about the menstrual cycle is true?
A)The first occurrence is termed menarche.
B)It is ultimately controlled by GnRH.
C)It is skipped in pregnancy.
D)It often involves painful myometrial contraction.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) How does mitosis differ from meiosis?
Q5) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?
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Q1) The process by which a viable embryo is formed is called
A)embryogenesis.
B)organogenesis.
C)gametogenesis.
D)morphogenesis.
E)blastogenesis.
Q2) During the ________ stage,the placenta is expelled from the uterus.
A)expulsion
B)dilation
C)crowning
D)exit
E)placental
Q3) Which embryonic germ layer forms the linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts?
A)mesoderm
B)ectoderm
C)trophoderm
D)endoderm
E)epiderm
Q4) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?
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