General Physics II Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

General Physics II is a continuation of the introductory physics sequence, focusing on the fundamental principles of electricity, magnetism, optics, and modern physics. This course covers topics such as electric forces and fields, electric potential, circuits, magnetic fields, electromagnetic induction, and the properties of light including reflection, refraction, and optical instruments. Additionally, the course introduces concepts in modern physics, such as quantum phenomena and atomic structure. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving skills and understanding the application of these physical principles in real-world and technological contexts. Laboratory experiments complement the theoretical material, allowing students to gain practical experience in data collection and analysis.

Recommended Textbook

Physics 10th Edition by John D. Cutnell

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32 Chapters

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Chapter 1: Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

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Q1) A certain physical quantity, R, is calculated using the formula: R = 4a2(b - c) where a, b, and c are distances. What is the SI unit for R?

A)cm

B)cm2

C)m

D)m2

E)m3

Answer: E

Q2) The x and y components of a displacement vector are -3.00 m and +4.00 m, respectively. What angle does this vector make with the positive x axis?

A)233°

B)127°

C)-53.0°

D)53.0°

E)37.0°

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Kinematics in One Dimension

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Q1) What is the speed of the object 3.0 seconds after it is dropped?

A)3.0 m/s

B)7.7 m/s

C)9.8 m/s

D)29 m/s

E)This cannot be determined since there is no specified value of height.

Answer: D

Q2) Starting from rest, a particle confined to move along a straight line is accelerated at a rate of 5.0 m/s2. Which one of the following statements accurately describes the motion of this particle?

A)The particle travels 5.0 m during each second.

B)The particle travels 5.0 m only during the first second.

C)The speed of the particle increases by 5.0 m/s during each second.

D)The acceleration of the particle increases by 5.0 m/s2 during each second.

E)The final speed of the particle will be proportional to the distance that the particle covers.

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Kinematics in Two Dimensions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A physics student standing on the edge of a cliff throws a stone vertically downward with an initial speed of 10.0 m/s. The instant before the stone hits the ground below, it is traveling at a speed of 30.0 m/s. If the physics student were to throw the rock horizontally outward from the cliff instead, with the same initial speed of 10.0 m/s, what is the magnitude of the velocity of the stone just before it hits the ground?

A)10.0 m/s

B)20.0 m/s

C)30.0 m/s

D)40.0 m/s

E)The height of the cliff must be specified to answer this question.

Answer: C

Q2) How long is the football in the air? Neglect air resistance.

A)1.1 s

B)1.6 s

C)2.0 s

D)3.3 s

E)4.0 s

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Q1) A boy pulls a 5.0-kg sled with a rope that makes a 60.0° angle with respect to the horizontal surface of a frozen pond. The boy pulls on the rope with a force of 10.0 N; and the sled moves with constant velocity. What is the coefficient of friction between the sled and the ice?

A)0.09

B)0.12

C)0.18

D)0.06

E)0.24

Q2) If the mass of the suspended object is doubled, what will be the acceleration of the block up the plane?

A)g(2 - \(\mu\)k sin \(\theta\))

B)2g(\(\mu\)k sin \(\theta\) - cos \(\theta\))

C)g(2tan \(\theta\) - \(\mu\)k sin \(\theta\))

D)g(2 - sin \(\theta\) - \(\mu\)k cos \(\theta\))

E)g(2cos \(\theta\) - \(\mu\)k sin \(\theta\))

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Chapter 5: Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Holly puts a box into the trunk of her car. Later, she drives around an unbanked curve that has a radius of 48 m. The speed of the car on the curve is 16 m/s, but the box remains stationary relative to the floor of the trunk. Determine the minimum coefficient of static friction for the box on the floor of the trunk.

A)0.42

B)0.54

C)0.17

D)0.33

E)This cannot be determined without knowing the mass of the box.

Q2) What is the radius of the curve that the plane follows in making the turn?

A)280 m

B)350 m

C)830 m

D)1100 m

E)1600 m

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Chapter 6: Work and Energy

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Q1) What is the kinetic energy of the projectile when it reaches the highest point in its trajectory?

A)zero joules

B)900 J

C)1600 J

D)2500 J

E)4900 J

Q2) A woman stands on the edge of a cliff and throws a stone vertically downward with an initial speed of 10 m/s. The instant before the stone hits the ground below, it has 450 J of kinetic energy. If she were to throw the stone horizontally outward from the cliff with the same initial speed of 10 m/s, how much kinetic energy would it have just before it hits the ground?

A)50 J

B)100 J

C)450 J

D)800 J

E)950 J

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Chapter 7: Impulse and Momentum

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning center of mass is true?

A)All of an object's mass is located at its center of mass.

B)The center of mass of an object must be located within the object.

C)The center of mass of a system of objects cannot change even if there are forces acting on the objects.

D)The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is greatly affected by a collision of objects within the system.

E)The velocity of the center of mass of a system of objects is constant when the sum of the external forces acting on the system is zero.

Q2) During hockey practice, two pucks are sliding across the ice in the same direction. At one instant, a 0.18-kg puck is moving at 16 m/s while the other puck has a mass of 0.14 kg and a speed of 3.8 m/s. What is the velocity of the center of mass of the two pucks?

A)5.0 m/s

B)7.0 m/s

C)9.0 m/s

D)11 m/s

E)13 m/s

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Chapter 8: Rotational Kinematics

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the spin-dry cycle of a washing machine, the motor slows from 90 rad/s to 30 rad/s while the turning the drum through an angle of 180 radians. What is the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the motor?

A)64 rad/s2

B)32 rad/s2

C)10 rad/s2

D)20 rad/s2

E)1.0 rad/s2

Q2) What is the tangential acceleration of the passengers during the first 21 s of the ride?

A)0.067 m/s2

B)0.50 m/s2

C)1.4 m/s2

D)7.5 m/s2

E)11 m/s2

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Chapter 9: Rotational Dynamics

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Q1) A string is wrapped around a pulley of radius 0.20 m and moment of inertia 0.40 kg . m2. The string is pulled with a force of 28 N. What is the magnitude of the resulting angular acceleration of the pulley?

A)22 rad/s2

B)14 rad/s2

C)68 rad/s2

D)0.55 rad/s2

E)8.0 rad/s2

Q2) A hollow cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane. A block of mass M easily slides down an identical inclined plane. Complete the following statement: If both objects are released at the same time from the top of their inclined planes,

A)the cylinder will reach the bottom first.

B)the block will reach the bottom first.

C)the block will reach the bottom with the greater kinetic energy.

D)the cylinder will reach the bottom with the greater kinetic energy.

E)both the block and the cylinder will reach the bottom at the same time.

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Chapter 10: Simple Harmonic Motion and Elasticity

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Q1) A cable stretches by an amount d when it supports a crate of mass M. The cable is replaced by another cable of the same material having the same length and twice the diameter. What is the mass of the load that can be supported by the thicker cable if it stretches by an amount d?

A)M/4

B)M/2

C)M

D)2M

E)4M

Q2) How much potential energy is stored in the spring in Figure B?

A)0.245 J

B)0.490 J

C)4.90 J

D)9.80 J

E)zero J

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Chapter 11: Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) The density of mercury is 1.36 × 104 kg/m3. What is the mass of a 2.16 × 10-4-m3 sample of mercury?

A)0.0343 kg

B)0.002 94 kg

C)2.94 kg

D)5.44 kg

E)6.29 kg

Q2) What mass of water (at 4.0 °C) can be contained in a rectangular box whose dimensions are 10.0 cm by 5.00 cm by 1.00 cm? The density of water at 4.0 °C is 1.000 × 103 kg/m3.

A)5.0 g

B)10.0 g

C)25.0 g

D)50.0 g

E)0.25 kg

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Chapter 12: Temperature and Heat

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the latent heat of vaporization of unknown substance X in kcal/g if 4.0 g of boiling liquid X are completely vaporized in 1.2 hours by an input of 15 kcal/h into the system by an energy source.

A)4.5 kcal/g

B)1.5 kcal/g

C)2.7 kcal/g

D)3.0 kcal/g

E)5.9 kcal/g

Q2) Zirconium tungstate is an unusual material because its volume shrinks with an increase in temperature for the temperature range 0.3 K to 1050 K (where it decomposes). In fact, the volumetric coefficient of thermal expansion is -26.4 × 10-6/K. Determine the ratio \(\Delta\)V/V0 for the above mentioned temperature range. Express your answer in percent.

A)-5.28%

B)-3.59%

C)-2.77%

D)-1.90%

E)-1.04%

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Chapter 13: The Transfer of Heat

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Q1) The power radiated by a distant star is 6.2 × 1027 W. The radius of the star, which may be considered a perfect radiator, is 1.06 × 1010 m. Determine the surface temperature of the star.

A)2970 K

B)4630 K

C)7440 K

D)8710 K

E)9970 K

Q2) Suppose you are sitting next to a fire burning in a fireplace. One end of a metal poker has been left in the fire. Which one of the following statements concerning this situation is true?

A)You can feel the heat of the fire primarily because of convection.

B)The end of the poker that is not in the fire is warmed through conduction.

C)Heat escapes through the chimney primarily through conduction.

D)You can feel the heat of the fire primarily because of conduction.

E)The end of the poker that is not in the fire is warmed through convection.

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Chapter 14: The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

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Q1) Complete the following statement: The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is directly proportional to

A)the number of molecules in the sample.

B)the average momentum of a molecule of the gas.

C)the average translational kinetic energy of the gas.

D)the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the gas by 1 C°.

E)the relative increase in volume of the gas for a temperature increase of 1 C°.

Q2) Under which of the following conditions would you expect real gases to approach ideal behavior?

A)low temperature and low pressure

B)high temperature and low pressure

C)low temperature and high pressure

D)high temperature and high pressure

E)high temperature and high density

Q3) What is the density of methane, CH4, (molecular mass = 16 u) at STP?

A)0.357 kg/m3

B)0.386 kg/m3

C)0.431 kg/m3

D)0.712 kg/m3

E)0.951 kg/m3

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Chapter 15: Thermodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A Carnot heat engine is to be designed with an efficiency of 81%. If the low temperature reservoir is 25 °C, what is the temperature of the "hot" reservoir?

A)45 °C

B)430 °C

C)850 °C

D)1300 °C

E)1700 °C

Q2) Which one of the following statements is true concerning this process?

A)The water gains entropy in accord with the second law of thermodynamics.

B)The water loses entropy so the process violates the second law of thermodynamics.

C)The water gains entropy, but the air outside the refrigerator loses entropy in accord with the second law of thermodynamics.

D)Both the water and the air outside the refrigerator lose entropy, but the universe gains entropy in accord with the second law of thermodynamics.

E)The water loses entropy, but the air outside the refrigerator gains entropy in accord with the second law of thermodynamics.

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Chapter 16: Waves and Sound

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Q1) How far must one stand from a 5-mW point sound source if the intensity at that location is at the hearing threshold? Assume the sound waves travel to the listener without being disturbed.

A)500 m

B)1 km

C)2 km

D)4 km

E)20 km

Q2) According to US government regulations, the maximum sound intensity level in the workplace is 90.0 dB. Within one factory, 32 identical machines produce a sound intensity level of 92.0 dB. How many machines must be removed to bring the factory into compliance with the regulation?

A)2

B)8

C)12

D)16

E)24

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Page 18

Chapter 17: The Principle of Linear Superposition and

Interference Phenomena

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the wavelength of the 140 Hz resonance.

A)0.30 m

B)0.60 m

C)1.2 m

D)1.5 m

E)1.8 m

Q2) How far from either end of the string does the first node occur?

A)0.17 m

B)0.33 m

C)0.49 m

D)0.66 m

E)0.75 m

Q3) A pebble is dropped in a lake; and it produces ripples with a frequency of 0.50 Hz. When should a second pebble be dropped at the same place to produce destructive interference?

A)0.50 s after the first

B)0.75 s after the first

C)1.0 s after the first

D)1.5 s after the first

E)2.0 s after the first

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Chapter 18: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) At what separation will two charges, each of magnitude 6.0 \(\mu\)C, exert a force of 0.70 N on each other?

A)1.1 × 10-5 m

B)0.23 m

C)0.48 m

D)0.68 m

E)1.4 m

Q2) Which one of the following statements best explains why tiny bits of paper are attracted to a charged rubber rod?

A)Paper is naturally a positive material.

B)Paper is naturally a negative material.

C)The paper becomes electrically polarized by induction.

D)Rubber and paper always attract each other.

E)The paper acquires a net positive charge by induction.

Q3) Which path would be followed by a charge +6Q?

A)path 1

B)path 2

C)path 3

D)path 4

E)path 5

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Chapter 19: Electric Potential Energy and the Electric

Potential

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Q1) The electric potential at a certain point is space is 12 V. What is the electric potential energy of a -3.0 \(\mu\)C charge placed at that point?

A)+4 \(\mu\)J

B)-4 \(\mu\)J

C)+36 \(\mu\)J

D)-36 \(\mu\)J

E)zero µJ

Q2) A parallel plate capacitor with plates of area A and plate separation d is charged so that the potential difference between its plates is V. If the capacitor is then isolated and its plate separation is decreased to d/2, what happens to the potential difference between the plates?

A)The final potential difference is 4V.

B)The final potential difference is 2V.

C)The final potential difference is 0.5V.

D)The final potential difference is 0.25V.

E)The final potential difference is V.

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Chapter 20: Electric Circuits

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Q1) Three resistors, 4.0-\(\varOmega\), 8.0-\(\varOmega\), 16-\(\varOmega\), are connected in parallel in a circuit. What is the equivalent resistance of this combination of resistors?

A)30 \(\varOmega\)

B)10 \(\varOmega\)

C)2.3 \(\varOmega\)

D)2.9\(\varOmega\)

E)0.34 \(\varOmega\)

Q2) What is the equivalent resistance between the points A and B?

A)1 \(\varOmega\)

B)2 \(\varOmega\)

C)3 \(\varOmega\)

D)4 \(\varOmega\)

E)5 \(\varOmega\)

Q3) Which one of the following combinations of units is equivalent to the ohm?

A)V/C

B)A/J

C)J/s

D)J.s/C2

E)W/A

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Chapter 21: Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

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Q1) A current-carrying, rectangular coil of wire is placed in a magnetic field. The magnitude of the torque on the coil is not dependent upon which one of the following quantities?

A)the magnitude of the current in the loop

B)the direction of the current in the loop

C)the length of the sides of the loop

D)the area of the loop

E)the orientation of the loop

Q2) An electron traveling due north enters a region that contains a uniform magnetic field that points due east. In which direction will the electron be deflected?

A)east

B)west

C)up

D)down

E)south

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Chapter 22: Electromagnetic Induction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the magnitude of the induced emf in the loop.

A)2.0 V

B)4.0 V

C)8.0 V

D)14 V

E)16 V

Q2) The current in the secondary coil of a step-up transformer is 1.25 A when the current in the primary coil is 0.30 A. Determine the turns ratio, Ns/Np, of the transformer.

A)5.6

B)4.2

C)0.24

D)0.18

E)0.12

Q3) Determine the magnitude of the induced current through the resistor.

A)2.0 A

B)3.5 A

C)4.6 A

D)7.2 A

E)11 A

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Chapter 23: Alternating Current Circuits

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning this circuit is true?

A)The voltage leads the current.

B)The circuit is more capacitive than inductive.

C)The voltage and current are exactly out of phase.

D)The voltage and current are in phase.

E)The phase angle for this circuit is positive.

Q2) What is the impedance of the circuit?

A)13 \(\varOmega\)

B)23 \(\varOmega\)

C)59 \(\varOmega\)

D)85 \(\varOmega\)

E)97 \(\varOmega\)

Q3) Determine the frequency of the generator.

A)0.14 Hz

B)7.14 Hz

C)12.5 Hz

D)25.0 Hz

E)50.0 Hz

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Chapter 24: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) Which one of the following statements concerning the energy carried by an electromagnetic wave is true?

A)The energy is carried only by the electric field.

B)More energy is carried by the electric field than by the magnetic field.

C)The energy is carried equally by the electric and magnetic fields.

D)More energy is carried by the magnetic field than by the electric field.

E)The energy is carried only by the magnetic field.

Q2) What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at t = 6.0 × 10-9 s?

A)1.7 × 10-8 T

B)2.3 × 10-8 T

C)2.8 × 10-8 T

D)3.3 × 10-8 T

E)zero tesla

Q3) Determine the wavelength of the wave.

A)0.30 m

B)0.60 m

C)0.79 m

D)1.2 m

E)2.3 m

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Chapter 25: The Refl Ection of Light: Mirrors

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Q1) Determine the image height in the concave mirror.

A)0.5

B)1.5

C)2.0

D)3.0

E)4.5

Q2) The radius of curvature of a spherical convex mirror is 52 cm. What is its focal length?

A)+26 cm

B)-26 cm

C)+52 cm

D)-52 cm

E)+104 cm

Q3) A convex mirror with a focal length of 58 cm is used to form an image that is 29 cm behind the mirror. What is the object distance?

A)+22 cm

B)+15 cm

C)+69 cm

D)+28 cm

E)+58 cm

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Chapter 26: The Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

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Q1) Approximately, what is the image distance?

A)-2.0 units

B)-4.0 units

C)+6.0 units

D)-7.5 units

E)+9.0 units

Q2) An object with a height of 4.0 cm is placed 30.0 cm from a lens. The resulting inverted image has a height of 1.5 cm. What is the focal length of the lens?

A)7.5 cm

B)8.2 cm

C)15 cm

D)17 cm

E)21 cm

Q3) Where is the final image located relative to the lens on the right?

A)0.08 m to the left of the lens

B)0.12 m to the left of the lens

C)0.08 m to the right of the lens

D)0.12 m to the right of the lens

E)0.36 m to the right of the lens

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

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Q1) Which one of the following statements best explains why the diffraction of sound is more apparent than the diffraction of light under most circumstances?

A)Sound requires a physical medium for propagation.

B)Sound waves are longitudinal, and light waves are transverse.

C)Light waves can be represented by rays while sound waves cannot.

D)The speed of sound in air is six orders of magnitude smaller than that of light.

E)The wavelength of light is considerably smaller than the wavelength of sound.

Q2) Light from two sources, \(\lambda\)1 = 623 nm and \(\lambda\)2 = 488 nm, is incident on a diffraction grating that has 5550 lines/cm. What is the angular separation, \(\theta\)1\(\theta\)2, of the second order maxima of the two waves?

A)11.0°

B)15.0°

C)25.0°

D)32.8°

E)43.8°

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Chapter 28: Special Relativity

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Q1) Both rockets have a supply of unstable mesons with a mean proper lifetime of 2.6 × 10-8 s. Which one of the following is a correct observation for the inertial observer?

A)The mesons in A have a mean lifetime of 4.3 × 10-8 s.

B)The mesons in B have a mean lifetime of 3.6 × 10-8 s.

C)The mesons in both rockets have a mean lifetime of 2.6 × 10-8 s.

D)The mean lifetime of the mesons is the same for both rockets, but less than 2.6 × 10-8 s.

E)On average, the mesons in A will decay before the mesons in B.

Q2) The power capacity of all nuclear power plants in the United States is 1.01 × 105 MW. In one hour, what is the total change in the mass of the nuclear fuel at these power plants due to the energy being taken from the reactors? Assume 100% efficiency.

A)1.12 × 10-6 kg

B)7.59 × 10-5 kg

C)5.11 × 10-4 kg

D)4.04 × 10-3 kg

E)3.62 kg

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Particles and Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) What happens to the de Broglie wavelength of an electron if its momentum is reduced to one-half of its initial value?

A)The wavelength decreases by a factor of 4.

B)The wavelength increases by a factor of 4.

C)The wavelength increases by a factor of 3.

D)The wavelength increases by a factor of 2.

E)The wavelength decreases by a factor of 2.

Q2) The speed of a bullet with a mass of 0.050 kg is 420 m/s with an uncertainty of 0.010 %. What is the minimum uncertainty in the bullet's position if it is measured at the same time as the speed is measured?

A)2.5 × 10-31 m

B)5.0 × 10-32 m

C)7.5 × 10-33 m

D)2.5 × 10-34 m

E)6.0 × 10-36 m

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Chapter 30: The Nature of the Atom

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many protons are in the atomic nucleus?

A)4

B)7

C)12

D)17

E)34

Q2) The second ionization energy (the energy required to remove the second outermost electron) of calcium is 11.9 eV. Determine the maximum wavelength of incident radiation that can be used to remove the second electron from a calcium atom?

A)16.6 nm

B)52 nm

C)104 nm

D)208 nm

E)416 nm

Q3) What shell is this electron occupying?

A)K shell

B)L shell

C)M shell

D)N shell

E)O shell

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Chapter 31: Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the activity of 6.0 × 1012 atoms of Rn-220 that has a half-life of 56 s.

A)2.0 Ci

B)2.5 Ci

C)3.0 Ci

D)3.5 Ci

E)4.0 Ci

Q2) Complete the following sentence: In a \(\beta\)+ decay process, the emitted particle is

A)an electron.

B)a neutron.

C)a positron.

D)a proton.

E)a photon.

Q3) Which one of the following statements concerning stable nuclei is true?

A)Stable nuclei have nucleon numbers less than 83.

B)Stable nuclei generally have odd atomic numbers.

C)Stable nuclei have atomic numbers greater than 83.

D)Stable nuclei generally have an odd number of neutrons.

E)Stable nuclei generally have more neutrons than protons.

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Chapter 32: Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

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Q1) Which one of the following particles is not a member of the hadron family?

A)pion

B)neutron

C)muon

D)kaon

E)proton

Q2) What absorbed dose of protons with an RBE of 17 will cause the same damage to biological tissue as a 200 rd dose of neutrons that have an RBE of 2.6?

A)3.8 rd

B)12 rd

C)26 rd

D)52 rd

E)520 rd

Q3) What is the antiparticle of an electron?

A)\(\pi\)+

B)v+

C)electron (self)

D)photon

E)\(\beta\)+

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