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General Physics I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of classical physics. Covering topics such as mechanics, motion, forces, energy, momentum, and the properties of matter, this course lays the foundation for understanding the physical universe. Students will learn to analyze physical systems using mathematical reasoning and laboratory experiments, fostering problem-solving skills and scientific literacy essential for further study in physics, engineering, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook College Physics
10th Edition by Raymond A. Serway
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61 Chapters
3839 Verified Questions
3839 Flashcards
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Q1) Water flows into a swimming pool at the rate of 7 gal/min.The pool is 16 ft wide,31 ft long and 8 ft deep.How long does it take to fill? (1 U.S.gallon = 231 cubic inches)
A) 35.5 hours
B) 71 hours
C) 70 hours
D) 142 hours
E) 710 hours
Answer: B
Q2) When NASA was communicating with astronauts on the moon,the time from sending on the Earth to receiving on the moon was 1.28 s.Find the distance from Earth to the moon.(The speed of radio waves is 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s. )
A) 240 000 km
B) 384 000 km
C) 480 000 km
D) 768 000 km
Answer: B
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Q1) If and are each first quadrant angles,which of the following must be true if sin = cos ?
A) + = rad
B) + = 90°
C) - = /2 rad
D) =
Answer: B
Q2) A triangle has sides of lengths 14 cm and 50 cm.If the triangle is a right triangle,which of the following could be the length of the third side?
A) 26 cm
B) 36 cm
C) 48 cm
D) 64 cm

Answer: C
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Q1) An object moves 20 m east in 20 s and then returns to its starting point taking an additional 50 s.If west is chosen as the positive direction,what is the sign associated with the average velocity of the object?
A) +
B)
C) 0 (no sign)
D) any of the above
Answer: C
Q2) A basketball player can jump 1.6 m off the hardwood floor.With what upward velocity did he leave the floor?
A) 5.8 m/s
B) 2.8 m/s
C) 5.4 m/s
D) 5.6 m/s
E) 11.2 m/s

Answer: D
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Q1) An astronaut applies a force of 500 N to an asteroid,and it accelerates at 3.00 m/s<sup>2</sup>.What is the asteroid's mass?
A) 1500 kg
B) 135 kg
C) 600 kg
D) 167 kg
Q2) An object is dropped from a height.Once it is moving,which of the following statements is true,at least at one point?
A) Its velocity is more than its acceleration.
B) Its velocity is less than its acceleration.
C) Its velocity is the same as its acceleration.
D) Its velocity is never equal to its acceleration.
Q3) A strobe photograph shows equally spaced images of a car moving along a straight road.If the time intervals between images is constant,which of the following cannot be positive?
A) the speed of the car
B) the average velocity of the car
C) the acceleration of the car
D) the direction of motion of the car
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Q1) A track star in the broad jump goes into the jump at 12 m/s and launches himself at 20° above the horizontal.How long is he in the air before returning to Earth? (g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>)
A) 0.42 s
B) 0.84 s
C) 1.68 s
D) 2.3 s
E) 0.89 s
Q2) A ball is rolled horizontally off a table with an initial speed of 0.22 m/s.A stop watch measures the ball's trajectory time from table to the floor to be 0.2 s.How far away from the table does the ball land? (g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup> and air resistance is negligible)
A) 0.24 m
B) 0.044 m
C) 0.392 m
D) 0.152 m
E) 0.088 m
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Q1) A cue ball of weight W is falling with an acceleration downward of g/3 and speed v.What is the magnitude of the drag force on the ball at this moment?
A) 0.33W
B) 0.67W
C) 0.11W
D) There is insufficient information to solve this problem.
Q2) Two blocks of masses 20 kg and 8.0 kg are connected together by a light string and rest on a frictionless,level surface.Attached to the 8.0-kg mass is a second light string,which a person uses to pull both blocks horizontally.If the two-block system accelerates at 1.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>,what is the tension in the second string attached to the 8.0-kg mass?
A) 14 N
B) 6.0 N
C) 28 N
D) 4.0 N
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Q1) A 6.0-kg object is falling downward with an acceleration of 3.27 m/s<sup>2</sup>.Of the following values,which is nearest to the drag force on the object?
A) 3.3 N
B) 65 N
C) 20 N
D) 39 N
Q2) A plane is moving due north,directly towards its destination.Its airspeed is 200 mph.A constant breeze is blowing from west to east at 42 mph.In which direction is the plane pointed?
A) 5.7° W of N
B) 12° W of N
C) 22° W of N
D) 11° E of N
Q3) A baseball is moving in the air along the customary parabola.Ignoring air drag,where is the force on the baseball zero?
A) at the top of the parabola
B) just when it has started upward
C) where it is about to impact
D) nowhere
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Q1) A professional skier reaches a speed of 55 m/s on a 30° ski slope.Ignoring friction,what was the minimum distance along the slope the skier would have had to travel,starting from rest?
A) 154.34 m
B) 178.22 m
C) 308.67 m
D) 5.61 m
E) 0.003 m
Q2) A horizontal force of 81 N is applied to move a 47-kg cart across a 7.0-m level surface.What work is done by the 81-N force?
A) 12.06 J
B) 26649 J
C) 567 J
D) 543.86 J
E) 0.25 J
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Q1) If a planet has 9 times the radius of the Earth,but has the same density as the Earth,what is the gravitational acceleration at the surface of the planet? (g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>)
A) 29.4 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 88.2 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 265 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 39.2 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Q2) The cutting cord on a gas-powered weed cutter is 0.20 m in length.If the motor rotates at the rate of 20 rev/s,what is the tangential speed of the end of the cord?
A) 628 m/s
B) 25 m/s
C) 19 m/s
D) 63 m/s
Q3) How many revolutions per second are needed for a centrifuge to produce an acceleration of 1 200g at a radius arm of 15.0 cm?
A) 40.7 rev/s
B) 44.6 rev/s
C) 81.4 rev/s
D) 151 rev/s
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Q1) A valid unit for momentum is which of the following?
A) kg m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C) kg m/s
D) N m
Q2) A machine gun is attached to a railroad flatcar that rolls with negligible friction.If the railroad car has a mass of 7 × 10<sup>4</sup> kg,how many bullets of mass 20 g would have to be fired at 200 m/s off the back to give the railroad car a forward velocity of 0.5 m/s?
A) 8.8
B) 0.11
C) 1,400
D) 8,750
E) 14
Q3) The impulse experienced by a body is equivalent to its change in:
A) velocity.
B) kinetic energy.
C) momentum.
D) None of the above choices are valid.
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Q1) Four different compact fluorescent bulbs and their comparison to incandescent bulbs are advertised as follows: a 42-W cfl produces the light of a 150-W incandescent,a 9-W cfl produces the light of a 40-W incandescent,a 23-W cfl produces the light of a 100-W incandescent,and a 13-W cfl produces the light of a 60-W incandescent.Which cfl produces the most light per watt,and which one produces the least? Assume true advertising!
A) the 13 W,the 42 W
B) the 9 W,the 23 W
C) the 23 W,the 42 W
D) the 42 W,the 13 W
Q2) How fast would a 1000-kg car be traveling if it had a kinetic energy equal to 1000 Calories?
A) 91 m/s
B) 2.9 m/s
C) 12 m/s
D) 8 m/s
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Q1) If a planet has a radius 20% greater than that of the Earth but has the same mass as the Earth,what is the acceleration due to gravity at its surface?
A) 14 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 12 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 8.2 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 6.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Q2) In order for a satellite to be geosynchronous,its orbit must:
A) go over the North and South Poles.
B) be over the equator.
C) be over a single longitude.
D) emit television signals.
Q3) A 0.15-m-radius grinding wheel starts at rest and develops an angular speed of 12.0 rad/s in 4.0 s.What is the average tangential acceleration of a point on the wheel's edge?
A) 0.45 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 6.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 28 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 14 m/s<sup>2</sup>
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Q1) Lonnie pitches a baseball of mass 0.15 kg.The ball arrives at home plate with a speed of 40 m/s and is batted straight back to Lonnie with a return speed of 60 m/s.If the bat is in contact with the ball for 0.050 s,what is the impulse experienced by the ball?
A) 360 N·s
B) 20 N·s
C) 400 N·s
D) 15 N·s
Q2) During a snowball fight,two balls with masses of 0.4 and 0.6 kg,respectively,are thrown in such a manner that they meet head-on and combine to form a single mass.The magnitude of initial velocity for each is 20 m/s.What is the speed of the 1.0-kg mass immediately after collision?
A) zero
B) 3 m/s
C) 4 m/s
D) 5 m/s
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Q1) A uniform bridge span weighs 80.0 × 10<sup>3</sup> N and is 30.0 m long.An automobile weighing 12.0 × 10<sup>3</sup> N is parked with its center of gravity located 12.0 m from the right pier.What upward support force does the right pier provide?
A) 44.8 × 10<sup>3</sup> N
B) 54 × 10<sup>3</sup> N
C) 32.8 × 10<sup>3</sup> N
D) 47.2 × 10<sup>3</sup> N
E) 46 × 10<sup>3</sup> N
Q2) A bucket of water with total mass 23 kg is attached to a rope,which in turn,is wound around a 0.060-m radius cylinder at the top of a well.A crank with a turning radius of 0.5 m is attached to the end of the cylinder.What minimum force directed perpendicular to the crank handle is required to just raise the bucket? (Assume the rope's mass is negligible,that the cylinder turns on frictionless bearings,and that g = 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>. )
A) 1878 N
B) 3 N
C) 27 N
D) 451 N
E) 7 N
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Q1) A 8.4-kg mass is placed at (3.0,4.0)m.Where can a 4.2-kg mass be placed so that the moment of inertia about the z axis is zero?
A) ( 3.0, 4.0)m
B) ( 6.0, 8.0)m
C) ( 1.5, 2.0)m
D) There is no position giving this result.
Q2) A 4.0-kg mass is placed at (3.0,4.0)m,and a 7.0-kg mass is placed at (3.0, 4.0)m.What is the moment of inertia of this system of masses about the x axis?
A) 275 kg·m<sup>2</sup>
B) 90 kg·m<sup>2</sup>
C) 176 kg·m<sup>2</sup>
D) 99 kg·m<sup>2</sup>
Q3) A disk has a moment of inertia of 3.0 × 10 <sup>4</sup> kg·m<sup>2</sup> and rotates with an angular speed of 3.5 rad/sec.What net torque must be applied to bring it to rest within 3.7 s?
A) 4.6 × 10 <sup>4</sup> N·m
B) 7.5 × 10 <sup>4</sup> N·m
C) 3.5 × 10 <sup>4</sup> N·m
D) 2.8 × 10 <sup>4</sup> N·m

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Q1) A Boeing-737 airliner has a mass of 20 500 kg.The total area of the wings is 100 m<sup>2</sup>.What must be the pressure difference between the top and bottom of the wings to keep the airplane up?
A) 2 009 Pa
B) 21 Pa
C) 205 Pa
D) 2 019 Pa
E) 1 909 Pa
Q2) How much air must be pushed downward at 40.0 m/s to keep an 800-kg helicopter aloft?
A) 20 kg/s
B) 196 kg/s
C) 32 000 kg/s
D) 201 kg/s
E) 186 kg/s
Q3) In an elastic solid there is a direct proportionality between strain and:
A) elastic modulus.
B) temperature.
C) cross-sectional area.
D) stress.
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Q1) A turntable has a moment of inertia of 3.00 × 10 <sup>2</sup> kg·m<sup>2</sup> and spins freely on a frictionless bearing at 25.0 rev/min.A 0.600-kg ball of putty is dropped vertically on the turntable and sticks at a point 0.100 m from the center.By what factor does the angular momentum of the system change after the putty is dropped onto the turntable?
A) 1.22
B) 1.00 (no change)
C) 0.820
D) 1.20
Q2) An astronaut is on a 100-m lifeline outside a spaceship,circling the ship with an angular speed of 0.100 rad/s.How far inward can she be pulled before the centripetal acceleration reaches 4g = 39.2 m/s<sup>2</sup>?
A) 50.0 m
B) 70.6 m
C) 72.7 m
D) 89.9 m
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Q1) How many moles of air must escape from a 12-m × 10-m × 3-m room when the temperature is raised from 5°C to 25°C? Assume the pressure remains unchanged at one atmosphere while the room is heated.
A) 7 × 10<sup>3</sup> moles
B) 1.1 × 10<sup>3</sup> moles
C) 3.5 × 10<sup>2</sup> moles
D) 8.8 × 10<sup>2</sup> moles
E) 5.1 × 10<sup>3</sup> moles
Q2) An ideal gas is confined to a container with constant volume.The number of moles is constant.By what factor will the pressure change if the absolute temperature triples?
A) 1/9
B) 1/3
C) 3.0
D) 9.0
Q3) Normal body temperature for humans is 37°C.What is this temperature in kelvins?
A) 296
B) 310
C) 393
D) 273
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Q1) Water pressurized to 4 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa is flowing at 5.0 m/s in a pipe which contracts to 1/3 of its former area.What are the pressure and speed of the water after the contraction? (density of water = 1 × 10<sup>3</sup> kg/m<sup>3</sup>)
A) 2 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa,15 m/s
B) 3 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa,10 m/s
C) 3 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa,15 m/s
D) 4 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa,1.5 m/s
Q2) A jet of water flowing from a hose at 15 m/s is directed against a wall.If the mass flow in the fluid stream is 4.3 kg/s,what force is the water applying to the wall if backsplash is negligible?
A) 30 N
B) 40 N
C) 65 N
D) 127 N
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Q1) A metal bar is used to conduct heat.When the temperature at one end is 110°C and at the other is 15°C,heat is transferred at a rate of 19 J/s.If the temperature of the hotter end is reduced to 90°C,what will be the rate of heat transfer?
A) 11 J/s
B) 6 J/s
C) 25 J/s
D) 15 J/s
E) 20 J/s
Q2) A solar heating system has a 30.0% conversion efficiency;the solar radiation incident on the panels is 900 W/m<sup>2</sup>.What is the increase in temperature of 32.0 kg of water in a 1.00-h period by a 5.00-m<sup>2</sup>-area collector? (c<sub>w</sub> = 4
186 J/kg °C)
A) 120.9°C
B) 7.3°C
C) 36.3°C
D) 72.6°C
E) 27.2°C
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Q1) Suppose a 0.30-kg mass on a spring that has been compressed 0.20 m has elastic potential energy of 1.0 J.How much further must the spring be compressed to triple the elastic potential energy?
A) 0.35 m
B) 0.15 m
C) 0.10 m
D) 0.05 m
Q2) A 0.20-kg mass is oscillating on a spring over a horizontal,frictionless surface.When it is at a displacement of 2.6 cm from equilibrium,it has a kinetic energy of 2.7 J and a spring potential energy of 2.2 J.What is the maximum speed of the mass during its oscillation?
A) 3.7 m/s
B) 4.7 m/s
C) 6.0 m/s
D) 7.0 m/s
Q3) The SI base units for the spring constant are which of the following?
A) kg·s<sup>2</sup>
B) kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C) kg/s<sup>2</sup>
D) kg·m<sup>2</sup>

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Q1) A 1.0-kg chunk of ice at 0°C melts,absorbing 80 000 cal of heat in the process.Which of the following best describes what happens to this system?
A) increased entropy
B) lost entropy
C) entropy maintained constant
D) work converted to energy
Q2) Entropy is a measure of the ____ of a system.
A) disorder
B) temperature
C) heat
D) internal energy
Q3) A heat engine operating between a pair of hot and cold reservoirs with respective temperatures of 500 K and 300 K will have what maximum efficiency?
A) 40%
B) 60%
C) 30%
D) 35%
E) 16%
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Q1) Waves propagate at 4.0 m/s along a stretched string.The end of the string is vibrated up and down once every 3.0 s.What is the wavelength of the waves that travel along the string?
A) 3.0 m
B) 12 m
C) 6.0 m
D) 2.7 m
Q2) If a guitar string has a fundamental frequency of 250 Hz,what is the frequency of its third harmonic?
A) 250 Hz
B) 750 Hz
C) 1000 Hz
D) 1500 Hz
Q3) A standing wave is set up in a 100-cm string fixed at both ends.The string vibrates in 5 distinct segments when driven by a 120-Hz source.What is the wavelength?
A) 10 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 40 cm
D) 80 cm

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Q1) A 0.25-kg object is attached to a spring with spring constant k = 10 N/m and moves with simple harmonic motion over a horizontal frictionless surface.At the instant that it is displaced from equilibrium by 0.051 m,what is its acceleration?
A) 1,275 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) 127.5 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C) 0.1 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D) 2 m/s<sup>2</sup>
E) 0.5 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Q2) A 0.39 kg object,attached to a spring with spring constant k = 15 N/m,is moving on a horizontal frictionless surface in simple harmonic motion of amplitude of 0.082 m.What is its speed at the instant when its displacement is 0.041 m? (Hint: Use conservation of energy. )
A) 4.4 m/s
B) 8.8 m/s
C) 44 cm/s
D) 56.9 cm/s
E) 31.1 cm/s
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Q1) What sound level change most nearly corresponds to a factor of three change in intensity?
A) 0.5 dB
B) 2 dB
C) 3 dB
D) 5 dB
Q2) What is the intensity level of a sound with intensity of 5.0 × 10 <sup>11</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>? (I<sub>0</sub> = 10 <sup>12</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>)
A) 74 dB
B) 54 dB
C) 17 dB
D) 27 dB
Q3) You stand by the railroad tracks as a train passes by.You hear a 950-Hz frequency when the train approaches,which changes to 820 Hz as it goes away.How fast is the train moving? The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s.
A) 14.0 m/s
B) 20.0 m/s
C) 25.0 m/s
D) 37.8 m/s
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Q1) Two vibrating tuning forks,held side by side,will create a beat frequency of what value if the individual frequencies of the two forks are 348 Hz and 331 Hz,respectively?
A) 679 Hz
B) 339.5 Hz
C) 314 Hz
D) 17 Hz
E) 331 Hz
Q2) Two tuning forks sounding together result in a beat frequency of 4 Hz.If the frequency of one of the forks is 252 Hz,what is the frequency of the other?
A) 260 Hz or 244 Hz
B) 126 Hz
C) 248 Hz or 256 Hz
D) 63 Hz
E) 128.0 Hz
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Q1) A hot (70°C)lump of metal has a mass of 250 g and a specific heat of 0.25 cal/g·°C.John drops the metal into a 500-g calorimeter containing 40 g of water at 20°C.The calorimeter is constructed of a material that has a specific heat of 0.10 cal/ g·°C.When equilibrium is reached,what will be the final temperature? (c<sub>water</sub> = 1.00 cal/g·°C. )
A) 114°C
B) 72°C
C) 40°C
D) 37°C
Q2) A steel piano string is attached,under tension,at each end to secure posts.When gently struck,a faint note can be detected coming from the string.The string is then cooled by blowing cold air over it and then is struck again.How does the note now detected compare to the previous one.
A) It is the same since the posts don't move.
B) It is at a higher frequency than the original one.
C) It is at a lower frequency than the original one.
D) More than one answer is correct.
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Q1) In the Millikan oil-drop experiment it was found that oil droplets:
A) could only have positive net charge.
B) could only have negative net charge.
C) could only have negative or zero net charge.
D) could have positive,negative,or zero net charge.
Q2) The beam of electrons that hits the screen of an oscilloscope is moved up and down by:
A) gravity.
B) a phosphorescent coating.
C) varying the electron's charge.
D) electrical charges on deflecting plates.
Q3) If body P,with a positive charge,is placed in contact with body Q (initially uncharged),what will be the nature of the charge left on Q?
A) must be equal in magnitude to that on P
B) must be negative
C) must be positive
D) must be greater in magnitude than that on P
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Q1) How many atoms are present in a sample of pure iron with a mass of 210 g? (The atomic mass of iron = 56 u and N<sub>A</sub> = 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>. )
A) 1.8 × 10<sup>19</sup>
B) 2.3 × 10<sup>28</sup>
C) 2.3 × 10<sup>24</sup>
D) 3.2 × 10<sup>28</sup>
Q2) Avogadro's number is related to the universal gas constant R and the number of moles n by:
A) N<sub>A</sub> = Rn
B) N<sub>A</sub> = R/n
C) N<sub>A</sub> = n/R
D) Avogadro's number cannot be related to these two quantities alone.
Q3) Estimate the volume of a helium-filled balloon if it is to lift a payload of 1000 kg.The density of air is 1.29 kg/m<sup>3</sup> and helium has a density of 0.178 kg/m<sup>3</sup>.
A) 4410 m<sup>3</sup>
B) 900 m<sup>3</sup>
C) 450 m<sup>3</sup>
D) 225 m<sup>3</sup>
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Q1) A 600-MW electric power plant has an efficiency of 30%.It loses its waste heat in large cooling towers.Approximately how much waste heat (in MJ)is discharged to the atmosphere per second?
A) 1400 MJ
B) 1900 MJ
C) 800 MJ
D) 560 MJ
Q2) A gasoline engine with an efficiency of 40.0% operates between a high temperature T<sub>1</sub> and a low temperature T<sub>2</sub> = 320 K.If this engine operates with Carnot efficiency,what is the high-side temperature T<sub>1</sub>?
A) 1070 K
B) 868 K
C) 533 K
D) 457 K
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Q1) The quantity volt is equivalent to which of the following?
A) J m
B) J C
C) C/
D) J/C
Q2) Superconductivity was discovered by:
A) Volta.
B) Ohm.
C) Onnes.
D) Bednorz and Müller.
Q3) Carbon has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance of -0.5 × 10<sup>-3</sup> (°C) <sup>1</sup>.What temperature increase would result in a resistance decrease of 4% for a carbon resistor?
A) 8°C
B) 80°C
C) 19°C
D) 13°C
E) 400°C
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Q1) An electron is sent at high speed toward a gold nucleus (charge +79e).What is the electrical force acting on the electron when it is 3.0 × 10 <sup>13</sup> m away from the gold nucleus? (e = 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C,k<sub>e</sub> = 8.99 × 10<sup>9</sup> N·m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)
A) 2.1 × 10 <sup>6</sup> N
B) 2.0 × 10 <sup>4</sup> N
C) 0.20 N
D) 20 N
Q2) A charge Q accumulates on the hollow metallic dome,of radius R,of a Van de Graaff generator.A probe measures the electric field strength at various points outside the sphere surface.If the probe is initially at a distance 3R from the sphere's center and then is moved to 5R,by what factor will the electric field reading change?
A) 3/5
B) (5/3)<sup>2</sup>
C) 5/3
D) (3/5)<sup>2</sup>
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Q1) Household 120-V outlets are made to accept three-pronged plugs.One of the prongs attaches to the "live" wire at 120 V,and another attaches to the "neutral" wire that is connected to ground.What is the round third prong for?
A) It serves as a backup to the hot wire.
B) It lets the appliance run if the neutral wire breaks.
C) It connects the case of the appliance directly to ground for safety purposes.
D) Nothing electrical,it is for mechanical sturdiness.
Q2) A certain capacitor is charged to 10 V and then,at t = 0,allowed to discharge through a certain resistor.There will be a certain time before the voltage across the capacitor reaches 5 V.This time can be decreased for this circuit by increasing:
A) the size of the capacitor.
B) the size of the resistor.
C) the size of the time constant.
D) None of the above.
Q3) Household circuits are wired in ________.
A) series
B) parallel
C) both series and parallel
D) neither series nor parallel
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Q1) A proton (+1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> C)moves 10 cm on a path in the direction opposite to a uniform electric field of strength 3.0 N/C.How much work is done on the proton by the electrical field?
A) 4.8 × 10 <sup>20</sup> J
B) 1.6 × 10 <sup>20</sup> J
C) zero
D) 4.8 × 10 <sup>20</sup> J
Q2) Two capacitors with capacitances of 1.5 F and 0.25 F,respectively,are connected in parallel.The system is connected to a 100-V battery.What electrical potential energy is stored in the 1.5- F capacitor?
A) 1.2 × 10 <sup>3</sup> J
B) 1.9 × 10 <sup>3</sup> J
C) 0.50 × 10 <sup>3</sup> J
D) 7.5 × 10 <sup>3</sup> J
Q3) Equipotential surfaces around a point charge are
A) spherical.
B) cylindrical.
C) planar.
D) none of these choices.
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Q1) A superconducting solenoid is to be designed to generate a magnetic field of 6.10 T.If the solenoid winding has 969 turns/m,what is the required current? (µ<sub>0</sub> = 4 × 10 <sup>7</sup> T m/A)
A) 2510 A
B) 1600 A
C) 5010 A
D) 800 A
E) 140 A
Q2) A circular coil (radius = 0.54 m)has 163 turns and is in a uniform magnetic field.If the orientation of the coil is varied through all possible positions,the maximum torque on the coil by magnetic forces is 0.19 N m when the current in the coil is 2.1 mA.What is the magnitude of the magnetic field?
A) 1.9 T
B) 0.05 T
C) 0.61 T
D) 53 T
E) 0.99 T
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Q1) Three 3.0- resistors are connected in parallel to a 12.0-V battery.What is the current in any one of the resistors?
A) 0.75 A
B) 12 A
C) 4.0 A
D) 1.3 A
Q2) A water pump draws about 4.4 A when connected to 240 V.What is the cost (with electrical energy at 9 cents per kWh)of running the pump for 10 h?
A) 82 cents
B) 8.0 cents
C) 95 cents
D) 15 cents
Q3) A 0.10-m long metal rod has a radius of 1.0 cm and a resistance of 3.2 × 10 <sup>5</sup> .What is the resistivity of the metal?
A) 5.0 × 10 <sup>8</sup> m
B) 160 × 10 <sup>8</sup> m
C) 10 × 10 <sup>8</sup> m
D) 1.6 × 10 <sup>8</sup> m
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Q1) In the United States,the value of for commercially generated power is ________ in SI units.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 120
D) 377
Q2) The magnetic field going through a stationary circular loop increases from zero to 5 T in a certain time t.The induced current in the loop will depend on the radius of the loop,r,the resistance of the loop,R,and the time,t.If two of these stay constant,the induced current can be directly proportional to:
A) t.
B) r.
C) R.
D) none of these
Q3) The unit of inductance,the henry,is equivalent to:
A) V·s/A.
B) V/m.
C) J/C.
D) none of the units given.
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Q1) A copper wire of length 10 cm is in a magnetic field of 0.30 T.If it has a mass of 20 g,what minimum current through the wire would cause a magnetic force equal to its weight?
A) 4.9 A
B) 6.5 A
C) 2.0 A
D) 1.3 A
Q2) Two long parallel wires 15 cm apart carry currents of 5.0 A and 8.0 A in the same direction.Is there any point between the two wires where the magnetic field is zero?
A) yes,midway between the wires
B) yes,9.2 cm from the 5 A wire
C) no
D) yes,5.8 cm from the 5 A wire
Q3) The magnetic domains in a magnetized piece of iron are characterized by which orientation?
A) anti-parallel (opposite direction)to the magnetic axis
B) perpendicular to the magnetic axis
C) parallel to the magnetic axis
D) random
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Q1) An AC power generator produces 60.64 A (rms)at 2195 V.The voltage is stepped up to 104,222 V by an ideal transformer,and the energy transmitted through a long-distance power line with a total resistance of 100 .What is the rms current in the long-distance line?
A) 2879 A
B) 1.28 A
C) 60.64 A
D) 8.80 A
E) 417.9 A
Q2) An AC power generator produces 14 A (rms)at 2103 V.The energy is transmitted through a long-distance power line,which has a total resistance of 145 .What percentage of the power delivered by the generator is dissipated as heat in the long-distance line if a step-up transformer is not used?
A) 3%
B) 19%
C) 31%
D) 97%
E) 93%
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Q1) A coil is placed in a changing magnetic field and an emf is induced.What happens to the induced emf if the rate of change of magnetic field doubles?
A) The emf quadruples.
B) The emf increases by a factor of 16.
C) There is no change.
D) The emf doubles.
Q2) Two loops of wire are arranged so that a changing current in one,the primary,will induce a current in the other,the secondary.The secondary loop has twice as many turns as the primary loop.The current in the primary at this moment is 6 A and increasing.The current in the secondary must be:
A) 3 A.
B) 6 A.
C) zero.
D) There is insufficient information to work this problem.
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Q1) What is the energy of a photon of frequency 3.80 × 10<sup>14</sup> Hz? (h = 6.626 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s)
A) 2.52E-19 J
B) 1.74E-20 J
C) 5.73E+47 J
D) 1.74E-48 J
E) 3.97E+18 J
Q2) In Huygens's construction,all points on a wave front:
A) act as point sources for the production of secondary spherical waves.
B) act as particles.
C) demonstrate the dual nature of light.
D) must be sources of plane waves.
Q3) When light from air hits a smooth piece of glass with the ray perpendicular to the glass surface,the part of the light passing into the glass:
A) will not change its speed.
B) will not change its frequency.
C) will not change its wavelength.
D) will not change its intensity.
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Q1) A transformer is to be designed to increase the 30 kV (rms)output of a generator to the transmission line voltage of 345 kV (rms).If the primary winding has 60 turns,how many turns must the secondary have?
A) 57
B) 6900
C) 690
D) 11
Q2) Find the resonant frequency for a series LCR circuit where R = 20.0 ,C = 10.0 µF,and L = 8.0 mH.
A) 1.59 kHz
B) 563 Hz
C) 5.00 kHz
D) 796 Hz
Q3) The frequency in an AC series circuit is halved.By what factor does this change the capacitive reactance?
A) 1/2
B) 4
C) 1/4
D) 2
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Q1) Ansel places an object 23.0 cm from a thin convex lens along the axis.If a real image forms at a distance of 14.0 cm from the lens,what is the focal length of the lens?
A) 23.0 cm
B) 35.8 cm
C) 14.0 cm
D) 8.70 cm
E) 9.0 cm
Q2) When the reflection of an object is seen in a plane mirror,the image is:
A) real and upright.
B) real and inverted.
C) virtual and upright.
D) virtual and inverted.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the image for a thin convex lens that forms whenever the object is at a distance less than one focal length from the lens?
A) inverted,enlarged and real
B) upright,enlarged and virtual
C) upright,diminished and virtual
D) inverted,diminished and real
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Q1) Determine the amount of energy carried in 50 m of a 3.5-mW He-Ne laser beam if the cross-sectional area of the beam is 5.0 × 10 <sup>6</sup> m<sup>2</sup>.
A) 2.9 × 10<sup>-8</sup> J
B) 5.8 × 10<sup>-10</sup> J
C) 0.024 J
D) 2.9 × 10<sup>-10</sup> J
Q2) What value of inductance should be used in a series circuit with a capacitor of 9.0 × 10 <sup>4</sup> F when designed to radiate a wavelength of 70 m? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A) 3.8 × 10 <sup>4</sup> mH
B) 1.9 × 10 <sup>4</sup> mH
C) 3.8 mH
D) 1.5 × 10 <sup>3</sup> mH
Q3) What is the wavelength of 200 MHz television EM waves? (c = 3 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A) 9 km
B) 10 m
C) 1.5 m
D) 3 m
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Q1) Light of wavelength 407 nm is incident on a slit of width 0.12 mm,and a diffraction pattern is produced on a screen that is 1.50 m from the slit.What is the width of the central bright fringe? (1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A) 0.51 cm
B) 1.02 cm
C) 10.2 cm
D) 1.53 cm
E) 15.3 cm
Q2) Light of wavelength 627 nm is incident on a slit of width 0.51 mm,and a diffraction pattern is produced on a screen that is 1.9 m from the slit.What is the distance of the second dark fringe from the center of the bright fringe? (1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A) 0.23 cm
B) 0.47 cm
C) 0.92 cm
D) 0.89 cm
E) 0.93 cm
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Q1) If the speed of light through an unknown liquid is measured at 1.67 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,what is the index of refraction of this liquid? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A) 1.80
B) 1.67
C) 0.600
D) 1.20
Q2) Assuming the frequency remains constant,a monochromatic light ray is transmitted through an glass-to-air boundary,what happens to the wavelength?
A) decreases
B) approaches zero value
C) increases
D) remains unchanged
Q3) An object is held at a distance of 18 cm from a convex mirror creating an image that is 1/6 the object size.What is the focal length of the mirror?
A) 3.6 cm
B) 18 cm
C) 6.0 cm
D) 9.0 cm
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Q1) A person has a near point of 40 cm and a far point of 1.0 m.When looking through lenses of focal length -1.0 m,what is the nearest an object can be to be seen clearly?
A) 29 cm
B) 67 cm
C) 134 cm
D) 140 cm
E) 68 cm
Q2) What is the f-number of a camera lens that has an aperture-opening diameter of 0.30 cm and a focal length of 6.0 cm?
A) 0.30
B) 1.8
C) 20
D) 6.0
E) 0.05
Q3) The Michelson interferometer is a device that may be used to measure:
A) magnifying power of lenses.
B) light wavelength.
C) atomic masses.
D) electron charge.
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Q1) A telescope is used to view two small lights separated by 2.0 cm at a distance of 500 m.What minimum objective lens diameter is needed to just resolve these objects if their wavelength is 656 nm?
A) 2.0 cm
B) 1.0 cm
C) 1.2 cm
D) 2.4 cm
Q2) That all points on a wave front act as new sources of spherical waves is attributed to:
A) Maxwell.
B) Young.
C) Thomas.
D) Huygens.
Q3) What is the highest order (the m value)of the complete visible spectrum (390 nm to 710 nm)that can be obtained with a grating having 300 lines/mm?
A) 5
B) 9
C) 8
D) 4
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Q1) The significant result of the Michelson-Morley experiment was that it found:
A) the ether moved with the sun.
B) the ether moved with the Earth.
C) the speed of the ether wind was greater than expected. D) no effect.
Q2) That the speed of light in a vacuum has the same value for all inertial frames is:
A) inconsistent with the results of the Michelson-Morley experiment.
B) consistent with the results of the Michelson-Morley experiment. C) not related to the results of the Michelson-Morley experiment. D) not true.
Q3) What is the relativistic kinetic energy of an electron moving at a speed of 2.30 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s? (electron mass is 9.11 × 10 <sup>31</sup> kg and c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s)
A) 4.57E-14 J
B) 1.28E-13 J
C) 5.26E-14 J
D) 3.38E-14 J
E) 8.20E-14 J
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Q1) A camera lens is initially set at f/16 for a shutter speed of 1/30 s.If the amount of lighting on the subject is unchanged,and the lens is set at f/5.6,what is the proper shutter speed at this setting?
A) 1/8 s
B) 1/250 s
C) 1/500 s
D) 1/16 s
Q2) A magnifying lens with a focal length of 10 cm has what maximum magnification? (Assume the near point is 25 cm).Do not use the approximation formula.
A) 3.5
B) 2.5
C) 7.1
D) 3.0
Q3) A camera has a lens of focal length 50 mm and an f-number of 4.0.What is the diameter of the lens?
A) 50 mm
B) 100 mm
C) 25 mm
D) 13 mm
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Q1) If the minimum x-ray wavelength produced is 17 × 10 <sup>12</sup> m,through what potential are the electrons accelerated in order to generate this radiation? (h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s,c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,and 1 eV = 1.60 × 10 <sup>19</sup>
J)
A) 1.17E+5 V
B) 2.44E+4 V
C) 1.10E+4 V
D) 7.31E+4 V
E) 1.87E+5 V
Q2) A light beam is shining on a metal target that has a work function of 1.8 eV.If a stopping potential of 0.7 V is required,what is the wavelength of the incoming monochromatic light? (h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s,c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,1 eV = 1.60 × 10 <sup>19</sup> J,and 1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A) 497 nm
B) 166 nm
C) 796 nm
D) 1130 nm
E) 691 nm
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Q1) Muons at speed 0.9994c are sent round and round a circular storage ring of radius 1500 m.If a muon at rest decays into other particles after an average T = 2.2 × 10 <sup>6</sup> s,how many trips around the storage ring do we expect the 0.9994c muons to make before they decay?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 0.2
D) 6
Q2) The observed relativistic length of a super rocket moving by the observer at 0.57c will be what factor times that of the measured rocket length if it were at rest?
A) 0.82
B) 0.45
C) 1.4
D) 0.71
Q3) At what speed is the momentum of an object triple that found classically?
A) c/3
B) 0.942 c
C) 0.866c
D) 2c/3

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Q1) Characteristic x-rays are the result of:
A) outer electron transitions.
B) inner electron transitions.
C) nuclear electron states.
D) buckytubes.
Q2) The quantity ________,where is the wave function,represents the probability per unit volume of finding an electron in that volume.
A) <sup>1/2</sup>
B)
C) <sup>3/2</sup>
D) <sup>2</sup>
Q3) The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.What is the wavelength of a photon having this much energy? (h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s,c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s,1 eV = 1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup> J,and 1 nm = 10 <sup>9</sup> m)
A) 91.4 nm
B) 136 nm
C) 273 nm
D) 360 nm
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Q1) The microwave in the kitchen has a label that indicates it produces its microwaves at a frequency of 2450 MHz.What is the energy associated with one of these microwave photons? (h = 6.63 × 10 <sup>34</sup> J s)
A) 3.19 × 10<sup>-2</sup> eV
B) 2.45 eV
C) 1.02 × 10<sup>-5</sup> eV
D) 1.62 eV
Q2) Which change will not affect the kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons emitted in the photoelectric effect?
A) changing the frequency of the light
B) changing the metal the light is hitting
C) changing the brightness of the light
D) All of the above will affect the electron's kinetic energy.
Q3) According to de Broglie,as the momentum of a moving particle is quartered,the corresponding wavelength changes by what factor?
A) 1/4
B) 1/16
C) 16
D) 4
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Q1) The mass of <sup>238</sup>U is not quite an integer multiple of <sup>1</sup>H mass.This is primarily because:
A) the proton and neutron have different masses.
B) there are several isotopes of uranium.
C) of the binding energy of uranium.
D) uranium is radioactive.
Q2) If the stable nuclei are plotted with neutron number vs.proton number,the curve formed by the stable nuclei does not follow the line N = Z.This is predicted by examining how the binding energy is influenced by:
A) the volume of the nucleus.
B) the size of the nuclear surface.
C) the Coulomb repulsion.
D) the proton-neutron mass difference.
Q3) A radioactive isotope that emits an alpha particle will change in what respect?
A) Atomic number decreases by four.
B) Mass number decreases by four.
C) Both choices a and b are valid.
D) None of the above choices are valid.
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Q1) How many possible substates are available in a hydrogen atom where the principal quantum number is 2?
A) 18
B) 8
C) 36
D) 9
Q2) In the hydrogen atom the potential energy is negative,but the absolute value of the potential energy:
A) is half the kinetic energy of the electron.
B) is equal to n<sup>2</sup> times the kinetic energy of the electron.
C) is equal to the kinetic energy of the electron.
D) is twice the kinetic energy of the electron.
Q3) When an electron moves from the n = 1 to the n = 3 orbit:
A) the radius doubles and the angular momentum increases by a factor of 9.
B) the radius increases by a factor of 9,and the angular momentum triples.
C) both the radius and the angular momentum increase by a factor of 9.
D) both the radius and the angular momentum triple.
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Q1) Calculate the energy (in kW h)given off if four kg of plutonium-239 undergoes complete fission.The energy released per fission is 200 MeV.(1 MeV = 1.6 × 10 <sup>13</sup> J)
A) 8.96E+10 kW h
B) 5.12E+12 kW h
C) 2.02E+16 kW h
D) 8.96E+7 kW h
E) 5.35E+9 kW h
Q2) A photon hits an electron,and an antiproton is created.Some uncharged particles must have left the collision.These may be:
A) neutron and neutrino.
B) neutron and antineutrino.
C) photon and neutrino.
D) photon and antineutrino.
Q3) The charge of some quarks or anti-quarks is:
A) 0.
B) 1/2 (1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup>)C.
C) 1/3 (1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup>)C.
D) 1 (1.6 × 10 <sup>19</sup>)C.
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Q1) A radioactive material initially is observed to have an activity of 1000 decays/sec.If nine hours later it is observed to have an activity of 125 decays/s,what is its half-life?
A) 1/2 hour
B) 8 hours
C) 3 hours
D) 1 hour
Q2) A pure sample of <sup>226</sup>Ra contains 3.0 × 10<sup>14</sup> atoms of the isotope.If the half-life of <sup>226</sup>Ra = 1.6 × 10<sup>3</sup> years,what is the decay rate of this sample? (1 Ci = 3.7 × 10<sup>10</sup> decays/s)
A) 2.7 × 10 <sup>12</sup> Ci
B) 11 × 10 <sup>8</sup> Ci
C) 3.4 × 10 <sup>10</sup> Ci
D) 7.4 × 10 <sup>8</sup> Ci
Q3) 10<sup>10</sup> Bq = ______ Ci?
A) 2.7 × 10<sup>-11</sup>
B) 3.7
C) 0.27
D) 3.7 × 10<sup>10</sup>
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Q1) The exchange of mediating photons can produce
A) neither a repulsive nor an attractive force.
B) either a repulsive or an attractive force.
C) a repulsive force.
D) an attractive force.
Q2) The cosmic background radiation appears compatible with a blackbody source at what temperature?
A) 0.0003 K
B) 3 K
C) 300 K
D) 0.03 K
Q3) The microwave background radiation:
A) represents the leftover glow from the Big Bang.
B) had its slight non-uniformity measured by COBE.
C) was discovered by Penzias and Wilson.
D) All of the above.
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